A 52-year-old man is seen by his endocrinologist for routine followup of his type 2 diabetes. Although he has previously been on a number of medication regimens, his A1C has remained significantly elevated. In order to try to better control his glucose level, the endocrinologist prescribes a new medication. He explains that this new medication works by blocking the ability of his kidneys to reabsorb glucose and therefore causes glucose wasting in the urine. Which of the following medications has this mechanism of action?
Q532
A 25-year-old woman presents to her college campus clinic with the complaint of being unable to get up for her morning classes. She says that, because of this, her grades are being affected. For the past 6 weeks, she says she has been feeling depressed because her boyfriend dumped her. She finds herself very sleepy, sleeping in most mornings, eating more snacks and fast foods, and feeling drained of energy. She is comforted by her friend’s efforts to cheer her up but still feels guarded around any other boy that shows interest in her. The patient says she had similar symptoms 7 years ago for which she was prescribed several selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). However, none of the medications provided any long-term relief. She has prescribed a trial of Phenelzine to treat her symptoms. Past medical history is significant for a long-standing seizure disorder well managed with phenytoin. Which of the following statements would most likely be relevant to this patient’s new medication?
Q533
A 54-year-old male has a history of gout complicated by several prior episodes of acute gouty arthritis and 3 prior instances of nephrolithiasis secondary to uric acid stones. He has a serum uric acid level of 11 mg/dL (normal range 3-8 mg/dL), a 24 hr urine collection of 1300 mg uric acid (normal range 250-750 mg), and a serum creatinine of 0.8 mg/dL with a normal estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Which of the following drugs should be avoided in this patient?
Q534
A 28-year-old woman has a follow-up visit with her physician. She was diagnosed with allergic rhinitis and bronchial asthma at 11 years of age. Her regular controller medications include daily high-dose inhaled corticosteroids and montelukast, but she still needs to use a rescue inhaler 3–4 times a week following exercise. She also becomes breathless with moderate exertion. After a thorough evaluation, the physician explains that her medication dosages need to be increased. She declines taking oral corticosteroids daily due to concerns about side effects. The physician prescribes omalizumab, which is administered subcutaneously every 3 weeks. Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of the new medication that has been added to the controller medications?
Q535
A 34-year-old man was brought into the emergency room after he was found running in the streets. Upon arrival to the emergency room, he keeps screaming, “they are eating me alive," and swatting his hands. He reports that there are spiders crawling all over him. His girlfriend, who arrives shortly after, claims that he has been forgetful and would forget his keys from time to time. He denies weight loss, fever, shortness of breath, abdominal pain, or urinary changes but endorses chest pain. His temperature is 98.9°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98%. He becomes increasingly agitated as he believes the healthcare providers are trying to sacrifice him to the “spider gods.” What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms?
Q536
A 53-year-old man presents with swelling of the right knee. He says that the pain began the previous night and was reduced by ibuprofen and an ice-pack. The pain persists but is tolerable. He denies any recent fever, chills, or joint pains in the past. Past medical history includes a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) a year ago for which he takes aspirin, atorvastatin, captopril, and carvedilol. The patient reports a 20-pack-year history of smoking but quit 5 years ago. He also says he was a heavy drinker for the past 30 years but now drinks only a few drinks on the weekends. On physical examination, the right knee is erythematous, warm, swollen, and mildly tender to palpation. Cardiac exam is significant for a mild systolic ejection murmur. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Arthrocentesis of the right knee joint is performed, which reveals the presence of urate crystals. Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?
Q537
A 27-year-old healthy college student presents to the clinic with her boyfriend complaining of a productive cough with rust-colored sputum associated with breathlessness for the past week. She also reports symptoms of the common cold which began about 1 week ago. She reports that her weekly routine has not changed despite feelings of being sick and generally weak. The vitals signs include a blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, pulse rate 68/min, respiratory rate 12/min, and temperature 36.6°C (97.9°F). On pulmonary examination, inspiratory crackles were heard. The cardiac examination revealed an S3 sound but was otherwise normal. A chest X-ray was performed and is shown in the picture below. What medication is known to be associated with the same condition that she is suffering from?
