A 5-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents for the evaluation of an episode of loss of consciousness while he was playing soccer earlier that morning. He was unconscious for about 15 seconds and did not shake, bite his tongue, or lose bowel or bladder control. He has been healthy except for 1 episode of simple febrile seizure. His father died suddenly at the age of 34 of an unknown heart condition. The patient does not take any medications. He is alert and oriented. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 95/min and regular, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies are within normal limits. An ECG shows sinus rhythm and a QT interval corrected for heart rate (QTc) of 470 milliseconds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
Q792
A 61-year-old woman presents to her physician with foot tingling, numbness, and pain. She describes her pain as constant and burning and gives it 5 out of 10 on the visual analog pain scale. She also recalls several falls due to the numbness in her feet. She was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and diabetic retinopathy 5 years ago. Since then, she takes metformin 1000 mg twice daily and had no follow-up visits to adjust her therapy. Her weight is 110 kg (242.5 lb), and her height is 176 cm (5 ft. 7 in). The vital signs are as follows: blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, heart rate is 72/min, respiratory rate is 12/min, and the temperature is 36.6°C (97.9°F). The patient has increased adiposity in the abdominal region with stretch marks. The respiratory examination is within normal limits. The cardiovascular exam is significant for a bilateral carotid bruit. The neurological examination shows bilateral decreased ankle reflex, symmetrically decreased touch sensation and absent vibration sensation in both feet up to the ankle. The gait is mildly ataxic. The Romberg test is positive with a tendency to fall to both sides, and significant worsening on eye closure. Which of the following medications should be used to manage the patient’s pain?
Q793
A 59-year-old female presents to the emergency department after a fall. She reports severe pain in her right hip and an inability to move her right leg. Her past medical history is notable for osteoporosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and has never undergone surgery before. The patient was adopted, and her family history is unknown. She has never smoked and drinks alcohol socially. Her temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. Her right leg is shortened, abducted, and externally rotated. A radiograph demonstrates a displaced femoral neck fracture. She is admitted and eventually brought to the operating room to undergo right hip arthroplasty. While undergoing induction anesthesia with inhaled sevoflurane, she develops severe muscle contractions. Her temperature is 103.4°F (39.7°C). A medication with which of the following mechanisms of action is indicated in the acute management of this patient’s condition?
Q794
A previously healthy 52-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of chest pain on exertion. She takes no medications. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Cardiac stress ECG shows inducible ST-segment depressions in the precordial leads that coincide with the patient's report of chest pain and resolve upon cessation of exercise. Pharmacotherapy with verapamil is initiated. This drug is most likely to have which of the following sets of effects?
$$$ End-diastolic volume (EDV) %%% Blood pressure (BP) %%% Contractility %%% Heart rate (HR) $$$
Q795
A 35-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after the onset of severe dyspnea. On arrival, she is unresponsive. Her pulse is 160/min, respirations are 32/min, and blood pressure is 60/30 mm Hg. CT angiography of the chest shows extensive pulmonary embolism in both lungs. She is given a drug that inhibits both thrombin and factor Xa. Which of the following medications was most likely administered?
Q796
A drug discovery team is conducting research to observe the characteristics of a novel drug under different experimental conditions. The drug is converted into the inactive metabolites by an action of an enzyme E. After multiple experiments, the team concludes that as compared to physiologic pH, the affinity of the enzyme E for the drug decreases markedly in acidic pH. Co-administration of an antioxidant A increases the value of Michaelis-Menten constant (Km) for the enzyme reaction, while co-administration of a drug B decreases the value of Km. Assume the metabolism of the novel drug follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics at the therapeutic dose, and that the effects of different factors on the metabolism of the drug are first-order linear. For which of the following conditions will the metabolism of the drug be the slowest?
Q797
A 75-year-old man with a 35-pack-year history of smoking is found to be lethargic three days after being admitted with a femur fracture following a motor vehicle accident. His recovery has been progressing well thus far, though pain continued to be present. On exam, the patient is minimally responsive with pinpoint pupils. Vital signs are blood pressure of 115/65 mmHg, HR 80/min, respiratory rate 6/min, and oxygen saturation of 87% on room air. Arterial blood gas (ABG) shows a pH of 7.24 (Normal: 7.35-7.45), PaCO2 of 60mm Hg (normal 35-45mm Hg), a HCO3 of 23 mEq/L (normal 21-28 mEq/L) and a Pa02 of 60 mmHg (normal 80-100 mmHg). Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy at this time?
