A 37-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a chief complaint of severe pain in her face. She states that over the past week she has experienced episodic and intense pain in her face that comes on suddenly and resolves on its own. She states she feels the pain over her cheek and near her eye. The pain is so severe it causes her eyes to tear up, and she is very self conscious about the episodes. She fears going out in public as a result and sometimes feels her symptoms come on when she thinks about an episode occurring while in public. While she is waiting in the emergency room her symptoms resolve. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes, constipation, irritable bowel syndrome, and anxiety. She is well known to the emergency department for coming in with chief complaints that often do not have an organic etiology. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 177/108 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal exams are within normal limits. Neurological exam reveals cranial nerves II-XII are grossly intact. The patient's pupils are equal and reactive to light. Pain is not elicited with palpation of the patient's face. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
Q772
A 14-year-old boy presents to an urgent care clinic complaining of a runny nose that has lasted for a few weeks. He also reports sneezing attacks that last up to an hour, nasal obstruction, and generalized itching. He has similar episodes each year during the springtime that prevent him from going out with his friends or trying out for sports. His younger brother has a history of asthma. Which of the following diseases has a similar pathophysiology?
Q773
A 60-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with progressive nausea and vomiting. She reports that approximately one day prior to presentation she experienced abdominal discomfort that subsequently worsened to severe nausea, vomiting, and two episodes of watery diarrhea. She recently noticed that her vision has become blurry along with mild alterations in color perception. Medical history is significant for congestive heart failure with a low ejection fraction. She cannot recall which medications she is currently taking but believes she is taking them as prescribed. Which of the following is a characteristic of the likely offending drug that led to this patient’s clinical presentation?
Q774
A 24-year-old obese woman presents with a severe right-sided frontotemporal headache that started 2 days ago. There is no improvement with over-the-counter pain medications. Yesterday, the pain was so intense that she stayed in bed all day in a dark, quiet room instead of going to work. This morning she decided to come in after an episode of vomiting. She says she has experienced 5–6 similar types of headaches each lasting 12–24 hours over the last 6 months but never this severe. She denies any seizures, visual disturbances, meningismus, sick contacts or focal neurologic deficits. Her past medical history is significant for moderate persistent asthma, which is managed with ipratropium bromide and an albuterol inhaler. She is currently sexually active with 2 men, uses condoms consistently, and regularly takes estrogen-containing oral contraceptive pills (OCPs). Her vital signs include: blood pressure 122/84 mm Hg, pulse 86/min, respiratory rate 19/min, and blood oxygen saturation (SpO2) 98% on room air. Physical examination, including a complete neurologic exam, is unremarkable. A magnetic resonance image (MRI) of the brain appears normal. Which of the following is the best prophylactic treatment for this patient’s most likely condition?
Q775
A 55-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He feels well. He has hyperlipidemia and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He takes medium-dose simvastatin and metformin. Four months ago, fasting serum studies showed a LDL-cholesterol of 136 mg/dL and his medications were adjusted. Vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there is generalized weakness of the proximal muscles. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. Fasting serum studies show:
Total cholesterol 154 mg/dL
HDL-cholesterol 35 mg/dL
LDL-cholesterol 63 mg/dL
Triglycerides 138 mg/dL
Glucose 98 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
Creatine kinase 260 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's hyperlipidemia?
Q776
A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician because of headaches, irregular menses, and nipple discharge for the past 4 months. Breast examination shows milky white discharge from both nipples. Her thyroid function tests and morning cortisol concentrations are within the reference ranges. A urine pregnancy test is negative. An MRI of the brain is shown. Which of the following sets of changes is most likely in this patient?
$$$ Serum estrogen %%% Serum progesterone %%% Dopamine synthesis $$$
Q777
A 54-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department complaining of left sided chest pain. He says the pain began 3 hours ago while he was cooking dinner in his kitchen. The pain radiates to his left arm and stomach. He also complains of feeling anxious and heart palpitations. Temperature is 98.7°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse is 101/min, and respirations are 22/min. Inspection demonstrates a diffuse diaphoresis, and cardiac auscultation reveals an S4 gallop. Cardiac catheterization reveals occlusion of the left anterior descending artery, and a vascular stent is placed. The patient is discharged on aspirin, atorvastatin, and an antiplatelet medication. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the most likely prescribed antiplatelet medication?
