A 19-year-old male college student is brought to the emergency department by his girlfriend complaining of intense pain. They had been playing outside in the snow when the patient started to have severe hand and feet pain. He says the pain is 9 out of 10 and causing him to have trouble moving his fingers and toes. He also reports some difficulty “catching his breath.” He notes that he has been tiring easily for the past month but thought it was because he was studying and going out late. On physical examination, the patient appears uncomfortable. Bilateral conjunctivae are pale. His hands are swollen and tender to palpation. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. Hemoglobin is 9.0 g/dL. An electrocardiogram shows mild sinus tachycardia. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is performed, which confirms sickle cell disease. The patient’s pain is managed, and he is discharged on hydroxyurea. Which of the following is the most likely to occur as a result of the new medication?
Q412
A 38-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after a motor vehicle collision. He is found to have a broken femur and multiple soft tissue injuries and is admitted to the hospital. During the hospital course, he is found to have lower extremity swelling, redness, and pain, so he is given an infusion of a medication. The intravenous medication is discontinued in favor of an oral medication in preparation for discharge; however, the patient leaves against medical advice prior to receiving the full set of instructions. The next day, the patient is found to have black lesions on his trunk and his leg. The protein involved in this patient's underlying abnormality most likely affects the function of which of the following factors?
Q413
A 61-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of left knee pain and stiffness. Examination of the left knee shows tenderness to palpation along the joint line; there is crepitus with full flexion and extension. An x-ray of the knee shows osteophytes with joint-space narrowing. Arthrocentesis of the knee joint yields clear fluid with a leukocyte count of 120/mm3. Treatment with ibuprofen during the next week significantly improves her condition. The beneficial effect of this drug is most likely due to inhibition of which of the following?
Q414
A 31-year-old female receives a kidney transplant for autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). Three weeks later, the patient experiences acute, T-cell mediated rejection of the allograft and is given sirolimus. Which of the following are side effects of this medication?
Q415
A 29-year-old woman presents to the primary care office for a recent history of falls. She has fallen 5 times over the last year. These falls are not associated with any preceding symptoms; she specifically denies dizziness, lightheadedness, or visual changes. However, she has started noticing that both of her legs feel weak. She's also noticed that her carpet feels strange beneath her bare feet. Her mother and grandmother have a history of similar problems. On physical exam, she has notable leg and foot muscular atrophy and 4/5 strength throughout her bilateral lower extremities. Sensation to light touch and pinprick is decreased up to the mid-calf. Ankle jerk reflex is absent bilaterally. Which of the following is the next best diagnostic test for this patient?
Q416
A 17-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents to clinic with a rash (Image A) that he noticed one week after starting a medication to stabilize his mood. The medication blocks voltage-gated sodium channels and can be used to treat partial simple, partial complex, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Regarding the patient's rash, what is the next step in management?
Q417
A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his parents to the emergency department for lethargy and vomiting. The patient was fine until this afternoon, when his parents found him in the garage with an unlabeled open bottle containing an odorless liquid. On exam, the patient is not alert or oriented, but is responsive to touch and pain. The patient is afebrile and pulse is 90/min, blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, and respirations are 20/min. Which of the following is an antidote for the most likely cause of this patient’s presentation?
Q418
A 27-year-old woman was found lying unconscious on the side of the street by her friend. He immediately called the ambulance who were close to this neighborhood. On initial examination, she appears barely able to breathe. Her pupils are pinpoint. The needles she likely used were found on site but the drug she injected was unknown. The first responders were quick to administer a drug which is effectively used in these situations and her symptoms slowly began to reverse. She was taken to the nearest emergency department for further workup. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the drug administered by the first responders?
Q419
A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a chief complaint of chest pain for the last 3 hours. His ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF and reciprocal segment depression in leads V1–V6. On physical examination, cardiac sounds are normal on auscultation. His blood pressure is 92/64 mm Hg and heart rate is 93/min. A tissue plasminogen activator is administered to the patient intravenously within 1 hour of hospital arrival due to a lack of available percutaneous coronary intervention. After 6 hours of therapy, the patient's clinical condition starts to deteriorate. ECG on the monitor shows accelerated idioventricular rhythm, which within a couple of minutes changes to ventricular fibrillation. Before any measures could be started, the patient deteriorates further and must be transferred to the ICU. What is the most likely etiology of the ECG findings in this patient?