Q798
A 10-year-old boy presents with a painful rash for 1 day. He says that the reddish, purple rash started on his forearm but has now spread to his abdomen. He says there is a burning pain in the area where the rash is located. He also says he has had a stuffy nose for several days. Past medical history is significant for asthma and epilepsy, medically managed. Current medications are a daily chewable multivitamin, albuterol, budesonide, and lamotrigine. On physical examination, there is a red-purple maculopapular rash present on upper extremities and torso. There are some blisters present over the rash, as shown in the image, which is also present in the oral mucosa. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
Q799
A 64-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of dull lower abdominal pain for 3 hours. He has not urinated for 24 hours and has not passed stool for over 3 days. He was diagnosed with herpes zoster 4 weeks ago and continues to have pain even after his rash resolved. He has hypertension, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and coronary artery disease. Physical examination shows a tender, palpable suprapubic mass. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. Abdominal ultrasound shows a large anechoic mass in the pelvis. Which of the following drugs most likely accounts for this patient's current symptoms?
Q800
A 16-year-old girl who recently immigrated to the United States from Bolivia presents to her primary care physician with a chief complaint of inattentiveness in school. The patient's teacher describes her as occasionally "day-dreaming" for periods of time during which the patient does not respond or participate in school activities. Nothing has helped the patient change her behavior, including parent-teacher conferences or punishment. The patient has no other complaints herself. The only other concern that the patient's mother has is that upon awakening she notices that sometimes the patient's arm will jerk back and forth. The patient states she is not doing this intentionally. The patient has an unknown past medical history and is currently not on any medications. On physical exam you note a young, healthy girl whose neurological exam is within normal limits. Which of the following is the best initial treatment?
Autonomic/CV Drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: A 5-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents for the evaluation of an episode of loss of consciousness while he was playing soccer earlier that morning. He was unconscious for about 15 seconds and did not shake, bite his tongue, or lose bowel or bladder control. He has been healthy except for 1 episode of simple febrile seizure. His father died suddenly at the age of 34 of an unknown heart condition. The patient does not take any medications. He is alert and oriented. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 95/min and regular, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies are within normal limits. An ECG shows sinus rhythm and a QT interval corrected for heart rate (QTc) of 470 milliseconds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in treatment?
A. Propranolol (Correct Answer)
B. Implantable cardioverter defibrillator
C. Amiodarone
D. Procainamide
E. Magnesium sulfate
Explanation: ***Propranolol***
- This patient presents with **syncope during exertion** and a **prolonged QTc (470 ms)**, coupled with a **family history of sudden cardiac death**. These signs are highly suggestive of **Long QT Syndrome (LQTS)**.
- **Beta-blockers**, such as propranolol, are the **first-line treatment** for LQTS to prevent life-threatening arrhythmias by attenuating adrenergic stimulation.
*Implantable cardioverter defibrillator*
- An **ICD** is typically reserved for LQTS patients who have experienced **cardiac arrest**, have recurrent syncope despite beta-blocker therapy, or are at very high risk for sudden cardiac death.
- While it may be considered in severe cases, it is **not the initial management step** for a newly diagnosed, stable patient.
*Amiodarone*
- **Amiodarone** is an antiarrhythmic drug known to **prolong the QT interval**, making it **contraindicated in LQTS** as it could worsen the condition and increase the risk of Torsades de Pointes.
- Its use is generally reserved for other types of refractory arrhythmias.
*Procainamide*
- **Procainamide** is a Class IA antiarrhythmic agent that also **prolongs the QT interval** and is associated with a risk of Torsades de Pointes.
- It would be **inappropriate and potentially harmful** in a patient with LQTS.
*Magnesium sulfate*
- **Magnesium sulfate** is the treatment of choice for **Torsades de Pointes**, especially when associated with hypomagnesemia or drug-induced QT prolongation.
- While LQTS can lead to Torsades, magnesium sulfate is not indicated as a primary prophylactic treatment for stable LQTS.
