A 79-year-old man presents to a physician’s office for a routine appointment. He had a myocardial infarction 3 years ago and was started on aspirin, carvedilol, captopril, and high-dose atorvastatin. He denies shortness of breath or cough. He exercises regularly and is on a healthy diet that is good for his heart. The vital signs include: pulse 80/min, respirations 16/min and blood pressure 122/80 mm Hg. The physical examination reveals an overweight male with a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2. The fasting lipid profile is as follows:
Total cholesterol 200 mg/dL
High-density lipoprotein (HDL) 35 mg/dL
Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) 140 mg/dL
Triglycerides 120 mg/dL
Which of the following drugs should be added to his regimen?
Q462
A 21-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician at 10 weeks' gestation because of progressive fatigue for the past 3 weeks. She reports that she has had a 3.2-kg (7-lb) weight loss after conceiving despite an increase in appetite. She has become increasingly anxious and has trouble falling asleep. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Medications include folic acid and a multivitamin. She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 55 kg (120 lb); BMI is 20 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37.4°C (99.4°F), pulse is 120/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 150/70 mm Hg. The globes of the eyes are prominent. The thyroid gland is firm and diffusely enlarged. Neurologic examination shows a fine resting tremor of the hands. There is a midsystolic click at the apex and a grade 2/6 early systolic murmur at the upper left sternal border. Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone concentration is 0.1 μU/mL. An ECG is normal except for sinus tachycardia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q463
A 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to her physician with intermittent nausea for the past 2 months. Her symptoms are exacerbated within one hour after eating. She has no other history of a serious illness. She takes metformin and injects insulin. Her vitals are normal. Abdominal examination is normal. An ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with no evidence of ischemia. Hemoglobin A1c is 7%. A gastric emptying scan shows 60% of her meal in the stomach 75 minutes after eating. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy at this time?
Q464
A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a severely painful right eye. The pain started an hour ago and is accompanied by frontal headache and nausea. The patient has vomited twice since the onset of the pain. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus. He immigrated to the US from China 10 years ago. He works as an engineer at a local company and has been under a great deal of stress lately. His only medication is metformin. Vital signs are within normal limits. The right eye is red and is hard on palpation. The right pupil is mid-dilated and nonreactive to light. The left pupil is round and reactive to light and accommodation. Which of the following agents is contraindicated in this patient?
Q465
A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after his girlfriend discovered him at home in a minimally responsive state. He has a history of drinking alcohol excessively and using illicit drugs. On arrival, he does not respond to commands but withdraws all extremities to pain. His pulse is 90/min, respirations are 8/min, and blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry while receiving bag-valve-mask ventilation shows an oxygen saturation of 95%. Examination shows cool, dry skin, with scattered track marks on his arms and legs. The pupils are pinpoint and react sluggishly to light. His serum blood glucose level is 80 mg/dL. The most appropriate next step in management is intravenous administration of which of the following?
Q466
A 23-year-old male presents to the emergency room following a gunshot wound to the leg. On arrival his temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, respirations are 21/min, and pulse oximetry is 99% on room air. Two large bore IVs are placed and he receives crystalloid fluid replacement followed by 2 units of crossmatched packed red blood cells. Immediately following transfusion, his temperature is 102.2°F (39°C), blood pressure is 93/64 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, respirations are 21/min, and pulse oximetry is 99% on room air. There is oozing from his IV sites. You check the records and realize there was a clerical error with the blood bank. What is the mechanism for his current condition?
Q467
A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department for the evaluation of polyuria, polydipsia, and confusion. He has a history of the psychiatric disease but is unable to provide additional details. He is admitted to the hospital and his home medications are continued. Routine testing is unrevealing for the etiology of his symptoms. Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is given, but no effect is seen on urine output or urine osmolarity. Which of the following medications could have induced this syndrome?