Q538
A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of a 6-month history of irregular menstrual periods. Her last period was 3 months ago. Previously, her periods occurred at regular 28-day intervals and lasted 4–5 days with moderate flow. She has also noticed breast tenderness and scant nipple discharge. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus and refractory bipolar I disorder. Current medications include metformin, glipizide, lithium, and risperidone. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the changes in her menstrual cycle?
Q539
A 65-year-old gentleman presents to his primary care physician for difficulties with his gait and recent fatigue. The patient works in a health food store, follows a strict vegan diet, and takes an array of supplements. He noticed that his symptoms have progressed over the past year and decided to see a physician when he found himself feeling abnormally weak on a daily basis in conjunction with his trouble walking. The patient has a past medical history of Crohn's disease, diagnosed in his early 20's, as well as Celiac disease. He states that he has infrequent exacerbations of his Crohn's disease. Recently, the patient has been having worsening bouts of diarrhea that the patient claims is non-bloody. The patient is not currently taking any medications and is currently taking traditional Chinese medicine supplements. Physical exam is notable for 3/5 strength in the upper and lower extremities, absent upper and lower extremity reflexes, and a staggering, unbalanced gait. Laboratory values reveal the following:
Serum:
Na+: 135 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 5.6 mEq/L
HCO3-: 22 mEq/L
BUN: 27 mg/dL
Glucose: 79 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Ca2+: 8.4 mg/dL
Mg2+: 1.5 mEq/L
Leukocyte count and differential:
Leukocyte count: 4,522/mm^3
Hemoglobin: 9.2 g/dL
Hematocrit: 29%
Platelet count: 169,000/mm^3
Reticulocyte count: 2.5%
Lactate dehydrogenase: 340 U/L
Mean corpuscular volume: 97 fL
Which of the following is most likely deficient in this patient?
Q540
A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain and stiffness for the past year. The pain is mainly concentrated in her hands and is usually worse towards the late afternoon. It is described with a burning quality that surrounds the joint with some numbness and tingling. The stiffness is especially worse in the morning and lasts approximately for 15-20 minutes. Her past medical history is significant for recurrent gastric ulcers. She reports that her mother struggled with lupus and is concerned that she might have the same thing. She denies fever, rashes, ulcers, genitourinary symptoms, weight loss, or bowel changes. Physical examination is significant for mild tenderness at the distal interphalangeal joints bilaterally. What is the best initial medication to prescribe to this patient?
Autonomic/CV Drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 531: A 52-year-old man is seen by his endocrinologist for routine followup of his type 2 diabetes. Although he has previously been on a number of medication regimens, his A1C has remained significantly elevated. In order to try to better control his glucose level, the endocrinologist prescribes a new medication. He explains that this new medication works by blocking the ability of his kidneys to reabsorb glucose and therefore causes glucose wasting in the urine. Which of the following medications has this mechanism of action?
A. Canagliflozin (Correct Answer)
B. Acarbose
C. Metformin
D. Glyburide
E. Exenatide
Explanation: ***Canagliflozin***
- **Canagliflozin** is an **SGLT2 inhibitor** that works by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the renal tubules, leading to glucose excretion in the urine.
- This mechanism of action directly matches the description provided: "blocking the ability of his kidneys to reabsorb glucose and therefore causes glucose wasting in the urine."
*Acarbose*
- **Acarbose** is an **alpha-glucosidase inhibitor** that delays the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates in the small intestine.
- Its primary action is in the gastrointestinal tract, not by directly affecting renal glucose reabsorption.
*Metformin*
- **Metformin** is a **biguanide** that primarily works by decreasing hepatic glucose production and improving insulin sensitivity.
- It does not directly affect the kidney's ability to reabsorb glucose.
*Glyburide*
- **Glyburide** is a **sulfonylurea** that stimulates insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells.
- Its mechanism involves increasing insulin release, independent of renal glucose handling.