Question 792: A 61-year-old woman presents to her physician with foot tingling, numbness, and pain. She describes her pain as constant and burning and gives it 5 out of 10 on the visual analog pain scale. She also recalls several falls due to the numbness in her feet. She was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and diabetic retinopathy 5 years ago. Since then, she takes metformin 1000 mg twice daily and had no follow-up visits to adjust her therapy. Her weight is 110 kg (242.5 lb), and her height is 176 cm (5 ft. 7 in). The vital signs are as follows: blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, heart rate is 72/min, respiratory rate is 12/min, and the temperature is 36.6°C (97.9°F). The patient has increased adiposity in the abdominal region with stretch marks. The respiratory examination is within normal limits. The cardiovascular exam is significant for a bilateral carotid bruit. The neurological examination shows bilateral decreased ankle reflex, symmetrically decreased touch sensation and absent vibration sensation in both feet up to the ankle. The gait is mildly ataxic. The Romberg test is positive with a tendency to fall to both sides, and significant worsening on eye closure. Which of the following medications should be used to manage the patient’s pain?
A. Topiramate
B. Nortriptyline (Correct Answer)
C. Morphine
D. Tramadol
E. Diclofenac
Explanation: ***Nortriptyline***
- **Diabetic peripheral neuropathy (DPN)** is characterized by **neuropathic pain**, for which tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) like nortriptyline are considered **first-line agents** due to their efficacy in modulating chronic pain pathways.
- The patient's symptoms of **burning pain**, numbness, tingling, and sensory deficits in a "stocking-glove" distribution are characteristic of DPN, making TCAs an appropriate choice for symptom management.
*Topiramate*
- Primarily used for **epilepsy** and **migraine prophylaxis**, topiramate is not a first-line treatment for diabetic peripheral neuropathy pain.
- It carries a risk of significant side effects like **cognitive impairment** and **renal calculi**, which may not be well-tolerated in this patient with multiple comorbidities.
*Morphine*
- While effective for severe pain, **long-term opioid use** like morphine for chronic neuropathic pain is generally discouraged due to risks of **dependence**, addiction, and side effects like constipation and respiratory depression.
- Opioids are usually reserved for cases refractory to other treatments or for acute severe pain.
*Tramadol*
- Tramadol is an **opioid analgesic** with additional serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibition properties, offering some benefit in neuropathic pain.
- However, similar to other opioids, it carries risks of **dependence** and **serotonin syndrome** when combined with other serotonergic agents (though none are specified here), and it is generally not a first-line agent for chronic DPN.
*Diclofenac*
- Diclofenac is a **non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)** primarily used for inflammatory and nociceptive pain, not neuropathic pain.
- It is ineffective for the **burning, tingling, and numbness** associated with nerve damage and poses risks of **gastrointestinal bleeding** and **cardiovascular events**, especially in an older patient with hypertension.
Question 793: A 59-year-old female presents to the emergency department after a fall. She reports severe pain in her right hip and an inability to move her right leg. Her past medical history is notable for osteoporosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and has never undergone surgery before. The patient was adopted, and her family history is unknown. She has never smoked and drinks alcohol socially. Her temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, and respirations are 22/min. Her right leg is shortened, abducted, and externally rotated. A radiograph demonstrates a displaced femoral neck fracture. She is admitted and eventually brought to the operating room to undergo right hip arthroplasty. While undergoing induction anesthesia with inhaled sevoflurane, she develops severe muscle contractions. Her temperature is 103.4°F (39.7°C). A medication with which of the following mechanisms of action is indicated in the acute management of this patient’s condition?
A. Ryanodine receptor antagonist (Correct Answer)
B. Acetylcholine receptor agonist
C. Serotonin 1B/1D agonist
D. NMDA receptor antagonist
E. GABA agonist
Explanation: ***Ryanodine receptor antagonist***
- The patient's presentation with **high fever**, **muscle rigidity**, and **tachycardia** shortly after induction with **sevoflurane** is highly suggestive of **malignant hyperthermia (MH)**.
- **Dantrolene**, a **ryanodine receptor antagonist**, is the specific treatment for MH, as it blocks the excessive release of **calcium** from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells.
*Acetylcholine receptor agonist*
- **Acetylcholine receptor agonists** (e.g., succinylcholine) stimulate muscle contraction and would worsen the muscle rigidity seen in malignant hyperthermia.
- These agents are often triggers for malignant hyperthermia when combined with volatile anesthetics.