Q468
A 51-year-old woman schedules an appointment with her physician with complaints of upper abdominal pain, nausea, and early satiety for the last 6 months. She has type 1 diabetes for the past 10 years and is on subcutaneous insulin therapy. She complains of occasional heartburn and lost 4.5 kg (10 lb) in the past 6 months without any changes in her diet. The medical history is significant for long QT syndrome. The vital signs include: pulse 74/min, respirations 18/min, temperature 37.7°C (99.9°F), and blood pressure 140/84 mm Hg. Abdominal examination is negative for organomegaly or a palpable mass, but there is a presence of succussion splash. She has slightly decreased vision in both her eyes and fundoscopy reveals diabetic changes in the retina. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy is performed, which is negative for obstruction, but a small ulcer is noted near the cardiac end of the stomach with some food particles. Which of the following drugs would be inappropriate in the management of this patient's condition?
Q469
A 30-year-old man comes to the physician for follow-up evaluation for hypertension. He reports a 1-month history of episodic throbbing headaches, palpitations, and paroxysmal sweating. Blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg. He appears pale but physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory studies show elevated urine and plasma metanephrines. A CT scan of the abdomen shows a mass in the left adrenal gland. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy for this patient?
Q470
Thirty minutes after vaginal delivery of a 2780-g (6-lb 2-oz) newborn at term, a 25-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, has heavy vaginal bleeding. Her pregnancy was complicated by pre-eclampsia. Her pulse is 111/min and blood pressure is 95/65 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a fundal height 2 inches below the xiphoid process of the sternum. A drug with which of the following mechanisms of action is most appropriate for this patient?
Autonomic/CV Drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 461: A 79-year-old man presents to a physician’s office for a routine appointment. He had a myocardial infarction 3 years ago and was started on aspirin, carvedilol, captopril, and high-dose atorvastatin. He denies shortness of breath or cough. He exercises regularly and is on a healthy diet that is good for his heart. The vital signs include: pulse 80/min, respirations 16/min and blood pressure 122/80 mm Hg. The physical examination reveals an overweight male with a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2. The fasting lipid profile is as follows:
Total cholesterol 200 mg/dL
High-density lipoprotein (HDL) 35 mg/dL
Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) 140 mg/dL
Triglycerides 120 mg/dL
Which of the following drugs should be added to his regimen?
A. Niacin
B. Losartan
C. Furosemide
D. Orlistat
E. Ezetimibe (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct: Ezetimibe***
- This patient is on a **high-dose statin (atorvastatin)** and already has a history of **myocardial infarction (MI)**. His **LDL is still elevated at 140 mg/dL**, which indicates that he is at high risk for future cardiovascular events.
- According to **ACC/AHA guidelines**, for patients with established **atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD)** and persistently high LDL (target <70 mg/dL) despite maximal statin therapy, a **non-statin agent** like **ezetimibe** should be added to further lower LDL and reduce cardiovascular risk.
- The **IMPROVE-IT trial** demonstrated that adding ezetimibe to statin therapy in post-ACS patients significantly reduces cardiovascular events.
*Incorrect: Niacin*
- While niacin can increase **HDL** and decrease **triglycerides** and **LDL**, it has fallen out of favor for routine use in ASCVD prevention.
- Large clinical trials (AIM-HIGH, HPS2-THRIVE) have shown that adding niacin to statin therapy does not provide additional cardiovascular benefit and is associated with significant side effects like **flushing, pruritus, and increased risk of diabetes**.
*Incorrect: Losartan*
- Losartan is an **angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)**, typically used for **hypertension** or **heart failure**, or as an alternative to ACE inhibitors in patients who develop cough.
- The patient's **blood pressure is well-controlled (122/80 mm Hg)**, and he is already on an **ACE inhibitor (captopril)**, so losartan is not indicated.
*Incorrect: Furosemide*
- Furosemide is a **loop diuretic** primarily used to treat **fluid retention** due to heart failure, liver disease, or kidney disease.
- The patient has no signs or symptoms of **fluid overload** (e.g., shortness of breath, edema), making furosemide unnecessary.
*Incorrect: Orlistat*
- Orlistat is a lipase inhibitor used for **weight loss** by reducing dietary fat absorption.
- While the patient is overweight (BMI 28 kg/m²), his primary issue here is uncontrolled LDL despite maximal statin therapy post-MI, not simply weight management, and **ezetimibe directly targets the LDL problem**.