Q778
A 43-year-old Caucasian female with a long history of uncontrolled migraines presents to general medical clinic with painless hematuria. She is quite concerned because she has never had symptoms like this before. Vital signs are stable, and her physical examination is benign. She denies any groin pain, flank pain, or costovertebral angle tenderness. She denies any recent urinary tract infections or dysuria. Urinary analysis confirms hematuria and a serum creatinine returns at 3.0. A renal biopsy reveals papillary necrosis and a tubulointerstitial infiltrate. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q779
A 73-year-old female presents to you for an office visit with complaints of getting lost. The patient states that over the last several years, the patient has started getting lost in places that she is familiar with, like in her neighborhood while driving to her church. She also has difficulty remembering to pay her bills. She denies any other complaints. Her vitals are normal, and her physical exam does not reveal any focal neurological deficits. Her mini-mental status exam is scored 19/30. Work up for secondary causes of cognitive decline is negative. Which of the following should be included in the patient's medication regimen to slow the progression of disease?
Q780
A 56-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 3-day history of malaise, dysuria, blurred vision, and a painful, itchy rash. The rash began on her chest and face and spread to her limbs, palms, and soles. One week ago, she was diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia and started on a new medicine. She appears ill. Her temperature is 38°C (100.4°F) and pulse is 110/min. Physical examination shows conjunctival injection and ulceration on the tongue and palate. There is no lymphadenopathy. Examination of the skin shows confluent annular, erythematous macules, bullae, and desquamation of the palms and soles. The epidermis separates when the skin is lightly stroked. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Autonomic/CV Drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 771: A 37-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a chief complaint of severe pain in her face. She states that over the past week she has experienced episodic and intense pain in her face that comes on suddenly and resolves on its own. She states she feels the pain over her cheek and near her eye. The pain is so severe it causes her eyes to tear up, and she is very self conscious about the episodes. She fears going out in public as a result and sometimes feels her symptoms come on when she thinks about an episode occurring while in public. While she is waiting in the emergency room her symptoms resolve. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes, constipation, irritable bowel syndrome, and anxiety. She is well known to the emergency department for coming in with chief complaints that often do not have an organic etiology. Her temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 177/108 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal exams are within normal limits. Neurological exam reveals cranial nerves II-XII are grossly intact. The patient's pupils are equal and reactive to light. Pain is not elicited with palpation of the patient's face. Which of the following is the best initial step in management?
A. Regular outpatient follow up
B. Ibuprofen
C. High flow oxygen
D. Alprazolam
E. Carbamazepine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Carbamazepine***
- The patient's presentation of **sudden, episodic, severe facial pain** in the V2 (maxillary) and V1 (ophthalmic) distributions, associated with **lacrimation** and triggering anxiety, is highly characteristic of **trigeminal neuralgia**.
- **Carbamazepine** is the **first-line treatment** for trigeminal neuralgia due to its efficacy in managing neuropathic pain, especially reducing the frequency and severity of paroxysms.
*Regular outpatient follow up*
- While follow-up is important, this patient is in severe pain right now, and her symptoms resolved while in the ED. Her **acute pain** requires immediate management to prevent recurrence and improve her quality of life.
- Delaying treatment with only outpatient follow-up would prolong her suffering and potentially lead to further emergency department visits for symptom exacerbations.
*Ibuprofen*
- **Ibuprofen**, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), is effective for **nociceptive pain** (e.g., musculoskeletal pain, inflammatory pain) but is generally **ineffective for neuropathic pain** conditions like trigeminal neuralgia.
- The pain in trigeminal neuralgia arises from nerve dysfunction, for which NSAIDs do not target the underlying mechanism.
*High flow oxygen*
- **High-flow oxygen** is a specific treatment for **cluster headaches**, which present with severe, unilateral head pain, autonomic symptoms, and occur in clusters.
- The patient's symptoms are localized to the trigeminal distribution, are episodic and lightning-like, and lack the typical temporal pattern and location of cluster headaches.
*Alprazolam*
- **Alprazolam** is a benzodiazepine used to treat **anxiety** and panic disorders, which may be a co-morbidity or consequence of the patient's pain.
- It does not directly address the **neuropathic pain** of trigeminal neuralgia, and while it might reduce anxiety, it will not resolve the underlying pain episodes.