*Serotonin 1B/1D agonist*
- **Serotonin 1B/1D agonists** (e.g., triptans) are primarily used in the acute treatment of migraines.
- They have no role in the management of malignant hyperthermia and would not address the underlying pathophysiology.
*NMDA receptor antagonist*
- **NMDA receptor antagonists** (e.g., ketamine) are dissociative anesthetics and analgesics.
- They do not directly affect the calcium release channels in skeletal muscle responsible for malignant hyperthermia.
*GABA agonist*
- **GABA agonists** (e.g., benzodiazepines, propofol) are central nervous system depressants used for sedation and anesthesia.
- While they can have muscle relaxant properties, they do not specifically target the **ryanodine receptor** pathway involved in malignant hyperthermia.
Question 794: A previously healthy 52-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of chest pain on exertion. She takes no medications. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Cardiac stress ECG shows inducible ST-segment depressions in the precordial leads that coincide with the patient's report of chest pain and resolve upon cessation of exercise. Pharmacotherapy with verapamil is initiated. This drug is most likely to have which of the following sets of effects?
$$$ End-diastolic volume (EDV) %%% Blood pressure (BP) %%% Contractility %%% Heart rate (HR) $$$
A. No change no change no change no change
B. ↓ ↓ no change ↑
C. ↓ ↓ ↓ ↑
D. ↓ ↓ ↓ no change
E. ↑ ↓ ↓ ↓ (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***↑ ↓ ↓ ↓***
- **Verapamil**, a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker**, reduces **cardiac contractility**, leading to decreased **heart rate** and **blood pressure**, while increasing **end-diastolic volume**.
- Its therapeutic effect in **exertional angina** is primarily due to reduced myocardial oxygen demand, achieved by decreasing **heart rate**, **contractility** (both leading to reduced work of heart), and **afterload** (due to vasodilation which decreases blood pressure).
*No change no change no change no change*
- This option is incorrect because verapamil has significant **pharmacological effects** on the cardiovascular system.
- Verapamil is prescribed to treat the patient's symptoms, implying a need for **hemodynamic changes**, not stasis.
*↓ ↓ no change ↑*
- Verapamil typically **decreases heart rate** due to its action on the sinoatrial (SA) node, making an increase unlikely.
- While it decreases **blood pressure** and **contractility**, the absence of an effect on heart rate and an increase in heart rate are inconsistent with verapamil's known pharmacology.
*↓ ↓ ↓ ↑*
- This option incorrectly suggests an **increase in heart rate**, whereas verapamil is known to cause a dose-dependent **decrease in heart rate**.
- The other parameters (decreased EDV, BP, contractility) are also not fully aligned with verapamil's effects; EDV tends to increase due to better filling time and reduced contractility.
*↓ ↓ ↓ no change*
- This option suggests a **decrease in EDV**, which is generally incorrect; verapamil tends to allow for **increased ventricular filling** due to a reduced heart rate and prolonged diastole.
- The absence of a change in heart rate is also incorrect, as verapamil is a known **negative chronotropic agent**.
Question 795: A 35-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after the onset of severe dyspnea. On arrival, she is unresponsive. Her pulse is 160/min, respirations are 32/min, and blood pressure is 60/30 mm Hg. CT angiography of the chest shows extensive pulmonary embolism in both lungs. She is given a drug that inhibits both thrombin and factor Xa. Which of the following medications was most likely administered?
A. Fondaparinux
B. Ticagrelor
C. Unfractionated heparin (Correct Answer)
D. Apixaban
E. Tenecteplase
Explanation: ***Unfractionated heparin***
- **Unfractionated heparin** inhibits both **thrombin (factor IIa)** and **factor Xa** by binding to **antithrombin III**, which then inactivates these coagulation factors.
- Given the patient's severe, life-threatening **pulmonary embolism** with **hemodynamic instability** (shock, unresponsive, severe hypotension), rapid-acting intravenous unfractionated heparin is the anticoagulant of choice for immediate effect.
*Fondaparinux*
- **Fondaparinux** is a synthetic **pentasaccharide** that selectively inhibits **factor Xa** but does not directly inhibit thrombin.
- It is typically administered subcutaneously and has a slower onset of action compared to intravenous unfractionated heparin, making it less suitable for emergent, life-threatening situations where immediate full anticoagulation is critical.