*Exenatide*
- **Exenatide** is a **GLP-1 receptor agonist** that enhances glucose-dependent insulin secretion, suppresses glucagon secretion, slows gastric emptying, and promotes satiety.
- Its actions are mainly related to insulin and glucagon regulation, not direct renal glucose filtration.
Question 532: A 25-year-old woman presents to her college campus clinic with the complaint of being unable to get up for her morning classes. She says that, because of this, her grades are being affected. For the past 6 weeks, she says she has been feeling depressed because her boyfriend dumped her. She finds herself very sleepy, sleeping in most mornings, eating more snacks and fast foods, and feeling drained of energy. She is comforted by her friend’s efforts to cheer her up but still feels guarded around any other boy that shows interest in her. The patient says she had similar symptoms 7 years ago for which she was prescribed several selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). However, none of the medications provided any long-term relief. She has prescribed a trial of Phenelzine to treat her symptoms. Past medical history is significant for a long-standing seizure disorder well managed with phenytoin. Which of the following statements would most likely be relevant to this patient’s new medication?
A. “This medication is known to cause anorgasmia during treatment.”
B. “You will have a risk for cardiotoxicity from this medication.”
C. “A common side effect of this medication is sedation.”
D. “While taking this medication, you should avoid drinking red wine.” (Correct Answer)
E. “While on this medication, you may have a decreased seizure threshold.”
Explanation: ***"While taking this medication, you should avoid drinking red wine."***
- Phenelzine is a **monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)**. MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of **tyramine**, an amine found in fermented foods like red wine, aged cheeses, cured meats, and pickled foods.
- Consuming tyramine-rich foods with an MAOI can lead to a **hypertensive crisis**, characterized by a sudden, severe increase in blood pressure which can cause headaches, palpitations, and potentially stroke.
- This dietary counseling is **essential and immediately actionable** patient education when starting an MAOI.
*"This medication is known to cause anorgasmia during treatment."*
- While sexual dysfunction can occur with many antidepressants, **anorgasmia** is much more common and severe with **SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors)** than with MAOIs.
- MAOIs like phenelzine have a different mechanism of action and generally have a lower incidence of sexual side effects compared to SSRIs.
*"You will have a risk for cardiotoxicity from this medication."*
- **Cardiotoxicity** is a significant concern with **tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)**, especially in overdose, due to their effects on cardiac sodium channels and potential for arrhythmias.
- While MAOIs can cause **orthostatic hypotension**, direct cardiotoxicity is not a primary concern with phenelzine.
*"A common side effect of this medication is sedation."*
- Phenelzine is generally considered **activating** rather than sedating, and can sometimes lead to insomnia or agitation.
- The patient's current hypersomnia is a symptom of her **atypical depression**, not a predicted side effect of phenelzine. In fact, phenelzine may help improve this symptom.
*"While on this medication, you may have a decreased seizure threshold."*
- This statement is actually **medically accurate** - MAOIs including phenelzine can lower (decrease) the seizure threshold, meaning they increase seizure risk.
- This is relevant given the patient's seizure disorder managed with phenytoin and warrants monitoring.
- However, the **dietary tyramine restriction** is the more critical and immediately actionable counseling point when initiating MAOI therapy, as hypertensive crisis can occur with the very first exposure to tyramine-rich foods.
Question 533: A 54-year-old male has a history of gout complicated by several prior episodes of acute gouty arthritis and 3 prior instances of nephrolithiasis secondary to uric acid stones. He has a serum uric acid level of 11 mg/dL (normal range 3-8 mg/dL), a 24 hr urine collection of 1300 mg uric acid (normal range 250-750 mg), and a serum creatinine of 0.8 mg/dL with a normal estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Which of the following drugs should be avoided in this patient?
A. Probenecid (Correct Answer)
B. Naproxen
C. Indomethacin
D. Allopurinol
E. Colchicine
Explanation: ***Probenecid***
- This patient is an **overproducer of uric acid**, as evidenced by his high 24-hour urinary uric acid excretion. **Uricosuric agents** like probenecid are contraindicated in patients who excrete more than 800 mg of uric acid per 24 hours, as they increase the risk of **renal calculi (uric acid stones)**.