Question 772: A 14-year-old boy presents to an urgent care clinic complaining of a runny nose that has lasted for a few weeks. He also reports sneezing attacks that last up to an hour, nasal obstruction, and generalized itching. He has similar episodes each year during the springtime that prevent him from going out with his friends or trying out for sports. His younger brother has a history of asthma. Which of the following diseases has a similar pathophysiology?
A. Irritant contact dermatitis
B. Dermatitis herpetiformis
C. Allergic contact dermatitis
D. Atopic dermatitis (Correct Answer)
E. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation: ***Atopic dermatitis***
- This patient's symptoms are highly suggestive of **allergic rhinitis**, a **type I hypersensitivity reaction** mediated by IgE antibodies, which also underlies atopic dermatitis.
- The family history of asthma (part of the **atopic triad** – allergic rhinitis, asthma, atopic dermatitis) further supports a common underlying allergic predisposition.
*Irritant contact dermatitis*
- This is a **non-allergic inflammatory reaction** caused by direct skin irritation from chemical or physical agents, not an immunological hypersensitivity.
- It does not involve IgE-mediated mechanisms or a systemic allergic predisposition like the patient's condition.
*Dermatitis herpetiformis*
- This is a **chronic blistering skin condition** strongly associated with **celiac disease** and characterized by IgA deposition in the skin.
- It involves an autoimmune response to gluten and is not related to the IgE-mediated allergic response seen in allergic rhinitis.
*Allergic contact dermatitis*
- This is a **type IV delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction** mediated by T cells, often occurring days after exposure to an allergen (e.g., poison ivy, nickel).
- It is distinct from the immediate IgE-mediated (type I) hypersensitivity responsible for allergic rhinitis.
*Systemic lupus erythematosus*
- This is a **chronic autoimmune disease** characterized by systemic inflammation and autoantibody production against various self-antigens, leading to diverse organ involvement.
- It is a complex autoimmune disorder with different immunological mechanisms (e.g., type III hypersensitivity) rather than the IgE-mediated allergy seen in this case.
Question 773: A 60-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with progressive nausea and vomiting. She reports that approximately one day prior to presentation she experienced abdominal discomfort that subsequently worsened to severe nausea, vomiting, and two episodes of watery diarrhea. She recently noticed that her vision has become blurry along with mild alterations in color perception. Medical history is significant for congestive heart failure with a low ejection fraction. She cannot recall which medications she is currently taking but believes she is taking them as prescribed. Which of the following is a characteristic of the likely offending drug that led to this patient’s clinical presentation?
A. Ratio of toxic dose to effective dose close to 1 (Correct Answer)
B. High potency
C. Ratio of toxic dose to effective dose much greater than 1
D. Low bioavailability
E. Low potency
Explanation: ***Ratio of toxic dose to effective dose close to 1***
- The patient's symptoms (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, blurry vision, color perception changes) are classic for **digoxin toxicity**, which commonly occurs due to its **narrow therapeutic index**.
- A **narrow therapeutic index** means that the difference between the therapeutically effective dose and the toxic dose is small, making the ratio of toxic dose to effective dose close to 1.
*High potency*
- While digoxin is a potent drug, **potency** refers to the amount of drug needed to produce a clinical effect, not its safety margin.
- A drug can be potent but still have a wide therapeutic window if its toxic dose is much higher than its effective dose.
*Ratio of toxic dose to effective dose much greater than 1*
- This characteristic describes drugs with a **wide therapeutic index**, meaning there is a large safety margin between effective and toxic doses.
- This is the opposite of the situation with digoxin, which has a narrow therapeutic index and is prone to toxicity.
*Low bioavailability*
- **Bioavailability** is the proportion of a drug that enters the circulation unchanged, which does not directly characterize its safety margin.
- Digoxin generally has good oral bioavailability (around 70-80% for tablet preparations).
*Low potency*
- Digoxin is known for its **high potency**, meaning small doses achieve significant therapeutic effects.
- Low potency would imply that large doses are needed to achieve a therapeutic effect, which is not the case for digoxin.