Question 462: A 21-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician at 10 weeks' gestation because of progressive fatigue for the past 3 weeks. She reports that she has had a 3.2-kg (7-lb) weight loss after conceiving despite an increase in appetite. She has become increasingly anxious and has trouble falling asleep. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Medications include folic acid and a multivitamin. She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 55 kg (120 lb); BMI is 20 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37.4°C (99.4°F), pulse is 120/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 150/70 mm Hg. The globes of the eyes are prominent. The thyroid gland is firm and diffusely enlarged. Neurologic examination shows a fine resting tremor of the hands. There is a midsystolic click at the apex and a grade 2/6 early systolic murmur at the upper left sternal border. Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone concentration is 0.1 μU/mL. An ECG is normal except for sinus tachycardia. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Radioactive iodine ablation
B. Lugol's iodine
C. Atenolol
D. Propylthiouracil (Correct Answer)
E. Thyroidectomy
Explanation: ***Propylthiouracil***
- The patient presents with classic symptoms of **hyperthyroidism** (**fatigue, weight loss despite increased appetite, anxiety, tachycardia, prominent globes, fine tremor, diffusely enlarged thyroid**, and a **TSH of 0.1 μU/mL**), likely **Graves' disease** given her age and presentation.
- **Propylthiouracil (PTU)** is the preferred antithyroid drug during the **first trimester of pregnancy** due to a lower risk of teratogenicity compared to methimazole, especially preventing **embryopathy** (aplasia cutis).
*Radioactive iodine ablation*
- **Radioactive iodine (RAI) ablation** is **contraindicated in pregnancy** as it crosses the placenta and can cause **fetal hypothyroidism** and **cretinism** by destroying the fetal thyroid gland.
- It is typically used for definitive treatment of hyperthyroidism in non-pregnant individuals or post-pregnancy.
*Lugol's iodine*
- **Lugol's iodine (potassium iodide)** is used in the short term to acutely block thyroid hormone release, primarily as preparation for thyroidectomy or in **thyroid storm**.
- It is not a primary long-term treatment for hyperthyroidism and can be problematic in pregnancy due to potential for fetal goiter and hypothyroidism with prolonged use.
*Atenolol*
- **Atenolol**, a **beta-blocker**, can relieve adrenergic symptoms of hyperthyroidism like tachycardia, tremors, and anxiety.
- However, it does not address the underlying **excessive thyroid hormone production** and has been associated with **fetal growth restriction** and **bradycardia** in pregnancy. **Propranolol** is a safer beta-blocker if needed during pregnancy but should be used cautiously.
*Thyroidectomy*
- **Thyroidectomy** is a definitive treatment for hyperthyroidism but is usually reserved for patients who fail medical therapy or have large goiters causing compressive symptoms, and its preferred timing is during the **second trimester of pregnancy** if indicated, to minimize risks to both mother and fetus.
- It is not the most appropriate initial management step for an uncomplicated presentation of hyperthyroidism in early pregnancy.
Question 463: A 55-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to her physician with intermittent nausea for the past 2 months. Her symptoms are exacerbated within one hour after eating. She has no other history of a serious illness. She takes metformin and injects insulin. Her vitals are normal. Abdominal examination is normal. An ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with no evidence of ischemia. Hemoglobin A1c is 7%. A gastric emptying scan shows 60% of her meal in the stomach 75 minutes after eating. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy at this time?
A. Dimenhydrinate
B. Octreotide
C. Lorazepam
D. Metoclopramide (Correct Answer)
E. Ondansetron
Explanation: ***Metoclopramide***
- This patient presents with symptoms and gastric emptying scan results consistent with **diabetic gastroparesis**. Metoclopramide is a **prokinetic agent** that increases gastrointestinal motility and reduces nausea and vomiting.
- As a **dopamine D2 receptor antagonist**, it enhances cholinergic stimulation of the GI tract, promoting gastric emptying.
*Dimenhydrinate*
- This is an **antihistamine** primarily used for motion sickness. While it can help with nausea, it does not address the underlying **gastroparesis** and would not improve gastric emptying.