- He has a history of prior nephrolithiasis secondary to uric acid stones, which makes probenecid a poor choice, further exacerbating his risk of stone formation by increasing uric acid excretion.
*Naproxen*
- **NSAIDs** like naproxen are commonly used to treat acute gouty arthritis by reducing inflammation.
- They do not affect uric acid levels and are appropriate for managing the pain and inflammation of gout flares, not to be avoided.
*Indomethacin*
- **Indomethacin** is another NSAID frequently used for the treatment of **acute gout attacks**.
- It works by reducing inflammation and pain and does not interfere with uric acid metabolism in a way that would be detrimental in this patient's case.
*Allopurinol*
- **Allopurinol** is a **xanthine oxidase inhibitor** that reduces uric acid production and is the drug of choice for patients who are **overproducers of uric acid** or have recurrent gout attacks.
- This medication treats hyperuricemia and would be beneficial in this patient to lower his serum uric acid and prevent further attacks and stone formation.
*Colchicine*
- **Colchicine** is used to treat **acute gout flares** and is also used for prophylaxis against flares when initiating uric acid-lowering therapy.
- It works by inhibiting neutrophil migration and activation, and its use is not contraindicated in this patient.
Question 534: A 28-year-old woman has a follow-up visit with her physician. She was diagnosed with allergic rhinitis and bronchial asthma at 11 years of age. Her regular controller medications include daily high-dose inhaled corticosteroids and montelukast, but she still needs to use a rescue inhaler 3–4 times a week following exercise. She also becomes breathless with moderate exertion. After a thorough evaluation, the physician explains that her medication dosages need to be increased. She declines taking oral corticosteroids daily due to concerns about side effects. The physician prescribes omalizumab, which is administered subcutaneously every 3 weeks. Which of the following best explains the mechanism of action of the new medication that has been added to the controller medications?
A. Prevention of binding of IgE antibodies to mast cell receptors (Correct Answer)
B. Inhibition of synthesis of interleukin-4 (IL-4)
C. Inhibition of synthesis of IgE antibodies
D. Selective binding to interleukin-3 (IL-3) and inhibition of its actions
E. Prevention of binding of interleukin-5 (IL-5) to its receptors
Explanation: ***Prevention of binding of IgE antibodies to mast cell receptors***
- **Omalizumab** is a **monoclonal antibody** that specifically targets and binds to **free IgE** in the bloodstream, preventing it from attaching to high-affinity IgE receptors on **mast cells** and **basophils**.
- By reducing surface IgE, omalizumab **downregulates IgE receptors** on these cells, thereby reducing the release of inflammatory mediators upon allergen exposure, which is beneficial in **allergic asthma** uncontrolled by standard therapies.
*Inhibition of synthesis of interleukin-4 (IL-4)*
- **IL-4** is a cytokine primarily involved in **Th2 differentiation** and **IgE class switching**, but omalizumab's action is not directly blocking its synthesis.
- While *omalizumab* indirectly reduces IgE levels, its primary mechanism isn't to inhibit the production of IL-4 itself, but rather to prevent the effects of existing IgE.
*Inhibition of synthesis of IgE antibodies*
- **Omalizumab** does not inhibit the *synthesis* of IgE antibodies; instead, it binds to already synthesized **free IgE** circulating in the blood.
- This binding effectively neutralizes IgE, preventing it from contributing to the allergic cascade, but it doesn't stop B cells from producing more IgE.
*Selective binding to interleukin-3 (IL-3) and inhibition of its actions*
- **IL-3** is a cytokine involved in the growth and differentiation of various **hematopoietic cells**, including mast cells and basophils, but it is not the target of omalizumab.
- Omalizumab specifically targets **IgE** and has no known direct action on IL-3 signaling pathways.