Question 774: A 24-year-old obese woman presents with a severe right-sided frontotemporal headache that started 2 days ago. There is no improvement with over-the-counter pain medications. Yesterday, the pain was so intense that she stayed in bed all day in a dark, quiet room instead of going to work. This morning she decided to come in after an episode of vomiting. She says she has experienced 5–6 similar types of headaches each lasting 12–24 hours over the last 6 months but never this severe. She denies any seizures, visual disturbances, meningismus, sick contacts or focal neurologic deficits. Her past medical history is significant for moderate persistent asthma, which is managed with ipratropium bromide and an albuterol inhaler. She is currently sexually active with 2 men, uses condoms consistently, and regularly takes estrogen-containing oral contraceptive pills (OCPs). Her vital signs include: blood pressure 122/84 mm Hg, pulse 86/min, respiratory rate 19/min, and blood oxygen saturation (SpO2) 98% on room air. Physical examination, including a complete neurologic exam, is unremarkable. A magnetic resonance image (MRI) of the brain appears normal. Which of the following is the best prophylactic treatment for this patient’s most likely condition?
A. Ibuprofen
B. Amitriptyline
C. Sumatriptan
D. Methysergide
E. Gabapentin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gabapentin***
- This patient presents with **migraine without aura** (recurrent unilateral headaches lasting 12-24 hours with photophobia, phonophobia, and nausea/vomiting).
- With **5-6 episodes over 6 months**, she meets criteria for **migraine prophylaxis** (≥4 attacks per month or debilitating attacks).
- **Key clinical consideration**: She has **moderate persistent asthma**, which significantly limits prophylaxis options.
- **Gabapentin** is an excellent choice for migraine prophylaxis in this patient because:
- It is **safe in asthma** (no bronchospasm risk)
- Effective for migraine prevention
- Well-tolerated with minimal drug interactions
- No cardiovascular contraindications
- While typically considered second-line, gabapentin becomes a preferred option when first-line agents (beta-blockers, amitriptyline) are contraindicated by asthma.
*Amitriptyline*
- While **amitriptyline** (tricyclic antidepressant) is a **first-line agent for migraine prophylaxis** in general populations, it has **antimuscarinic (anticholinergic) properties**.
- In patients with **asthma**, anticholinergic effects can cause **bronchial smooth muscle effects** and potentially worsen respiratory symptoms.
- Should be used with **caution or avoided** in asthma patients.
*Ibuprofen*
- **Ibuprofen** is an NSAID used for **acute migraine treatment**, not prophylaxis.
- While effective for symptomatic relief, it does not prevent future migraine attacks.
- Not appropriate for a patient requiring prophylactic therapy due to frequent attacks.
*Sumatriptan*
- **Sumatriptan** is a **5-HT1B/1D agonist (triptan)** used as an **abortive medication** for acute migraine attacks.
- It is **not indicated for migraine prophylaxis**.
- Used to treat attacks once they have started, not to prevent them.
*Methysergide*
- **Methysergide** is an **ergot alkaloid** historically used for migraine prophylaxis but has **fallen out of favor** due to serious side effects.
- Risk of **retroperitoneal fibrosis**, **pleuropulmonary fibrosis**, and **cardiac valvular fibrosis** with chronic use.
- Rarely used in modern practice due to safer alternatives available.
Question 775: A 55-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He feels well. He has hyperlipidemia and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He takes medium-dose simvastatin and metformin. Four months ago, fasting serum studies showed a LDL-cholesterol of 136 mg/dL and his medications were adjusted. Vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, there is generalized weakness of the proximal muscles. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ bilaterally. Fasting serum studies show:
Total cholesterol 154 mg/dL
HDL-cholesterol 35 mg/dL
LDL-cholesterol 63 mg/dL
Triglycerides 138 mg/dL
Glucose 98 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
Creatine kinase 260 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's hyperlipidemia?
A. Increase the dose of simvastatin
B. Discontinue simvastatin, start niacin in 3 weeks
C. Continue simvastatin, add niacin
D. Discontinue simvastatin, start fenofibrate now
E. Discontinue simvastatin, start pravastatin in 3 weeks (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Discontinue simvastatin, start pravastatin in 3 weeks***
- The patient presents with **proximal muscle weakness** and an elevated **creatine kinase (CK)** level (260 U/L), which are clinical signs consistent with **statin-induced myopathy**.
- Discontinuing the current statin and switching to a more hydrophilic statin like **pravastatin** (after a washout period) is appropriate to mitigate muscle side effects while continuing lipid-lowering therapy.
*Increase the dose of simvastatin*
- Increasing the dose of simvastatin would exacerbate the existing **myopathy**, as higher doses of lipophilic statins are more prone to causing muscle-related side effects.
- The patient's **LDL-C is already well-controlled** at 63 mg/dL, so a dose increase is not necessary from a lipid-lowering perspective.