- It also has **sedative side effects** that often limit its use.
*Octreotide*
- **Octreotide** is a **somatostatin analog** used to treat conditions like VIPomas, acromegaly, and esophageal varices. It can actually *slow* gastric emptying.
- It is not indicated for the treatment of **gastroparesis** and would likely worsen symptoms.
*Lorazepam*
- **Lorazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** used for anxiety and sometimes as an antiemetic due to its anxiolytic and sedative properties, not due to direct effects on gastrointestinal motility.
- It does not address the underlying pathology of **gastroparesis** and its use would be inappropriate as a primary treatment.
*Ondansetron*
- **Ondansetron** is a **5-HT3 receptor antagonist** that effectively treats chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
- While it helps with nausea, it does not improve **gastric motility** or address the delayed gastric emptying seen in gastroparesis.
Question 464: A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a severely painful right eye. The pain started an hour ago and is accompanied by frontal headache and nausea. The patient has vomited twice since the onset of the pain. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus. He immigrated to the US from China 10 years ago. He works as an engineer at a local company and has been under a great deal of stress lately. His only medication is metformin. Vital signs are within normal limits. The right eye is red and is hard on palpation. The right pupil is mid-dilated and nonreactive to light. The left pupil is round and reactive to light and accommodation. Which of the following agents is contraindicated in this patient?
A. Oral acetazolamide
B. Topical epinephrine (Correct Answer)
C. Topical timolol
D. Topical apraclonidine
E. Topical pilocarpine
Explanation: ***Topical epinephrine***
- **Epinephrine** is a **sympathomimetic** agent that can **dilate the pupil** (mydriasis).
- In a patient experiencing **acute angle-closure glaucoma**, mydriasis will further narrow the angle and **exacerbate the sudden rise in intraocular pressure**, making it contraindicated.
*Oral acetazolamide*
- **Acetazolamide** is a **carbonic anhydrase inhibitor** that **reduces aqueous humor production**, thereby lowering intraocular pressure.
- It is often used as a first-line systemic treatment for **acute angle-closure glaucoma** and is not contraindicated.
*Topical timolol*
- **Timolol** is a **beta-adrenergic blocker** that **reduces aqueous humor production** without affecting pupil size.
- It is a common topical medication for lowering intraocular pressure in various forms of glaucoma, including acute angle-closure.
*Topical apraclonidine*
- **Apraclonidine** is an **alpha-2 adrenergic agonist** that lowers intraocular pressure primarily by **reducing aqueous humor production** and to a lesser extent by increasing uveoscleral outflow.
- It is used as an adjunctive treatment for acute angle-closure glaucoma and is not contraindicated.
*Topical pilocarpine*
- **Pilocarpine** is a **cholinergic agonist** that causes **pupillary miosis** and **contraction of the ciliary muscle**, which **opens the trabecular meshwork** and facilitates aqueous outflow.
- It is often used after initial pressure reduction in acute angle-closure glaucoma to reverse the pupillary block.
Question 465: A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after his girlfriend discovered him at home in a minimally responsive state. He has a history of drinking alcohol excessively and using illicit drugs. On arrival, he does not respond to commands but withdraws all extremities to pain. His pulse is 90/min, respirations are 8/min, and blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry while receiving bag-valve-mask ventilation shows an oxygen saturation of 95%. Examination shows cool, dry skin, with scattered track marks on his arms and legs. The pupils are pinpoint and react sluggishly to light. His serum blood glucose level is 80 mg/dL. The most appropriate next step in management is intravenous administration of which of the following?
A. Fomepizole
B. Naltrexone
C. Methadone
D. Naloxone (Correct Answer)
E. Phentolamine
Explanation: ***Naloxone***
- The patient presents with classic signs of **opioid overdose**: altered mental status, **respiratory depression** (8/min), and **pinpoint pupils**.
- **Naloxone** is an opioid antagonist that rapidly reverses the effects of opioid toxicity and is the most appropriate first-line treatment in this scenario.