*Prevention of binding of interleukin-5 (IL-5) to its receptors*
- **IL-5** is a key cytokine in the **eosinophilic inflammatory pathway** and is targeted by other therapies (e.g., mepolizumab, reslizumab) used for severe eosinophilic asthma.
- Omalizumab's mechanism is distinct, focusing on **IgE-mediated inflammation** rather than direct eosinophil control.
Question 535: A 34-year-old man was brought into the emergency room after he was found running in the streets. Upon arrival to the emergency room, he keeps screaming, “they are eating me alive," and swatting his hands. He reports that there are spiders crawling all over him. His girlfriend, who arrives shortly after, claims that he has been forgetful and would forget his keys from time to time. He denies weight loss, fever, shortness of breath, abdominal pain, or urinary changes but endorses chest pain. His temperature is 98.9°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 160/110 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98%. He becomes increasingly agitated as he believes the healthcare providers are trying to sacrifice him to the “spider gods.” What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s symptoms?
A. Schizophrenia
B. Temporal lobe epilepsy
C. Narcolepsy
D. Pick disease
E. Cocaine use (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cocaine use***
- The patient's **agitation**, **paranoid delusions** ("they are eating me alive," "spider gods"), **tactile hallucinations** (spiders crawling), and **tachycardia** (pulse 112/min) and **hypertension** (160/110 mmHg) are classic signs of **acute cocaine intoxication**.
- While forgetfulness can be a general neurological symptom, in this acute presentation with prominent psychotic and sympathomimetic features, cocaine use is the most probable cause.
*Schizophrenia*
- While schizophrenia involves **psychosis**, its onset is typically more gradual, and the presentation of acute, vivid tactile hallucinations and marked sympathetic overdrive is less characteristic of an acute schizophrenic exacerbation.
- The sudden, florid presentation with severe agitation and physical signs like hypertension and tachycardia points away from an initial presentation of schizophrenia.
*Temporal lobe epilepsy*
- Temporal lobe seizures can cause **olfactory** or **gustatory hallucinations**, **déjà vu**, or **fear**, but **gross tactile hallucinations** of crawling spiders and prominent, sustained paranoia with agitation are less typical.
- The patient's vital signs also indicate a systemic effect rather than purely a focal neurological event.
*Narcolepsy*
- Narcolepsy is a **sleep disorder** characterized by **excessive daytime sleepiness**, **cataplexy**, **sleep paralysis**, and **hypnagogic/hypnopompic hallucinations**.
- It does not explain the patient's acute agitated, paranoid, and hyper-adrenergic state with tactile hallucinations.
*Pick disease*
- Pick disease, a type of **frontotemporal dementia**, is a **neurodegenerative disorder** characterized by **progressive changes in personality, behavior, and language**.
- It typically presents with chronic, gradual cognitive decline and behavioral disinhibition, not an acute episode of florid psychosis with prominent sympathomimetic features and tactile hallucinations.
Question 536: A 53-year-old man presents with swelling of the right knee. He says that the pain began the previous night and was reduced by ibuprofen and an ice-pack. The pain persists but is tolerable. He denies any recent fever, chills, or joint pains in the past. Past medical history includes a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) a year ago for which he takes aspirin, atorvastatin, captopril, and carvedilol. The patient reports a 20-pack-year history of smoking but quit 5 years ago. He also says he was a heavy drinker for the past 30 years but now drinks only a few drinks on the weekends. On physical examination, the right knee is erythematous, warm, swollen, and mildly tender to palpation. Cardiac exam is significant for a mild systolic ejection murmur. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Arthrocentesis of the right knee joint is performed, which reveals the presence of urate crystals. Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?
A. Aspirin (Correct Answer)
B. Captopril
C. Carvedilol
D. Atorvastatin
E. Hydrochlorothiazide
Explanation: ***Aspirin***
- **Low-dose aspirin** can inhibit renal tubular uric acid secretion, leading to an increase in serum uric acid levels and potentially precipitating a **gout attack**.
- Given the patient's history of CABG, aspirin is prescribed for **platelet aggregation inhibition**, but this beneficial effect must be weighed against this side effect.