*Ticagrelor*
- **Ticagrelor** is an **oral antiplatelet agent** that works by inhibiting the P2Y12 receptor on platelets, preventing platelet aggregation.
- It does not inhibit thrombin or factor Xa and is primarily used in acute coronary syndromes to prevent arterial thrombosis, not for acute treatment of venous thromboembolism like pulmonary embolism.
*Apixaban*
- **Apixaban** is an **oral direct factor Xa inhibitor** that does not inhibit thrombin.
- While effective for venous thromboembolism, its oral administration means a slower onset of action and it is generally not used as the initial anticoagulant for hemodynamically unstable pulmonary embolism where immediate, titratable intravenous anticoagulation is required.
*Tenecteplase*
- **Tenecteplase** is a **fibrinolytic (thrombolytic) agent** that works by converting plasminogen to plasmin, leading to the breakdown of fibrin clots.
- While it is a treatment option for massive pulmonary embolism with hemodynamic instability, it is not an anticoagulant and does not inhibit thrombin or factor Xa; its mechanism of action is clot lysis, not preventing new clot formation via coagulation factor inhibition.
Question 796: A drug discovery team is conducting research to observe the characteristics of a novel drug under different experimental conditions. The drug is converted into the inactive metabolites by an action of an enzyme E. After multiple experiments, the team concludes that as compared to physiologic pH, the affinity of the enzyme E for the drug decreases markedly in acidic pH. Co-administration of an antioxidant A increases the value of Michaelis-Menten constant (Km) for the enzyme reaction, while co-administration of a drug B decreases the value of Km. Assume the metabolism of the novel drug follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics at the therapeutic dose, and that the effects of different factors on the metabolism of the drug are first-order linear. For which of the following conditions will the metabolism of the drug be the slowest?
A. Acidic pH, co-administration of antioxidant A and of drug B
B. Acidic pH, co-administration of antioxidant A, no administration of drug B (Correct Answer)
C. Physiologic pH, co-administration of antioxidant A, no administration of drug B
D. Acidic pH, co-administration of drug B, no administration of antioxidant A
E. Acidic pH, without administration of antioxidant A or drug B
Explanation: ***Acidic pH, co-administration of antioxidant A, no administration of drug B***
- **Decreased affinity** at acidic pH reduces the enzyme's ability to bind the drug, slowing metabolism.
- Co-administration of **antioxidant A increases Km**, indicating a further reduction in enzyme affinity and thus slower metabolism.
*Acidic pH, co-administration of antioxidant A and of drug B*
- While acidic pH and antioxidant A slow metabolism, co-administration of **drug B decreases Km**, which would increase enzyme affinity and counteract the slowing effect to some extent.
- The combination would result in a slower metabolism than baseline, but likely not the slowest possible due to the partially opposing effects of A and B.
*Physiologic pH, co-administration of antioxidant A, no administration of drug B*
- At **physiologic pH**, the enzyme's affinity for the drug is higher than at acidic pH, promoting faster metabolism.
- Although antioxidant A increases Km, the favorable pH for enzyme activity means metabolism will not be as slow as under acidic conditions.
*Acidic pH, co-administration of drug B, no administration of antioxidant A*
- **Acidic pH** reduces enzyme affinity, slowing metabolism.
- However, the co-administration of **drug B decreases Km**, which increases enzyme affinity and would partially offset the reduced affinity caused by the acidic pH, leading to a faster metabolism compared to when antioxidant A is present.
*Acidic pH, without administration of antioxidant A or drug B*
- At **acidic pH**, the enzyme's affinity for the drug decreases, which slows metabolism.
- However, in this condition, there are no additional factors (like antioxidant A) further increasing Km, nor factors (like drug B) decreasing Km, so the metabolic rate would be slower than physiologic pH but not as slow as when antioxidant A is also present.
Question 797: A 75-year-old man with a 35-pack-year history of smoking is found to be lethargic three days after being admitted with a femur fracture following a motor vehicle accident. His recovery has been progressing well thus far, though pain continued to be present. On exam, the patient is minimally responsive with pinpoint pupils. Vital signs are blood pressure of 115/65 mmHg, HR 80/min, respiratory rate 6/min, and oxygen saturation of 87% on room air. Arterial blood gas (ABG) shows a pH of 7.24 (Normal: 7.35-7.45), PaCO2 of 60mm Hg (normal 35-45mm Hg), a HCO3 of 23 mEq/L (normal 21-28 mEq/L) and a Pa02 of 60 mmHg (normal 80-100 mmHg). Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy at this time?