*Fomepizole*
- This medication is used as an antidote for **methanol** and **ethylene glycol poisoning**, which typically present with metabolic acidosis and renal failure, not pinpoint pupils and respiratory depression.
- There are no clinical signs in this patient indicative of methanol or ethylene glycol ingestion.
*Naltrexone*
- **Naltrexone** is an opioid antagonist used for long-term management of opioid use disorder or alcohol dependence, but it is not used in acute overdose resuscitation due to its slower onset and formulation (oral or long-acting injectable).
- Its primary role is to prevent relapse, not to reverse acute respiratory depression.
*Methadone*
- **Methadone** is a long-acting opioid agonist used for opioid replacement therapy and chronic pain management.
- Administering methadone would worsen the patient's opioid-induced respiratory depression and central nervous system depression.
*Phentolamine*
- **Phentolamine** is an alpha-adrenergic blocker used to treat hypertensive crises, particularly those caused by pheochromocytoma or extravasation of vasopressors.
- It has no role in managing opioid overdose and could lead to hypotension in this patient.
Question 466: A 23-year-old male presents to the emergency room following a gunshot wound to the leg. On arrival his temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, respirations are 21/min, and pulse oximetry is 99% on room air. Two large bore IVs are placed and he receives crystalloid fluid replacement followed by 2 units of crossmatched packed red blood cells. Immediately following transfusion, his temperature is 102.2°F (39°C), blood pressure is 93/64 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, respirations are 21/min, and pulse oximetry is 99% on room air. There is oozing from his IV sites. You check the records and realize there was a clerical error with the blood bank. What is the mechanism for his current condition?
A. IgE mediated reaction
B. Deposition of immune complexes
C. Production of leukotrienes
D. Preformed antibodies (Correct Answer)
E. T lymphocyte reaction
Explanation: ***Preformed antibodies***
- The patient's symptoms, including **fever**, persistent **hypotension**, and **oozing from IV sites** (which suggests **DIC**), immediately following a transfusion due to a clerical error, are classic signs of an **acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR)**.
- AHTRs are caused by the recipient's **preformed antibodies** (e.g., anti-A, anti-B) reacting with donor red blood cell antigens, leading to rapid **intravascular hemolysis**, cytokine release, and activation of the coagulation cascade.
*IgE mediated reaction*
- An **IgE-mediated reaction** (Type I hypersensitivity) typically presents with symptoms like **hives, angioedema, bronchospasm, or anaphylaxis**.
- While transfusion reactions can involve allergic components, the clinical picture of severe hemolysis and DIC points away from a primary IgE-mediated anaphylactic response.
*Deposition of immune complexes*
- **Immune complex deposition** (Type III hypersensitivity) is characteristic of conditions like **serum sickness** or **lupus**.
- These reactions usually manifest hours to days after exposure and typically involve features like **arthritis** or **glomerulonephritis**, which are not seen in this acute scenario.
*Production of leukotrienes*
- **Leukotrienes** are mediators of inflammation and bronchoconstriction, prominently involved in **asthma** and some allergic reactions.
- While they may play a secondary role in the inflammatory response, they are not the primary mechanism initiating an **acute hemolytic transfusion reaction**.
*T lymphocyte reaction*
- **T lymphocyte reactions** are central to **delayed-type hypersensitivity** (Type IV) and **graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)**.
- These reactions have a delayed onset (**days to weeks**) and primarily involve cellular immunity, which does not explain the immediate and severe hemolytic reaction observed.
Question 467: A 61-year-old man presents to the emergency department for the evaluation of polyuria, polydipsia, and confusion. He has a history of the psychiatric disease but is unable to provide additional details. He is admitted to the hospital and his home medications are continued. Routine testing is unrevealing for the etiology of his symptoms. Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is given, but no effect is seen on urine output or urine osmolarity. Which of the following medications could have induced this syndrome?
A. Lithium (Correct Answer)
B. Omeprazole
C. Nafcillin
D. Nitrofurantoin
E. Ranitidine
Explanation: ***Lithium***
- The patient exhibits symptoms of **polyuria, polydipsia, and confusion**, which are classic signs of **nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (NDI)**.