*Captopril*
- Captopril is an **ACE inhibitor** and is not typically associated with hyperuricemia or gout.
- While some medications can affect uric acid levels, ACE inhibitors generally have a **neutral or mild uricosuric effect**.
*Carvedilol*
- Carvedilol is a non-selective **beta-blocker** with alpha-blocking activity.
- It is not known to significantly impact **uric acid metabolism** or cause gout.
*Atorvastatin*
- Atorvastatin is an **HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor** (statin) used to lower cholesterol.
- Statins are not associated with **hyperuricemia** or triggering gout attacks.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- Although **thiazide diuretics** like hydrochlorothiazide are well-known to cause hyperuricemia and gout by increasing uric acid reabsorption, the patient is not currently taking this medication.
- This option is a distractor because the patient is on several other medications and a thorough medication reconciliation is key.
Question 537: A 27-year-old healthy college student presents to the clinic with her boyfriend complaining of a productive cough with rust-colored sputum associated with breathlessness for the past week. She also reports symptoms of the common cold which began about 1 week ago. She reports that her weekly routine has not changed despite feelings of being sick and generally weak. The vitals signs include a blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, pulse rate 68/min, respiratory rate 12/min, and temperature 36.6°C (97.9°F). On pulmonary examination, inspiratory crackles were heard. The cardiac examination revealed an S3 sound but was otherwise normal. A chest X-ray was performed and is shown in the picture below. What medication is known to be associated with the same condition that she is suffering from?
A. Metoprolol
B. Quinidine
C. Anthracyclines (Correct Answer)
D. Vincristine
E. Cisplatin
Explanation: ***Anthracyclines***
- The patient presents with symptoms of **heart failure**, specifically a productive cough with breathlessness, inspiratory crackles, and an **S3 heart sound**, suggestive of dilated cardiomyopathy potentially leading to pulmonary congestion. The Chest X-Ray and CT scans further corroborate the diagnosis of **pulmonary infiltrates and possible pulmonary edema**.
- **Anthracycline chemotherapy agents**, such as doxorubicin, are well-known for their cardiotoxic effects, leading to **dilated cardiomyopathy** and subsequent heart failure.
*Metoprolol*
- Metoprolol is a **beta-blocker** primarily used to treat hypertension, angina, and heart failure.
- It works by reducing heart workload and improving cardiac function, and is **not associated with causing heart failure** as a side effect.
*Quinidine*
- Quinidine is an **antiarrhythmic drug** (Class IA) used to treat various cardiac arrhythmias.
- Its main cardiac side effects include **prolongation of the QT interval** and potential for Torsades de Pointes, rather than dilated cardiomyopathy leading to heart failure.
*Vincristine*
- Vincristine is a **chemotherapeutic agent** (vinca alkaloid) primarily used in treating various cancers.
- Its main side effects include **neurotoxicity** (peripheral neuropathy) and myelosuppression, but it is not typically associated with cardiotoxicity or heart failure.
*Cisplatin*
- Cisplatin is a **platinum-based chemotherapeutic agent** used in a wide range of cancers.
- Its most common and significant side effects include **nephrotoxicity**, ototoxicity, and myelosuppression, with cardiotoxicity being rare and not its primary mode of adverse effect leading to heart failure.
Question 538: A 42-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of a 6-month history of irregular menstrual periods. Her last period was 3 months ago. Previously, her periods occurred at regular 28-day intervals and lasted 4–5 days with moderate flow. She has also noticed breast tenderness and scant nipple discharge. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus and refractory bipolar I disorder. Current medications include metformin, glipizide, lithium, and risperidone. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the changes in her menstrual cycle?
A. Dysregulation of theca and granulosa cell steroidogenesis
B. Failure of ovaries to respond to gonadotropins
C. Impaired production and release of thyroxine
D. Blockade of pituitary dopamine receptors (Correct Answer)
E. Reduced renal elimination of prolactin
Explanation: ***Blockade of pituitary dopamine receptors***
- The patient's symptoms of **irregular menstrual periods**, **breast tenderness**, and **scant nipple discharge** are classic for **drug-induced hyperprolactinemia**.