A. Naloxone (Correct Answer)
B. Heparin
C. Glucocorticoids
D. Repeat catheterization
E. Emergent cardiac surgery
Explanation: ***Naloxone***
- The patient's presentation with **lethargy**, pinpoint pupils, **respiratory depression** (RR 6/min, low PaO2, high PaCO2), and recent use of pain medication for a fracture strongly suggests **opioid overdose**.
- **Naloxone** is a **mu-opioid receptor antagonist** that rapidly reverses the effects of opioid overdose, including respiratory depression and CNS depression.
*Heparin*
- This patient does not exhibit classic signs or symptoms of a **thromboembolic event** such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or pulmonary embolism (PE), which would warrant heparin administration.
- While a femur fracture increases DVT risk, the primary and acute issue is severe **respiratory depression** and altered mental status.
*Glucocorticoids*
- **Glucocorticoids** are used for inflammatory conditions, allergic reactions, or adrenal insufficiency, none of which are indicated by the patient's acute presentation.
- They would not address the immediate life-threatening respiratory depression and altered mental status.
*Repeat catheterization*
- There is no clinical information suggesting a primary **cardiac event** that would necessitate a repeat cardiac catheterization.
- The patient's symptoms are neurological and respiratory, not cardiac in origin.
*Emergent cardiac surgery*
- The patient's presentation does not point to an acute cardiac emergency requiring **surgery**, such as aortic dissection or massive myocardial infarction with mechanical complications.
- The primary problem is an acute drug toxicity causing respiratory and CNS depression.
Question 798: A 10-year-old boy presents with a painful rash for 1 day. He says that the reddish, purple rash started on his forearm but has now spread to his abdomen. He says there is a burning pain in the area where the rash is located. He also says he has had a stuffy nose for several days. Past medical history is significant for asthma and epilepsy, medically managed. Current medications are a daily chewable multivitamin, albuterol, budesonide, and lamotrigine. On physical examination, there is a red-purple maculopapular rash present on upper extremities and torso. There are some blisters present over the rash, as shown in the image, which is also present in the oral mucosa. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms?
A. Multivitamin
B. Budesonide
C. Albuterol
D. Lamotrigine (Correct Answer)
E. Infection
Explanation: ***Lamotrigine***
- The patient's symptoms, including a **painful, rapidly spreading maculopapular rash** with **blisters** involving the skin and **oral mucosa**, are highly suggestive of **Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)** or **toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)**.
- **Lamotrigine** is a known medication commonly associated with SJS/TEN, especially when initiated or titrated rapidly.
*Multivitamin*
- **Multivitamins** are generally safe and are not known to cause severe dermatological reactions like SJS/TEN.
- While allergic reactions to specific components in multivitamins are possible, they are typically mild and do not present with widespread blistering rashes.
*Budesonide*
- **Budesonide** is an inhaled corticosteroid primarily used for asthma and is not associated with SJS/TEN.
- Corticosteroids are more commonly used *to treat* inflammatory skin conditions rather than cause them.
*Albuterol*
- **Albuterol** is a bronchodilator for asthma and is not a recognized cause of SJS/TEN.
- Adverse effects of albuterol are typically cardiac (e.g., tachycardia) or neurological (e.g., tremor).
*Infection*
- While some **infections** (e.g., *Mycoplasma pneumoniae*, herpes simplex virus) can trigger SJS, the abrupt onset of symptoms in a patient on a high-risk medication makes the drug the more likely primary cause.
- The "stuffy nose" could be an upper respiratory infection, which can sometimes precede SJS, but the distinctive rash and medication history strongly point to lamotrigine as the precipitating factor.
Question 799: A 64-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of dull lower abdominal pain for 3 hours. He has not urinated for 24 hours and has not passed stool for over 3 days. He was diagnosed with herpes zoster 4 weeks ago and continues to have pain even after his rash resolved. He has hypertension, benign prostatic hyperplasia, and coronary artery disease. Physical examination shows a tender, palpable suprapubic mass. Bowel sounds are hypoactive. Abdominal ultrasound shows a large anechoic mass in the pelvis. Which of the following drugs most likely accounts for this patient's current symptoms?
