A 64-year-old woman otherwise healthy presents with acute onset severe rectal bleeding. The patient says that 2 hours ago bleeding began suddenly after a difficult bowel movement. She says the blood is bright red, and, initially, bleeding was brisk but now has stopped. The patient denies having any similar symptoms in the past. She has noticed that she bled more easily while having her regular manicure/pedicure for the past 3 months but thought it was nothing serious. No significant past medical history and the patient does not take any current medications. Family history is unremarkable. Review of systems is positive for mild dyspnea on exertion the past 2-3 months. Her vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 100/65 mm Hg, pulse 95/min, respiratory rate 15/min, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air. A cardiac examination is significant for a 2/6 systolic murmur loudest at the right upper sternal border. Rectal exam shows no evidence of external hemorrhoids, fissures, or lesions. No active bleeding is noted. The stool is guaiac positive. Deficiency of which of the following is most likely the cause of this patient’s condition?
Q472
A 21-year-old man undergoes orthopedic surgery for a leg fracture that he has sustained in a motorbike accident. After induction of anesthesia with desflurane, the patient's respiratory minute ventilation decreases notably. Which of the following additional effects is most likely to occur in response to this drug?
Q473
A 64-year-old woman with osteoarthritis is brought to the emergency room because of a 2-day history of nausea and vomiting. Over the past few weeks, she has been taking acetaminophen frequently for worsening knee pain. Examination shows scleral icterus and tender hepatomegaly. She appears confused. Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level is 845 U/L, aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is 798 U/L, and alkaline phosphatase is 152 U/L. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's liver failure?
Q474
A 14-year-old girl with a history of severe persistent asthma presents to her pediatrician after a recent hospital discharge for asthma exacerbation. Her mother is concerned that her daughter continues to wheeze and cough multiple nights per week. She is also concerned that her daughter frequently uses the bathroom to urinate despite no recent change in her diet. She has allergies to pollen and shellfish, but her mother denies any recent exposure. The patient's medications include albuterol, salmeterol, and both inhaled and oral prednisone. What alternative drug can the pediatrician recommend for this patient?
Q475
A 19-year-old woman comes to the physician because of episodic, bilateral finger pain and discoloration that occurs with cold weather. Her fingers first turn white, then blue, before eventually returning to a normal skin color. The symptoms have been occurring daily and limit her ability to work. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medication. She does not smoke. Physical examination shows normal capillary refill of the nail beds. The radial pulse is palpable bilaterally. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
Q476
A 5-year-old African-American boy is brought to the physician because of fatigue and night sweats for the past month. During this time, he has also lost 3 kg (6.6 lbs). Before the onset of symptoms, he had been healthy except for a febrile seizure as an infant. His brother had chickenpox 2 months ago. He is at the 75th percentile for height and 50th percentile for weight. He appears markedly fatigued. His temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), pulse is 95/min, respirations are 19/min, and blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. Lung and cardiac examination is normal. There are enlarged, nontender lymph nodes bilaterally in the neck. The abdomen is soft and nontender. A complete blood count shows:
Leukocyte count 8,000/mm³
Hemoglobin 9.1 g/dL
Hematocrit 26.9%
Platelet count 34,000/mm³
Serum
Na+ 135 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
Cl- 101 mEq/L
HCO3- 27 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 9 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.7 mg/dL
Ca2+ 8.8 mg/dL
PCR testing demonstrates a 9:22 chromosomal translocation. The patient is diagnosed with Philadelphia chromosome-positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Which of the following is the most appropriate targeted therapy component?
Q477
A 65-year-old man with decompensated cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C is brought to the emergency department with 2 episodes of massive hematemesis that started 2 hours ago. He is a liver transplant candidate. The blood pressure is 110/85 mm Hg in the supine position and 90/70 mm Hg after sitting for 3 minutes. The pulse is 110/min, the respirations are 22/min, and the temperature is 36.1°C (97.0°F). The physical examination shows spider angiomata, palmar erythema, and symmetric abdominal distension with positive shifting dullness. The lung and heart examination shows no abnormalities. Two large-bore intravenous lines are obtained. Saline (0.9%) is initiated. Laboratory tests are pending. The most important next step is to administer which of the following intravenous therapies?