- The lack of response to **desmopressin (DDAVP)** confirms the diagnosis of NDI, and considering his history of psychiatric illness, **lithium** is a well-known cause of drug-induced NDI by interfering with the action of **vasopressin** in the renal tubules.
*Omeprazole*
- **Omeprazole** is a proton pump inhibitor primarily used for conditions like **GERD** and **peptic ulcers**.
- It is not associated with causing nephrogenic diabetes insipidus or significant renal toxicity leading to polyuria and polydipsia.
*Nafcillin*
- **Nafcillin** is a penicillinase-resistant penicillin used to treat staphylococcal infections.
- While it can cause **interstitial nephritis** in rare cases, leading to renal dysfunction, it does not typically induce nephrogenic diabetes insipidus directly or cause severe polyuria and polydipsia in this manner.
*Nitrofurantoin*
- **Nitrofurantoin** is an antibiotic used for urinary tract infections.
- Its main side effects include **gastrointestinal upset**, **pulmonary fibrosis (rare)**, and **peripheral neuropathy**, but it is not associated with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus.
*Ranitidine*
- **Ranitidine** is an H2-receptor antagonist used to reduce stomach acid production.
- It is not known to cause nephrogenic diabetes insipidus or significant renal adverse effects that would manifest as polyuria and polydipsia unresponsive to DDAVP.
Question 468: A 51-year-old woman schedules an appointment with her physician with complaints of upper abdominal pain, nausea, and early satiety for the last 6 months. She has type 1 diabetes for the past 10 years and is on subcutaneous insulin therapy. She complains of occasional heartburn and lost 4.5 kg (10 lb) in the past 6 months without any changes in her diet. The medical history is significant for long QT syndrome. The vital signs include: pulse 74/min, respirations 18/min, temperature 37.7°C (99.9°F), and blood pressure 140/84 mm Hg. Abdominal examination is negative for organomegaly or a palpable mass, but there is a presence of succussion splash. She has slightly decreased vision in both her eyes and fundoscopy reveals diabetic changes in the retina. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy is performed, which is negative for obstruction, but a small ulcer is noted near the cardiac end of the stomach with some food particles. Which of the following drugs would be inappropriate in the management of this patient's condition?
A. Bethanechol
B. Domperidone
C. Erythromycin
D. Promethazine
E. Cisapride (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cisapride***
- Cisapride is a **prokinetic agent** that was largely withdrawn due to its propensity to cause **QT prolongation** and life-threatening arrhythmias, which is critically contraindicated in patients with a history of **long QT syndrome**.
- The patient's history of **long QT syndrome** makes cisapride an inappropriate and dangerous choice for managing her diabetic gastroparesis.
*Bethanechol*
- Bethanechol is a **muscarinic agonist** that can increase gastric motility, but it is not typically first-line for gastroparesis due to potential systemic cholinergic side effects.
- While it aids in stomach emptying, its use must be weighed against its side-effect profile, though it doesn't directly interact with QT interval.
*Domperidone*
- Domperidone is a **dopamine D2 receptor antagonist** that acts as a prokinetic and antiemetic, primarily in the periphery, minimizing central nervous system side effects.
- While generally safer regarding QT prolongation than some other prokinetics, it can still prolong the QT interval in high doses or in susceptible individuals, but less severely than cisapride.
*Erythromycin*
- Erythromycin is a **macrolide antibiotic** that acts as a **motilin receptor agonist**, significantly increasing gastric emptying.
- It's a useful prokinetic for gastroparesis, although long-term use can be limited by antibiotic resistance and potential for **QT prolongation**, though less severe than cisapride.
*Promethazine*
- Promethazine is an **antihistamine** with antiemetic properties, often used for nausea and vomiting, but it is **not a prokinetic agent**.
- It would address the nausea symptomatically but would not improve gastric emptying in a patient with gastroparesis.