Q420
A 50-year-old male is brought to the dermatologist's office with complaints of a pigmented lesion. The lesion is uniformly dark with clean borders and no asymmetry and has been increasing in size over the past two weeks. He works in construction and spends large portions of his day outside. The dermatologist believes that this mole should be biopsied. To prepare the patient for the biopsy, the dermatologist injects a small amount of lidocaine into the skin around the lesion. Which of the following nerve functions would be the last to be blocked by the lidocaine?
Autonomic/CV Drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 411: A 19-year-old male college student is brought to the emergency department by his girlfriend complaining of intense pain. They had been playing outside in the snow when the patient started to have severe hand and feet pain. He says the pain is 9 out of 10 and causing him to have trouble moving his fingers and toes. He also reports some difficulty “catching his breath.” He notes that he has been tiring easily for the past month but thought it was because he was studying and going out late. On physical examination, the patient appears uncomfortable. Bilateral conjunctivae are pale. His hands are swollen and tender to palpation. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. Hemoglobin is 9.0 g/dL. An electrocardiogram shows mild sinus tachycardia. Hemoglobin electrophoresis is performed, which confirms sickle cell disease. The patient’s pain is managed, and he is discharged on hydroxyurea. Which of the following is the most likely to occur as a result of the new medication?
A. Increase in hemoglobin with higher oxygen affinity
B. Decrease in hemoglobin with higher oxygen affinity
C. Increase in hemoglobin A
D. Decrease in hemoglobin A
E. Increase in fetal hemoglobin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Increase in fetal hemoglobin***
- **Hydroxyurea** stimulates the production of **fetal hemoglobin (HbF)**, which reduces the polymerization of **hemoglobin S (HbS)** and sickling of red blood cells.
- Increased HbF improves red blood cell survival and reduces the frequency of **vaso-occlusive crises** and other complications in **sickle cell disease**.
*Increase in hemoglobin with higher oxygen affinity*
- This option is too vague and does not describe the specific mechanism of hydroxyurea.
- While **HbF** does have higher oxygen affinity than **HbA**, the therapeutic benefit comes specifically from **increasing HbF**, not from a general increase in hemoglobin with higher oxygen affinity.
- The key mechanism is **HbF preventing sickling**, not simply having higher oxygen affinity.
*Decrease in hemoglobin with higher oxygen affinity*
- Hydroxyurea aims to *increase* functional hemoglobin and reduce anemia, not decrease it.
- A *decrease* in total hemoglobin would be detrimental and is not a therapeutic effect of hydroxyurea.
*Increase in hemoglobin A*
- Patients with **sickle cell disease** produce little to no **hemoglobin A (HbA)**, as their beta-globin genes produce **hemoglobin S (HbS)**.
- Hydroxyurea does not induce the production of **HbA**; its mechanism of action is through the upregulation of **HbF**.
*Decrease in hemoglobin A*
- Since patients with **sickle cell disease** already have an absence or very low levels of **hemoglobin A (HbA)**, a further decrease is not a relevant therapeutic effect.
- Hydroxyurea's action is to increase **fetal hemoglobin (HbF)**, which acts as a protective factor against sickling.
Question 412: A 38-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after a motor vehicle collision. He is found to have a broken femur and multiple soft tissue injuries and is admitted to the hospital. During the hospital course, he is found to have lower extremity swelling, redness, and pain, so he is given an infusion of a medication. The intravenous medication is discontinued in favor of an oral medication in preparation for discharge; however, the patient leaves against medical advice prior to receiving the full set of instructions. The next day, the patient is found to have black lesions on his trunk and his leg. The protein involved in this patient's underlying abnormality most likely affects the function of which of the following factors?
A. Factor II only
B. Factors II, VII, IX, and X
C. Factors II and X
D. Factors V and VIII (Correct Answer)
E. Factor V only
Explanation: ***Factors V and VIII***
- The patient's initial presentation of **lower extremity swelling, redness, and pain** after trauma and immobilization is highly suggestive of **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)**, for which he received IV anticoagulation. The subsequent development of **black lesions on his trunk and leg** after switching to an oral anticoagulant and leaving against medical advice points to **warfarin-induced skin necrosis (WISN)**.
- **Warfarin-induced skin necrosis** develops in patients with a congenital deficiency of **protein C** or, less commonly, **protein S**. Protein C, in its activated form (APC), functions to inactivate **Factor V (Va)** and **Factor VIII (VIIIa)**, which are crucial cofactors in the coagulation cascade. A deficiency means these factors remain active, leading to a **procoagulant state**.
*Factor II only*
- **Factor II (prothrombin)** is inactivated by protein C, but a deficiency in protein C primarily affects the inactivation of **Factors V and VIII**, which are the specific targets of activated protein C.