Q478
Two-hours into recovery from general anesthesia for an orthopedic fracture, a 34-year-old woman develops fever and masseter muscle rigidity with lockjaw. She has no history of a similar episode. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. She appears confused. In the recovery room, her blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, the pulse is 128/min, the respirations are 42/min, and the temperature is 40.3°C (104.5°F). Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Serum
Na+ 145 mEq/L
K+ 6.5 mEq/L
Arterial blood gas on room air
pH 7.01
PCO2 78 mm Hg
HCO3− 14 mEq/L
PO2 55 mm Hg
The patient is reintubated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
Q479
A 45-year-old-man presents to the physician with complaints of intermittent episodes of severe headaches and palpitations. During these episodes, he notices that he sweats profusely and becomes pale in complexion. He describes the episodes as coming and going within the past 2 months. His temperature is 99.3°F (37.4°C), blood pressure is 165/118 mmHg, pulse is 126/min, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 90% on room air. Which of the following would be the first medication given to treat this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
Q480
A 63-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation is brought into the emergency room and found to have a ventricular tachyarrhythmia. Ibutilide is discontinued and the patient is switched to another drug that also prolongs the QT interval but is associated with a decreased risk of torsades de pointes. Which drug was most likely administered in this patient?
Autonomic/CV Drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 471: A 64-year-old woman otherwise healthy presents with acute onset severe rectal bleeding. The patient says that 2 hours ago bleeding began suddenly after a difficult bowel movement. She says the blood is bright red, and, initially, bleeding was brisk but now has stopped. The patient denies having any similar symptoms in the past. She has noticed that she bled more easily while having her regular manicure/pedicure for the past 3 months but thought it was nothing serious. No significant past medical history and the patient does not take any current medications. Family history is unremarkable. Review of systems is positive for mild dyspnea on exertion the past 2-3 months. Her vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 100/65 mm Hg, pulse 95/min, respiratory rate 15/min, and oxygen saturation 97% on room air. A cardiac examination is significant for a 2/6 systolic murmur loudest at the right upper sternal border. Rectal exam shows no evidence of external hemorrhoids, fissures, or lesions. No active bleeding is noted. The stool is guaiac positive. Deficiency of which of the following is most likely the cause of this patient’s condition?
A. Factor VIII
B. von Willebrand factor (Correct Answer)
C. Antithrombin III
D. Vitamin K
E. ADAMTS13 gene mutation
Explanation: **von Willebrand factor**
- The patient's **acute rectal bleeding** after a difficult bowel movement, along with a history of **easy bleeding** during manicures/pedicures, suggests a **primary hemostasis** defect. These symptoms, coupled with findings suggestive of **aortic stenosis** (systolic murmur, possible GI angiodysplasia due to her age), are highly indicative of acquired **von Willebrand syndrome (AVWS)**.
- **AVWS** can be precipitated by **aortic stenosis** due to the shearing of large von Willebrand factor (vWF) multimers as they pass through the stenotic valve, leading to their degradation and impaired platelet plug formation. The patient's **mild dyspnea on exertion** and the **2/6 systolic murmur** at the right upper sternal border point to potential aortic stenosis.
*Factor VIII*
- A deficiency in **Factor VIII** causes **hemophilia A**, which typically presents with **deep tissue bleeding**, hemarthroses, and intracranial hemorrhages, rather than mucocutaneous bleeding and easy bruising.
- Hemophilia A is an **X-linked recessive disorder**, primarily affecting males, and would typically manifest much earlier in life with more severe bleeding episodes.
*ADAMTS13 gene mutation*
- A mutation in the **ADAMTS13 gene** leads to **thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)**, characterized by microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, neurological symptoms, renal dysfunction, and fever.
- The patient's presentation of acute, bright red rectal bleeding and easy bruising is not consistent with the typical thrombotic and hemolytic features of TTP.
*Antithrombin III*
- **Antithrombin III deficiency** is associated with an **increased risk of venous and arterial thrombosis**, not bleeding.
- Patients with this deficiency are prone to conditions like deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism, which are the opposite of the bleeding tendency seen in this patient.