Question 469: A 30-year-old man comes to the physician for follow-up evaluation for hypertension. He reports a 1-month history of episodic throbbing headaches, palpitations, and paroxysmal sweating. Blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg. He appears pale but physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory studies show elevated urine and plasma metanephrines. A CT scan of the abdomen shows a mass in the left adrenal gland. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A. Propranolol
B. Phenoxybenzamine (Correct Answer)
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Octreotide
E. Clonidine
Explanation: ***Phenoxybenzamine***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of a **pheochromocytoma** (episodic throbbing headaches, palpitations, paroxysmal sweating, hypertension), confirmed by **elevated metanephrines** and an **adrenal mass**.
- **Alpha-blockade** with phenoxybenzamine is the initial and crucial step for blood pressure control to prevent a **hypertensive crisis** during surgical tumor removal.
*Propranolol*
- **Beta-blockers** like propranolol should only be administered *after* adequate alpha-blockade has been established.
- Giving a beta-blocker first can lead to **unopposed alpha-adrenergic stimulation**, worsening hypertension and potentially causing a hypertensive crisis.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- This is a **thiazide diuretic** used for essential hypertension and is not appropriate for the acute management of a **pheochromocytoma-induced hypertensive crisis**.
- It does not address the underlying catecholamine excess and would be ineffective in preventing a crisis.
*Octreotide*
- **Octreotide** is a somatostatin analog primarily used to treat neuroendocrine tumors like **carcinoid syndrome** or VIPomas.
- It has no role in the management of pheochromocytoma, which arises from chromaffin cells and secretes catecholamines.
*Clonidine*
- **Clonidine** is an **alpha-2 adrenergic agonist** that reduces sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system.
- While it can lower blood pressure, it is not the first-line agent for pheochromocytoma and does not provide the comprehensive, irreversible alpha-blockade needed for surgical preparation.
Question 470: Thirty minutes after vaginal delivery of a 2780-g (6-lb 2-oz) newborn at term, a 25-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, has heavy vaginal bleeding. Her pregnancy was complicated by pre-eclampsia. Her pulse is 111/min and blood pressure is 95/65 mm Hg. Physical examination shows a fundal height 2 inches below the xiphoid process of the sternum. A drug with which of the following mechanisms of action is most appropriate for this patient?
A. Activation of phospholipase C (Correct Answer)
B. Depolarization of the motor end plate
C. Increased synthesis of cyclic AMP
D. Inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake
E. Binding to prostaglandin I2 receptors
Explanation: ***Activation of phospholipase C***
- This patient presents with **postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)**, characterized by heavy vaginal bleeding, tachycardia, hypotension, and a poorly contracted uterus (normal fundal height is at the umbilicus immediately after delivery; 2 inches below the xiphoid is high indicating uterine atony).
- The most appropriate first-line treatment for uterine atony is **oxytocin**, which acts by binding to G protein-coupled receptors, leading to the **activation of phospholipase C** and an increase in intracellular calcium, causing uterine muscle contraction.
*Depolarization of the motor end plate*
- This mechanism describes the action of **neuromuscular blocking agents** or agonists at the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor, which are not used for treating postpartum hemorrhage.
- The motor end plate is involved in skeletal muscle contraction, not smooth muscle contraction of the uterus.
*Increased synthesis of cyclic AMP*
- **Increased cyclic AMP** generally leads to smooth muscle relaxation (e.g., beta-2 agonists like terbutaline), which would worsen uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage.
- Tocolytic agents that would cause uterine relaxation would be contraindicated in this scenario.
*Inhibition of norepinephrine reuptake*
- This mechanism describes the action of certain **antidepressants** (e.g., tricyclic antidepressants, SNRIs) or **stimulants**, which primarily affect the central nervous system and are not used to manage postpartum hemorrhage.
- This action does not directly cause uterine contraction.
*Binding to prostaglandin I2 receptors*
- **Prostaglandin I2 (PGI2)**, also known as prostacyclin, is a potent vasodilator and inhibitor of platelet aggregation. Binding to its receptors would lead to smooth muscle relaxation and would increase bleeding, directly worsening postpartum hemorrhage.
- Uterotonic agents like carboprost (PGF2α analog) act on different prostaglandin receptors to induce uterine contraction.