*Discontinue simvastatin, start niacin in 3 weeks*
- While niacin can address lipid goals, it is **not a primary treatment for hyperlipidemia** when a statin is indicated, especially given the patient's history of type 2 diabetes and high cardiovascular risk.
- Niacin has its own side effects, such as **flushing** and potential worsening of insulin resistance, and an alternative statin is preferable to manage both lipids and myopathy.
*Continue simvastatin, add niacin*
- Continuing simvastatin would ignore the clear signs of **statin-induced myopathy** (proximal muscle weakness and elevated CK).
- Adding niacin would not resolve the myopathy and introduces additional medication with potential side effects, which is not the priority when **statin intolerance** is suspected.
*Discontinue simvastatin, start fenofibrate now*
- Fenofibrate is primarily used to lower **triglycerides** and can raise HDL, but it is less effective than statins at lowering LDL-C, which is the primary goal in patients with hyperlipidemia and diabetes.
- While statin-fibrate combinations can increase the risk of myopathy, fenofibrate alone is not the most appropriate first-line replacement for a statin in this context, especially with a well-controlled triglyceride level.
Question 776: A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician because of headaches, irregular menses, and nipple discharge for the past 4 months. Breast examination shows milky white discharge from both nipples. Her thyroid function tests and morning cortisol concentrations are within the reference ranges. A urine pregnancy test is negative. An MRI of the brain is shown. Which of the following sets of changes is most likely in this patient?
$$$ Serum estrogen %%% Serum progesterone %%% Dopamine synthesis $$$
A. ↑ ↑ ↔
B. ↓ ↓ ↑ (Correct Answer)
C. ↔ ↔ ↔
D. ↑ ↔ ↔
E. ↓ ↓ ↓
Explanation: **↓ ↓ ↑**
- This patient's symptoms of irregular menses, galactorrhea, and headaches, along with the MRI finding of a pituitary mass (suggesting a **prolactinoma**), indicate **hyperprolactinemia**. High prolactin levels **inhibit GnRH** release, leading to decreased **LH and FSH**, which in turn causes **decreased estrogen and progesterone synthesis** by the ovaries.
- The compensatory mechanism for the reduced dopamine inhibition on prolactin (due to the mass effect or damage to the stalk) would be an **increase in dopamine synthesis** in an attempt to re-establish control.
*↑ ↑ ↔*
- Elevated estrogen and progesterone levels are typically seen in conditions like **pregnancy** or **ovarian cysts**, neither of which fits the clinical picture or MRI findings here.
- Normal dopamine synthesis would not account for the **hyperprolactinemia** and its effects on gonadal hormones.
*↔ ↔ ↔*
- Normal levels of hormones would not explain the patient's symptoms of galactorrhea, irregular menses, and headaches.
- A functional pituitary adenoma (like a prolactinoma) would significantly alter endocrine function, not leave it at baseline.
*↑ ↔ ↔*
- Elevated estrogen without changes in progesterone and dopamine synthesis would not cause **galactorrhea** or **amenorrhea** in the context of a pituitary mass.
- Unchanged progesterone and dopamine also don't fit the pathophysiology of a prolactinoma.
*↓ ↓ ↓*
- While estrogen and progesterone would be decreased, **decreased dopamine synthesis** would only exacerbate the hyperprolactinemia, making it less likely as a compensatory response.
- The body would typically attempt to increase dopamine to counteract the high prolactin.
Question 777: A 54-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department complaining of left sided chest pain. He says the pain began 3 hours ago while he was cooking dinner in his kitchen. The pain radiates to his left arm and stomach. He also complains of feeling anxious and heart palpitations. Temperature is 98.7°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, pulse is 101/min, and respirations are 22/min. Inspection demonstrates a diffuse diaphoresis, and cardiac auscultation reveals an S4 gallop. Cardiac catheterization reveals occlusion of the left anterior descending artery, and a vascular stent is placed. The patient is discharged on aspirin, atorvastatin, and an antiplatelet medication. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the most likely prescribed antiplatelet medication?
A. Reversible ADP receptor antagonism (Correct Answer)
B. Irreversible ADP receptor antagonism
C. Direct factor Xa inhibition
D. GPIIb/IIIa inhibition
E. Antithrombin III activation
Explanation: ***Reversible ADP receptor antagonism***
- Following percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with stent placement, **P2Y12 inhibitors** are a cornerstone of dual antiplatelet therapy. These include **ticagrelor** and **prasugrel** (often preferred over clopidogrel in acute coronary syndromes), which are **reversible ADP receptor antagonists**.