*Vitamin K*
- **Vitamin K deficiency** impairs the synthesis of **coagulation factors II, VII, IX, and X**, as well as proteins C and S, leading to a **coagulopathy** with prolonged PT and aPTT.
- While it can cause bleeding, the specific presentation with easy bruising and **GI bleeding associated with potential aortic stenosis** points more directly to acquired von Willebrand syndrome rather than generalized clotting factor deficiency.
Question 472: A 21-year-old man undergoes orthopedic surgery for a leg fracture that he has sustained in a motorbike accident. After induction of anesthesia with desflurane, the patient's respiratory minute ventilation decreases notably. Which of the following additional effects is most likely to occur in response to this drug?
A. Decreased seizure threshold
B. Increased intracranial pressure (Correct Answer)
C. Increased skeletal muscle tonus
D. Increased cerebral metabolic rate
E. Increased glomerular filtration rate
Explanation: ***Increased intracranial pressure***
- **Desflurane**, like other volatile anesthetics, causes **cerebral vasodilation**, leading to increased cerebral blood flow and consequently **increased intracranial pressure (ICP)**.
- This effect is particularly pronounced with desflurane and is a key concern, especially in patients with pre-existing elevated ICP.
*Decreased seizure threshold*
- While some anesthetics can lower the seizure threshold, **desflurane** is generally considered to be **seizure-neutral** or even anticonvulsant at higher concentrations.
- **Enflurane** is an example of an inhaled anesthetic known to reliably induce epileptiform activity.
*Increased skeletal muscle tonus*
- **Volatile anesthetics** generally cause **skeletal muscle relaxation**, which is why they are often used with neuromuscular blockers during surgery.
- An increase in skeletal muscle tonus is seen in conditions like **malignant hyperthermia**, which can be triggered by desflurane, but this is a rare, life-threatening genetic disorder, not a typical effect of the drug.
*Increased cerebral metabolic rate*
- **Desflurane** typically causes a **dose-dependent reduction in the cerebral metabolic rate for oxygen (CMRO2)**, indicating a decrease in brain activity.
- This is often beneficial during anesthesia, providing **neuroprotection**, despite the concurrent cerebral vasodilation.
*Increased glomerular filtration rate*
- **Volatile anesthetics**, including desflurane, tend to cause a **dose-dependent decrease in renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate (GFR)** due to systemic vasodilation and decreased cardiac output.
- Renal function is generally preserved in healthy individuals, but the GFR does not increase with the use of desflurane.
Question 473: A 64-year-old woman with osteoarthritis is brought to the emergency room because of a 2-day history of nausea and vomiting. Over the past few weeks, she has been taking acetaminophen frequently for worsening knee pain. Examination shows scleral icterus and tender hepatomegaly. She appears confused. Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level is 845 U/L, aspartate aminotransferase (AST) is 798 U/L, and alkaline phosphatase is 152 U/L. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's liver failure?
A. N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine formation (Correct Answer)
B. Sulfate-conjugate formation
C. Glucuronide-conjugate formation
D. Salicylic acid formation
E. N-acetylcysteine formation
Explanation: ***N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine formation***
- This patient's clinical presentation, including the history of frequent acetaminophen use, nausea, vomiting, scleral icterus, tender hepatomegaly, confusion, and significantly elevated AST/ALT levels (**845 U/L and 798 U/L respectively**), is highly indicative of **acetaminophen-induced hepatotoxicity**.
- **N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI)** is a highly reactive and toxic metabolite of acetaminophen, formed when the normal metabolic pathways (sulfation and glucuronidation) become saturated due to excessive dosing. NAPQI depletes **glutathione** stores, leading to **oxidative stress** and direct hepatocellular injury causing liver failure.
*Sulfate-conjugate formation*
- **Sulfate-conjugation** is one of the primary and non-toxic pathways for acetaminophen metabolism at therapeutic doses.
- This pathway becomes saturated with acetaminophen overdose, leading to increased metabolism through the **cytochrome P450 pathway** and subsequent NAPQI production.
*Glucuronide-conjugate formation*
- **Glucuronide-conjugation** is another primary and non-toxic pathway for acetaminophen metabolism, similar to sulfation.
- Like sulfation, this pathway is also saturated in cases of acetaminophen overdose, shunting more of the drug to the toxic P450-mediated pathway.