- **Risperidone**, an atypical antipsychotic, blocks **dopamine D2 receptors** in the **tuberoinfundibular pathway** of the hypothalamus-pituitary axis.
- Normally, dopamine from the hypothalamus **inhibits prolactin release** from lactotrophs in the anterior pituitary. When dopamine receptors are blocked, this tonic inhibition is removed, causing **elevated prolactin levels**.
- Hyperprolactinemia suppresses **GnRH pulsatility**, leading to decreased FSH/LH, which causes **menstrual irregularities** and **hypogonadism**. Elevated prolactin also directly causes **galactorrhea** and **breast tenderness**.
*Dysregulation of theca and granulosa cell steroidogenesis*
- This describes the pathophysiology of **polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)**, which presents with irregular periods, hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries.
- While PCOS causes menstrual irregularities, it does **not** cause nipple discharge or galactorrhea, making it less likely in this case.
*Failure of ovaries to respond to gonadotropins*
- This describes **premature ovarian insufficiency (POI)**, characterized by elevated FSH/LH and low estrogen, leading to irregular or absent menses.
- POI typically presents with **hot flashes** and **vaginal dryness** due to estrogen deficiency, not galactorrhea or breast tenderness.
*Impaired production and release of thyroxine*
- **Primary hypothyroidism** can cause menstrual irregularities and, in severe cases, hyperprolactinemia due to elevated TRH (which stimulates both TSH and prolactin release).
- However, hypothyroidism would typically present with **fatigue**, **weight gain**, **cold intolerance**, and **constipation**, none of which are mentioned in this case.
*Reduced renal elimination of prolactin*
- **Chronic kidney disease** can impair prolactin clearance, leading to hyperprolactinemia and similar symptoms.
- However, there is **no evidence of renal dysfunction** in this patient (no mention of elevated creatinine, proteinuria, or CKD history), and the patient is on metformin (which requires dose adjustment in renal impairment), making drug-induced hyperprolactinemia the more likely cause.
Question 539: A 65-year-old gentleman presents to his primary care physician for difficulties with his gait and recent fatigue. The patient works in a health food store, follows a strict vegan diet, and takes an array of supplements. He noticed that his symptoms have progressed over the past year and decided to see a physician when he found himself feeling abnormally weak on a daily basis in conjunction with his trouble walking. The patient has a past medical history of Crohn's disease, diagnosed in his early 20's, as well as Celiac disease. He states that he has infrequent exacerbations of his Crohn's disease. Recently, the patient has been having worsening bouts of diarrhea that the patient claims is non-bloody. The patient is not currently taking any medications and is currently taking traditional Chinese medicine supplements. Physical exam is notable for 3/5 strength in the upper and lower extremities, absent upper and lower extremity reflexes, and a staggering, unbalanced gait. Laboratory values reveal the following:
Serum:
Na+: 135 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 5.6 mEq/L
HCO3-: 22 mEq/L
BUN: 27 mg/dL
Glucose: 79 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Ca2+: 8.4 mg/dL
Mg2+: 1.5 mEq/L
Leukocyte count and differential:
Leukocyte count: 4,522/mm^3
Hemoglobin: 9.2 g/dL
Hematocrit: 29%
Platelet count: 169,000/mm^3
Reticulocyte count: 2.5%
Lactate dehydrogenase: 340 U/L
Mean corpuscular volume: 97 fL
Which of the following is most likely deficient in this patient?
A. Vitamin D
B. Iron
C. Vitamin B9
D. Vitamin E
E. Vitamin B12 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Vitamin B12***
- The patient's **vegan diet**, history of **Crohn's disease**, **Celiac disease**, and **diarrhea** all increase the risk of **vitamin B12 malabsorption**.
- **Neurological symptoms** like gait difficulties, weakness, and absent reflexes are characteristic of **vitamin B12 deficiency**, which can also cause **anemia** with a **normal MCV** (masked by co-existing iron deficiency or thalassemia trait).