A. Valproate
B. Desipramine (Correct Answer)
C. Amlodipine
D. Pregabalin
E. Simvastatin
Explanation: ***Desipramine***
- Desipramine is a **tricyclic antidepressant** with significant **anticholinergic side effects**. These effects, such as **urinary retention** and **constipation**, are highly consistent with the patient's symptoms (not urinated for 24 hours, not passed stool for 3 days), especially in a patient with pre-existing **benign prostatic hyperplasia**.
- The patient's ongoing pain after herpes zoster suggests **postherpetic neuralgia**, which is a common indication for TCAs because of their **neuromodulating properties**. This drug, therefore, explains both his presenting symptoms and the reason for its prescription.
*Valproate*
- Valproate is an **anticonvulsant** and mood stabilizer, but it is **not typically used for postherpetic neuralgia**.
- Its side effects include gastrointestinal upset, but it does **not commonly cause severe constipation or urinary retention** to the degree described.
*Amlodipine*
- Amlodipine is a **calcium channel blocker** used for hypertension and coronary artery disease, which the patient has. However, it does **not cause significant constipation or urinary retention**.
- Constipation can be a minor side effect, but **severe bowel and bladder dysfunction** as described is not characteristic of amlodipine.
*Pregabalin*
- Pregabalin is an **anticonvulsant** and gabapentinoid commonly used to manage **neuropathic pain**, including postherpetic neuralgia.
- While it can cause some dizziness or somnolence, it is **not associated with severe anticholinergic effects** like acute urinary retention or profound constipation.
*Simvastatin*
- Simvastatin is a **statin** used to manage hyperlipidemia and coronary artery disease, which the patient has.
- Its primary side effects include **muscle pain (myalgia)** and liver enzyme elevation; it does not cause bladder or bowel obstruction.
Question 800: A 16-year-old girl who recently immigrated to the United States from Bolivia presents to her primary care physician with a chief complaint of inattentiveness in school. The patient's teacher describes her as occasionally "day-dreaming" for periods of time during which the patient does not respond or participate in school activities. Nothing has helped the patient change her behavior, including parent-teacher conferences or punishment. The patient has no other complaints herself. The only other concern that the patient's mother has is that upon awakening she notices that sometimes the patient's arm will jerk back and forth. The patient states she is not doing this intentionally. The patient has an unknown past medical history and is currently not on any medications. On physical exam you note a young, healthy girl whose neurological exam is within normal limits. Which of the following is the best initial treatment?
A. Ethosuximide
B. Valproic acid (Correct Answer)
C. Carbamazepine
D. Cognitive behavioral therapy
E. Lamotrigine
Explanation: ***Valproic acid***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME)**, characterized by **absence seizures** ("day-dreaming") and **myoclonic jerks**, particularly upon awakening. Valproic acid is considered a first-line agent for JME due to its broad spectrum of action against various seizure types.
- While ethosuximide is effective for absence seizures, valproic acid is preferred in JME because it also effectively controls the associated myoclonic jerks, addressing both seizure types seen in this patient.
*Ethosuximide*
- Ethosuximide is the drug of choice for **absence seizures** only, effectively preventing the "day-dreaming" spells.
- However, it is not effective against the **myoclonic jerks** described by the patient's mother, which are a characteristic feature of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy.
*Carbamazepine*
- Carbamazepine is primarily used for **focal (partial) seizures** and **tonic-clonic seizures**.
- It can actually **exacerbate absence and myoclonic seizures**, making it an inappropriate choice for this patient's presentation.
*Cognitive behavioral therapy*
- Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is a **psychological intervention** primarily used for mental health conditions like anxiety, depression, or behavioral disorders.
- While helpful for addressing emotional or behavioral responses to a chronic illness, it does not treat the underlying **electrical abnormalities in the brain** that cause seizures.
*Lamotrigine*
- Lamotrigine is a broad-spectrum antiepileptic drug that can be effective for various seizure types, including **absence and myoclonic seizures**.
- However, it can sometimes **exacerbate myoclonic seizures** in some individuals with JME, and while sometimes used as an alternative, valproic acid is generally the first-line choice for its established efficacy in controlling all seizure types in JME.