*Salicylic acid formation*
- **Salicylic acid** is a metabolite of aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid), not acetaminophen.
- Overdose of aspirin can cause metabolic acidosis, tinnitus, and hyperthermia, but not typically the pattern of liver injury associated with this patient's findings.
*N-acetylcysteine formation*
- **N-acetylcysteine** is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose; it is not a metabolite of acetaminophen.
- It replenishes **glutathione**, which helps detoxify NAPQI and prevent further liver damage.
Question 474: A 14-year-old girl with a history of severe persistent asthma presents to her pediatrician after a recent hospital discharge for asthma exacerbation. Her mother is concerned that her daughter continues to wheeze and cough multiple nights per week. She is also concerned that her daughter frequently uses the bathroom to urinate despite no recent change in her diet. She has allergies to pollen and shellfish, but her mother denies any recent exposure. The patient's medications include albuterol, salmeterol, and both inhaled and oral prednisone. What alternative drug can the pediatrician recommend for this patient?
A. Omalizumab (Correct Answer)
B. Natalizumab
C. Imatinib
D. Trastuzumab
E. Nivolumab
Explanation: ***Omalizumab***
- This patient presents with **severe persistent asthma** despite treatment with oral and inhaled corticosteroids, indicating a need for additional therapy beyond standard bronchodilators and anti-inflammatory agents.
- Given her history of allergies and nocturnal symptoms, **omalizumab**, an **anti-IgE monoclonal antibody**, is a suitable option for patients with severe persistent allergic asthma not controlled by conventional treatments.
*Natalizumab*
- **Natalizumab** is a **monoclonal antibody** that targets the α4-integrin, used primarily in the treatment of **multiple sclerosis** and **Crohn's disease**.
- It is not indicated for the treatment of asthma and would not address her allergic symptoms or severe airway inflammation.
*Imatinib*
- **Imatinib** is a **tyrosine kinase inhibitor** used in the treatment of various cancers, such as **chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)** and **gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)**.
- It has no role in the management of asthma.
*Trastuzumab*
- **Trastuzumab** is a **monoclonal antibody** that targets the **HER2/neu receptor**, commonly used in the treatment of **HER2-positive breast cancer** and **gastric cancer**.
- This medication is not indicated for asthma.
*Nivolumab*
- **Nivolumab** is a **PD-1 checkpoint inhibitor**, a type of **immunotherapy** used in several advanced cancers to boost the immune response against tumor cells.
- It has no therapeutic indication for asthma and could even exacerbate immune-related conditions.
Question 475: A 19-year-old woman comes to the physician because of episodic, bilateral finger pain and discoloration that occurs with cold weather. Her fingers first turn white, then blue, before eventually returning to a normal skin color. The symptoms have been occurring daily and limit her ability to work. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medication. She does not smoke. Physical examination shows normal capillary refill of the nail beds. The radial pulse is palpable bilaterally. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A. Nifedipine (Correct Answer)
B. Phenylephrine
C. Isosorbide dinitrate
D. Prednisone
E. Ergotamine
Explanation: ***Nifedipine***
- This patient's symptoms of **episodic, bilateral finger pain and discoloration** (white, then blue, then red) triggered by cold are classic for **Raynaud phenomenon**.
- **Calcium channel blockers** like nifedipine are the **first-line pharmacotherapy** for severe or frequent Raynaud symptoms, as they cause vasodilation and improve blood flow.
*Phenylephrine*
- **Phenylephrine** is an **alpha-1 adrenergic agonist** that causes vasoconstriction, which would worsen Raynaud phenomenon.
- It is used as a decongestant or to increase blood pressure, directly opposing the desired therapeutic effect for Raynaud.
*Isosorbide dinitrate*
- **Isosorbide dinitrate** is a **nitrate** used to treat angina by causing vasodilation, primarily of veins.
- While it causes vasodilation, it is not the primary or most effective treatment for peripheral vasoconstriction seen in Raynaud phenomenon, and can have significant side effects like headache and hypotension.
*Prednisone*
- **Prednisone** is a corticosteroid used for inflammatory conditions and autoimmune diseases.