*Vitamin D*
- While common in patients with malabsorption conditions like Crohn's disease and Celiac disease, **vitamin D deficiency** primarily presents with **bone pain**, **muscle weakness**, and **osteoporosis**, not the prominent neurological findings seen here.
- The patient's **calcium level (8.4 mg/dL)** is at the lower end of normal, but not overtly hypocalcemic, which would be expected with severe vitamin D deficiency.
*Iron*
- **Iron deficiency** is common in Crohn's and Celiac disease due to malabsorption and chronic blood loss, leading to **microcytic anemia** and **fatigue**.
- However, the patient's **MCV is normal (97 fL)**, and iron deficiency does not typically explain the **neurological symptoms** (gait difficulties, absent reflexes) described.
*Vitamin B9*
- **Folate deficiency** can cause **megaloblastic anemia** and fatigue, similar to vitamin B12 deficiency, but it is less likely to cause the **severe neurological symptoms** seen here.
- While malabsorption conditions can affect folate, the specific neurological presentation points more strongly towards B12.
*Vitamin E*
- **Vitamin E deficiency** can cause **neurological symptoms** such as ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, and muscle weakness due to its role as an antioxidant.
- However, deficiency is rare in adults and usually severe malabsorption of fats from conditions like abetalipoproteinemia. While Crohn's and Celiac can cause fat malabsorption, the constellation of symptoms, including anemia and masked MCV, aligns more directly with B12.
Question 540: A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of joint pain and stiffness for the past year. The pain is mainly concentrated in her hands and is usually worse towards the late afternoon. It is described with a burning quality that surrounds the joint with some numbness and tingling. The stiffness is especially worse in the morning and lasts approximately for 15-20 minutes. Her past medical history is significant for recurrent gastric ulcers. She reports that her mother struggled with lupus and is concerned that she might have the same thing. She denies fever, rashes, ulcers, genitourinary symptoms, weight loss, or bowel changes. Physical examination is significant for mild tenderness at the distal interphalangeal joints bilaterally. What is the best initial medication to prescribe to this patient?
A. Methotrexate
B. Hydroxychloroquine
C. Infliximab
D. Aspirin
E. Acetaminophen (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Acetaminophen***
- Given the patient's symptoms of joint pain worse in the late afternoon, morning stiffness lasting 15-20 minutes, and tenderness at the **distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs)**, **osteoarthritis** is the most likely diagnosis.
- As **acetaminophen** is an **analgesic** and a relatively safe medication, it is considered a first-line treatment for pain management in osteoarthritis, especially given her history of recurrent gastric ulcers which makes NSAIDs less favorable.
*Methotrexate*
- **Methotrexate** is a **disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)** primarily used for inflammatory arthritis like **rheumatoid arthritis** or **psoriatic arthritis**.
- Its side effects include **gastrointestinal upset** and **hepatic toxicity**, and it is not a first-line agent for osteoarthritis.
*Hydroxychloroquine*
- **Hydroxychloroquine** is an antimalarial drug used as a DMARD for conditions like **lupus** and **rheumatoid arthritis**.
- While the patient's mother had lupus, her current symptoms are not consistent with lupus, and hydroxychloroquine is not indicated for osteoarthritis.
*Infliximab*
- **Infliximab** is a **biologic agent (TNF-alpha inhibitor)** used for severe inflammatory conditions like **rheumatoid arthritis**, **ankylosing spondylitis**, and inflammatory bowel disease.
- It carries significant risks, including **immunosuppression** and **infusion reactions**, and is not appropriate for initial treatment of osteoarthritis.
*Aspirin*
- **Aspirin**, particularly in anti-inflammatory doses, can cause **gastric irritation** and is contraindicated or used with extreme caution in patients with a history of recurrent gastric ulcers.
- Although it has analgesic properties, its anti-inflammatory effects are not specifically targeted at osteoarthritis as a first-line given her ulcer history, and other NSAIDs would be preferred if anti-inflammatory action was needed and gastric issues were not present.