- This mechanism prevents **ADP-mediated platelet activation and aggregation**, reducing the risk of stent thrombosis and recurrent ischemic events.
*Irreversible ADP receptor antagonism*
- **Clopidogrel** acts via **irreversible ADP receptor antagonism**, providing a sustained antiplatelet effect, but it has a slower onset and variable metabolism.
- Newer agents like ticagrelor and prasugrel are generally favored in acute coronary syndrome due to their more potent, faster, and more consistent antiplatelet effect.
*Direct factor Xa inhibition*
- **Direct factor Xa inhibitors** (e.g., rivaroxaban, apixaban) are primarily used for **anticoagulation** in conditions like atrial fibrillation or venous thromboembolism, not as primary antiplatelet therapy after PCI.
- These agents target the coagulation cascade rather than direct platelet aggregation.
*GPIIb/IIIa inhibition*
- **Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors** (e.g., abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban) directly block the final common pathway of platelet aggregation, the **binding of fibrinogen to GPIIb/IIIa receptors**.
- They are potent antiplatelet agents used **intravenously during PCI** for very high-risk patients but are not typically prescribed for long-term antiplatelet therapy post-discharge.
*Antithrombin III activation*
- **Heparin** (unfractionated and low molecular weight) exerts its anticoagulant effect by **activating antithrombin III**, which then inactivates thrombin and Factor Xa.
- These are used for acute anticoagulation but are not considered antiplatelet medications for long-term dual antiplatelet therapy after stent placement.
Question 778: A 43-year-old Caucasian female with a long history of uncontrolled migraines presents to general medical clinic with painless hematuria. She is quite concerned because she has never had symptoms like this before. Vital signs are stable, and her physical examination is benign. She denies any groin pain, flank pain, or costovertebral angle tenderness. She denies any recent urinary tract infections or dysuria. Urinary analysis confirms hematuria and a serum creatinine returns at 3.0. A renal biopsy reveals papillary necrosis and a tubulointerstitial infiltrate. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Analgesic nephropathy (Correct Answer)
B. Kidney cancer
C. Sickle cell disease
D. Bladder cancer
E. Kidney stone
Explanation: ***Analgesic nephropathy***
- The patient's history of **uncontrolled migraines** suggests chronic use of analgesic medications, which can lead to **papillary necrosis** and chronic **tubulointerstitial nephritis**.
- **Painless hematuria** and elevated creatinine with biopsy-confirmed papillary necrosis and tubulointerstitial infiltrate are classic manifestations of analgesic nephropathy.
*Kidney cancer*
- While kidney cancer can cause **painless hematuria**, it typically presents with a **mass on imaging** and often results in symptoms like flank pain or palpable mass with progression.
- The specific renal biopsy findings of **papillary necrosis** and **tubulointerstitial infiltrate** are not characteristic of kidney cancer.
*Sickle cell disease*
- **Sickle cell nephropathy** can cause papillary necrosis and hematuria, but this patient is a **Caucasian female** and has no history or symptoms indicative of sickle cell disease.
- The disease is primarily seen in individuals of African, Mediterranean, or South Asian descent.
*Bladder cancer*
- **Bladder cancer** can cause painless hematuria, but it typically presents with **bladder lesions** on cystoscopy and biopsies show malignancy, not papillary necrosis or tubulointerstitial infiltrate.
- The renal pathology here points to a problem originating in the kidneys, not the bladder.
*Kidney stone*
- **Kidney stones** usually present with **severe flank pain** (renal colic), and often hematuria, but the pain would be a prominent symptom.
- A biopsy would show evidence of stone formation or obstruction, not tubulointerstitial infiltrate or papillary necrosis unless complicated by infection or obstruction.
Question 779: A 73-year-old female presents to you for an office visit with complaints of getting lost. The patient states that over the last several years, the patient has started getting lost in places that she is familiar with, like in her neighborhood while driving to her church. She also has difficulty remembering to pay her bills. She denies any other complaints. Her vitals are normal, and her physical exam does not reveal any focal neurological deficits. Her mini-mental status exam is scored 19/30. Work up for secondary causes of cognitive decline is negative. Which of the following should be included in the patient's medication regimen to slow the progression of disease?