- Raynaud phenomenon itself is primarily a **vasospastic disorder** and not an inflammatory process that would respond to corticosteroids unless associated with an underlying inflammatory autoimmune disease, which is not indicated here.
*Ergotamine*
- **Ergotamine** is an **ergot alkaloid** used to treat migraines due to its vasoconstrictive properties at specific serotonin receptors.
- Its potent **vasoconstrictive effects** would significantly worsen the symptoms of Raynaud phenomenon.
Question 476: A 5-year-old African-American boy is brought to the physician because of fatigue and night sweats for the past month. During this time, he has also lost 3 kg (6.6 lbs). Before the onset of symptoms, he had been healthy except for a febrile seizure as an infant. His brother had chickenpox 2 months ago. He is at the 75th percentile for height and 50th percentile for weight. He appears markedly fatigued. His temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), pulse is 95/min, respirations are 19/min, and blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. Lung and cardiac examination is normal. There are enlarged, nontender lymph nodes bilaterally in the neck. The abdomen is soft and nontender. A complete blood count shows:
Leukocyte count 8,000/mm³
Hemoglobin 9.1 g/dL
Hematocrit 26.9%
Platelet count 34,000/mm³
Serum
Na+ 135 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
Cl- 101 mEq/L
HCO3- 27 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 9 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.7 mg/dL
Ca2+ 8.8 mg/dL
PCR testing demonstrates a 9:22 chromosomal translocation. The patient is diagnosed with Philadelphia chromosome-positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Which of the following is the most appropriate targeted therapy component?
A. Cladribine
B. Imatinib (Correct Answer)
C. Hydroxyurea
D. All-trans retinoic acid
E. Transfuse platelets
Explanation: ***Imatinib***
- The patient has **Philadelphia chromosome-positive acute lymphoblastic leukemia (Ph+ ALL)**, indicated by the **9:22 chromosomal translocation** (BCR-ABL fusion gene).
- **Imatinib** is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor (TKI) that specifically targets the **BCR-ABL fusion protein**, making it the most appropriate targeted therapy for Ph+ ALL.
*Cladribine*
- **Cladribine** is a purine analog primarily used in the treatment of **hairy cell leukemia** and some forms of lymphoma.
- It is not a targeted therapy for the **BCR-ABL fusion gene** in Ph+ ALL.
*Hydroxyurea*
- **Hydroxyurea** is a myelosuppressive agent used to rapidly lower high blood counts in conditions like **chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)** or **myeloproliferative neoplasms**.
- It does not target the specific genetic abnormality of Ph+ ALL.
*All-trans retinoic acid*
- **All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA)** is a form of vitamin A used in the treatment of **acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL)**.
- ATRA induces differentiation of promyelocytes and is not effective for Ph+ ALL.
*Transfuse platelets*
- While the patient has **thrombocytopenia** (platelet count 34,000/mm³), **platelet transfusion** is a supportive measure, not a targeted therapy for leukemia.
- It addresses a complication of the disease rather than the underlying oncogenic driver.
Question 477: A 65-year-old man with decompensated cirrhosis secondary to hepatitis C is brought to the emergency department with 2 episodes of massive hematemesis that started 2 hours ago. He is a liver transplant candidate. The blood pressure is 110/85 mm Hg in the supine position and 90/70 mm Hg after sitting for 3 minutes. The pulse is 110/min, the respirations are 22/min, and the temperature is 36.1°C (97.0°F). The physical examination shows spider angiomata, palmar erythema, and symmetric abdominal distension with positive shifting dullness. The lung and heart examination shows no abnormalities. Two large-bore intravenous lines are obtained. Saline (0.9%) is initiated. Laboratory tests are pending. The most important next step is to administer which of the following intravenous therapies?
A. Fresh frozen plasma
B. Octreotide (Correct Answer)
C. Packed red blood cells (RBCs)
D. Propranolol
E. Pantoprazole
Explanation: ***Octreotide***
- This patient's presentation with **massive hematemesis**, **decompensated cirrhosis**, and signs of portal hypertension strongly suggests **esophageal variceal bleeding**.
- **Octreotide**, a somatostatin analog, is critical in managing variceal bleeding by causing **splanchnic vasoconstriction**, which reduces portal blood flow and pressure, thereby decreasing active bleeding.
*Fresh frozen plasma*
- While patients with **cirrhosis often have coagulopathy**, administering fresh frozen plasma (FFP) without documented severe coagulopathy or active bleeding requiring immediate reversal (e.g., before an invasive procedure) is not the highest priority.
- **FFP transfusions** can paradoxically increase portal pressure and volume, potentially worsening variceal bleeding.
*Packed red blood cells (RBCs)*
- Though the patient is likely anemic due to massive hematemesis, **transfusion of RBCs** should be guided by hemoglobin levels and clinical signs of hemodynamic instability, with a goal to achieve **hemodynamic stability** rather than over-transfusing.
- While important, **stopping the bleeding** with octreotide takes precedence before optimal RBC transfusion thresholds are determined.
*Propranolol*
- **Propranolol** is a non-selective beta-blocker used for **primary and secondary prophylaxis** of variceal bleeding.
- It is **contraindicated in acute bleeding** as it can worsen hypotension and interfere with the body's compensatory mechanisms during hypovolemic shock.
*Pantoprazole*
- **Pantoprazole**, a **proton pump inhibitor (PPI)**, is used to suppress stomach acid and is beneficial in managing **peptic ulcer bleeding**.
- However, it has no direct role in controlling **variceal bleeding**, which originates from esophageal varices rather than acid-related gastric or duodenal mucosa.
Question 478: Two-hours into recovery from general anesthesia for an orthopedic fracture, a 34-year-old woman develops fever and masseter muscle rigidity with lockjaw. She has no history of a similar episode. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. She appears confused. In the recovery room, her blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, the pulse is 128/min, the respirations are 42/min, and the temperature is 40.3°C (104.5°F). Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Serum
Na+ 145 mEq/L
K+ 6.5 mEq/L
Arterial blood gas on room air
pH 7.01
PCO2 78 mm Hg
HCO3− 14 mEq/L
PO2 55 mm Hg
The patient is reintubated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in pharmacotherapy?
A. Lorazepam
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Dantrolene (Correct Answer)
D. Labetalol
E. Cyproheptadine
Explanation: ***Dantrolene***
- The patient exhibits classic signs of **malignant hyperthermia**, including
**masseter muscle rigidity**, **fever (40.3°C)**, **tachycardia (128/min)**,
**tachypnea (42/min)**, and **hypotension (78/50 mm Hg)**. The **elevated potassium (6.5
mEq/L)**, **acidosis (pH 7.01)**, and **hypercapnia (PCO2 78 mm Hg)**
further support this diagnosis.
- **Dantrolene** is the only specific antidote for malignant hyperthermia as
it acts as a **ryanodine receptor antagonist**, inhibiting calcium release
from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and thereby reducing muscle contracture and
heat production.
*Lorazepam*
- **Lorazepam** is a benzodiazepine used for treating seizures, anxiety, and
agitation, but it does **not address the underlying pathophysiology of
malignant hyperthermia**.
- While the patient appears confused, this is likely secondary to the
metabolic derangements and hyperthermia, not a primary indication for
lorazepam.
*Diphenhydramine*
- **Diphenhydramine** is an antihistamine used to treat allergic reactions or
sedation; it has no role in the management of malignant hyperthermia.
- It would not alleviate the muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, or metabolic
abnormalities seen in this patient.
*Labetalol*
- **Labetalol** is a beta-blocker used to manage hypertension and tachycardia,
but these are symptoms of malignant hyperthermia rather than the root
cause.
- While it could temporarily lower heart rate and blood pressure, it **does
not address the excessive calcium release** in skeletal muscle, which is
the hallmark of malignant hyperthermia.
*Cyproheptadine*
- **Cyproheptadine** is a serotonin antagonist used in the treatment of
serotonin syndrome.
- Malignant hyperthermia and serotonin syndrome share some clinical features
like hyperthermia, but the **trigger (anesthetic agents)** and underlying
mechanisms are different, making cyproheptadine ineffective here.