A. Pramipexole
B. Pergolide
C. Ropinirole
D. Bromocriptine
E. Memantine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Memantine***
- Memantine is an **NMDA receptor antagonist** used to treat **moderate to severe Alzheimer's disease**, which aligns with the patient's symptoms of memory loss, disorientation, and cognitive decline (MMSE 19/30).
- It works by **blocking the effects of excessive glutamate**, a neurotransmitter that, in high concentrations, can contribute to neuronal damage in Alzheimer's.
*Pramipexole*
- **Pramipexole** is a **dopamine agonist** primarily used to treat **Parkinson's disease** and restless legs syndrome.
- It does not have an established role in treating the cognitive symptoms of Alzheimer's disease.
*Pergolide*
- **Pergolide** is a **dopamine agonist** that was previously used for Parkinson's disease but has been **withdrawn from the market** in many countries due to an increased risk of valvular heart disease.
- It does not treat the cognitive decline associated with Alzheimer's disease.
*Ropinirole*
- **Ropinirole** is a **dopamine agonist** used in the treatment of **Parkinson's disease** and restless legs syndrome.
- It is not indicated for the management of cognitive symptoms in Alzheimer's disease.
*Bromocriptine*
- **Bromocriptine** is a **dopamine agonist** used to treat Parkinson's disease and **hyperprolactinemia**.
- It does not address the underlying pathology or symptoms of Alzheimer's disease.
Question 780: A 56-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 3-day history of malaise, dysuria, blurred vision, and a painful, itchy rash. The rash began on her chest and face and spread to her limbs, palms, and soles. One week ago, she was diagnosed with trigeminal neuralgia and started on a new medicine. She appears ill. Her temperature is 38°C (100.4°F) and pulse is 110/min. Physical examination shows conjunctival injection and ulceration on the tongue and palate. There is no lymphadenopathy. Examination of the skin shows confluent annular, erythematous macules, bullae, and desquamation of the palms and soles. The epidermis separates when the skin is lightly stroked. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Drug-induced lupus erythematosus
B. DRESS syndrome
C. Pemphigus vulgaris
D. Stevens-Johnson syndrome (Correct Answer)
E. Bullous pemphigoid
Explanation: ***Stevens-Johnson syndrome***
- The patient's symptoms, including **malaise**, **dysuria**, **blurred vision**, and a **painful, itchy rash** that began on the chest and face and spread to the limbs, palms, and soles, are highly suggestive of **Stevens-Johnson Syndrome (SJS)**.
- The presence of **conjunctival injection**, **ulceration on the tongue and palate**, **confluent annular, erythematous macules, bullae, and desquamation of the palms and soles**, along with a **positive Nikolsky sign** (epidermis separates when skin is lightly stroked), and a recent history of starting a **new medication** for trigeminal neuralgia (likely an anticonvulsant, a common trigger for SJS), all strongly point to this diagnosis.
*Drug-induced lupus erythematosus*
- This condition typically presents with **arthralgias, myalgias, serositis, and malar rash**, often without the severe blistering, mucosal ulceration, and epidermal detachment seen here.
- While drug-induced lupus can be triggered by medications, the **acute severe mucocutaneous and systemic manifestations** in this patient are not characteristic of lupus.
*DRESS syndrome*
- **DRESS (Drug Rash with Eosinophilia and Systemic Symptoms)** syndrome involves a rash, fever, **lymphadenopathy**, and **organ involvement** (e.g., hepatitis, nephritis).
- The patient exhibits fever and rash, but the prominent **bullae, desquamation, severe mucosal involvement, and absence of lymphadenopathy** make SJS a more fitting diagnosis.
*Pemphigus vulgaris*
- This is an **autoimmune blistering disease** characterized by flaccid bullae and erosions on the skin and mucous membranes, with a positive Nikolsky sign.
- However, pemphigus vulgaris is not typically associated with the acute onset, systemic symptoms (fever, malaise), and rapid progression seen after a new medication, which are hallmarks of **drug-induced SJS**.
*Bullous pemphigoid*
- Bullous pemphigoid presents with **tense bullae** in older individuals, often with **pruritus**, but usually **spares mucous membranes**.
- The patient's widespread **mucosal involvement** (tongue, palate, conjunctiva) and **flaccid bullae with desquamation** are inconsistent with bullous pemphigoid.