Question 479: A 45-year-old-man presents to the physician with complaints of intermittent episodes of severe headaches and palpitations. During these episodes, he notices that he sweats profusely and becomes pale in complexion. He describes the episodes as coming and going within the past 2 months. His temperature is 99.3°F (37.4°C), blood pressure is 165/118 mmHg, pulse is 126/min, respirations are 18/min, and oxygen saturation is 90% on room air. Which of the following would be the first medication given to treat this patient’s most likely diagnosis?
A. Phentolamine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Prazosin
D. Phenoxybenzamine (Correct Answer)
E. Propranolol
Explanation: ***Phenoxybenzamine***
- The patient exhibits classic symptoms of a **pheochromocytoma**, such as paroxysmal hypertension, headaches, palpitations, and sweating.
- **Alpha-blockade with phenoxybenzamine** should always be initiated **before** beta-blockade to prevent a hypertensive crisis due to unopposed alpha-adrenergic stimulation.
*Phentolamine*
- This is a **short-acting alpha-blocker** used for acute management of hypertensive crises in pheochromocytoma, not for initial chronic preparation.
- It would be used in an **emergency** or during surgery if blood pressure spikes, but not for preoperative stabilization.
*Pilocarpine*
- This is a **cholinergic agonist** primarily used in ophthalmology to treat glaucoma or xerostomia.
- It has no role in the management of hypertension or pheochromocytoma.
*Prazosin*
- This is a **selective alpha-1 blocker**, which can be used in pheochromocytoma but is typically less preferred for initial broad alpha-blockade.
- **Phenoxybenzamine** is a non-selective, long-acting alpha-blocker, often favored for its comprehensive blockade.
*Propanolol*
- This is a **beta-blocker** which should only be added after adequate alpha-blockade has been established to control tachycardia.
- Giving a beta-blocker alone without prior alpha-blockade can worsen hypertension by blocking vasodilatory beta-2 receptors, leading to unopposed alpha-1 vasoconstriction.
Question 480: A 63-year-old man with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation is brought into the emergency room and found to have a ventricular tachyarrhythmia. Ibutilide is discontinued and the patient is switched to another drug that also prolongs the QT interval but is associated with a decreased risk of torsades de pointes. Which drug was most likely administered in this patient?
A. Esmolol
B. Digoxin
C. Sotalol
D. Amiodarone (Correct Answer)
E. Quinidine
Explanation: ***Amiodarone***
- **Amiodarone** prolongs the **QT interval** but has a lower risk of **torsades de pointes** compared to other **Class III antiarrhythmics** due to its mixed ion channel blocking properties and consistent action potential prolongation.
- It's a broad-spectrum **antiarrhythmic drug** effective for both **atrial** and **ventricular arrhythmias**, making it a good choice for someone with a history of **atrial fibrillation** presenting with **ventricular tachyarrhythmia**.
*Esmolol*
- **Esmolol** is a **beta-blocker** that does not prolong the **QT interval**; it is used to slow heart rate and can be used for rhythm control but not by **QT prolongation**.
- Its primary action is on **beta-1 receptors**, reducing **myocardial contractility** and **heart rate**, primarily used for acute control of **tachyarrhythmias** or **hypertensive emergencies**.
*Digoxin*
- **Digoxin** is a **cardiac glycoside** that does not prolong the **QT interval**; it primarily works by inhibiting the **Na+/K+-ATPase pump** and increasing **vagal tone**.
- It is used to control **ventricular rate** in **atrial fibrillation** and to manage **heart failure**, but it is not an **antiarrhythmic** in the sense of directly terminating **ventricular tachyarrhythmias** by affecting **QT prolongation**.
*Sotalol*
- **Sotalol** is a **beta-blocker** with **Class III antiarrhythmic properties** that prolongs the **QT interval** and has a significant **dose-related risk of torsades de pointes**, particularly at higher doses.
- While it's effective for both **ventricular** and **supraventricular arrhythmias**, its risk of **TdP** is a major concern, making **amiodarone** a safer alternative when **TdP risk** is to be minimized.
*Quinidine*
- **Quinidine** is a **Class IA antiarrhythmic** that significantly prolongs the **QT interval** and is known for a high risk of causing **torsades de pointes**.
- It primarily blocks **fast sodium channels** and also **potassium channels**, contributing to its **proarrhythmic effects** and making it a less favored option when **TdP risk** needs to be decreased.