- While factor II is part of the coagulation cascade, its regulation is not the primary mechanism by which protein C deficiency leads to the hypercoagulable state seen in WISN.
*Factors II, VII, IX, and X*
- These factors are **vitamin K-dependent coagulation factors**, which are inhibited by warfarin. While a deficiency in protein C can lead to an initial hypercoagulable state when warfarin is started (due to the faster drop in protein C levels compared to these factors), the primary function of protein C is to inactivate **Factors V and VIII**.
- The problem described is a **protein C deficiency**, which specifically impacts the inactivation of factors V and VIII, not directly these other vitamin K-dependent factors.
*Factors II and X*
- Similar to Factor II only, these are **vitamin K-dependent factors** inhibited by warfarin. The core issue in warfarin-induced skin necrosis is a deficiency in protein C, which normally inactivates **Factors V and VIII**, leading to a transient prothrombotic state.
- While Factor X is affected by warfarin, the direct regulatory role of protein C is predominantly on factors V and VIII.
*Factor V only*
- While **Factor V** is indeed a target of activated protein C inactivation, **Factor VIII** is also a critical target. Inactivating both **Factor V** and **Factor VIII** is essential for effective anticoagulation by protein C.
- A deficiency in protein C affects both of these crucial cofactors, making the combined option more accurate.
Question 413: A 61-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of left knee pain and stiffness. Examination of the left knee shows tenderness to palpation along the joint line; there is crepitus with full flexion and extension. An x-ray of the knee shows osteophytes with joint-space narrowing. Arthrocentesis of the knee joint yields clear fluid with a leukocyte count of 120/mm3. Treatment with ibuprofen during the next week significantly improves her condition. The beneficial effect of this drug is most likely due to inhibition of which of the following?
A. Conversion of hypoxanthine to urate
B. Conversion of phospholipids to arachidonic acid
C. Conversion of prostaglandin H2 to thromboxane A2
D. Conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandin G2 (Correct Answer)
E. Conversion of dihydroorotate to orotate
Explanation: ***Conversion of arachidonic acid to prostaglandin G2***
- This patient presents with symptoms and signs consistent with **osteoarthritis**, characterized by joint pain, stiffness, crepitus, and radiographic findings like **osteophytes** and **joint-space narrowing**.
- **Ibuprofen is a non-selective NSAID** that inhibits **cyclooxygenase (COX-1 and COX-2) enzymes**, which catalyze the conversion of **arachidonic acid to prostaglandin G2 (PGG2)**, the first committed step in prostaglandin synthesis.
- By blocking prostaglandin production, ibuprofen reduces inflammation and pain associated with osteoarthritis.
*Conversion of hypoxanthine to urate*
- This process is catalyzed by **xanthine oxidase** and is inhibited by medications like **allopurinol**, used in the treatment of **gout** to reduce uric acid levels.
- Gout typically presents with acute, severe joint pain with signs of inflammation and monosodium urate crystals on joint aspiration, which are not characteristic of this patient's presentation.
*Conversion of phospholipids to arachidonic acid*
- This step is catalyzed by **phospholipase A2**, which is inhibited by **glucocorticoids** (via lipocortin induction).
- While glucocorticoids have potent anti-inflammatory effects by working upstream of the arachidonic acid cascade, ibuprofen has a different mechanism targeting the COX enzymes downstream.
*Conversion of prostaglandin H2 to thromboxane A2*
- This reaction is catalyzed by **thromboxane synthase**, primarily important in platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction.
- NSAIDs like ibuprofen do not specifically inhibit thromboxane synthase; rather, they inhibit COX enzymes upstream, which reduces production of both prostaglandins and thromboxanes.
- Low-dose aspirin preferentially inhibits COX-1 in platelets, reducing thromboxane A2 for cardioprotection, but this is not ibuprofen's primary therapeutic mechanism in osteoarthritis.
*Conversion of dihydroorotate to orotate*
- This is a step in **pyrimidine synthesis**, inhibited by **leflunomide**, a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) used in rheumatoid arthritis.
- This mechanism is unrelated to the action of NSAIDs or the treatment of osteoarthritis.
Question 414: A 31-year-old female receives a kidney transplant for autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD). Three weeks later, the patient experiences acute, T-cell mediated rejection of the allograft and is given sirolimus. Which of the following are side effects of this medication?
A. Nephrotoxicity, hypertension
B. Hyperlipidemia, thrombocytopenia (Correct Answer)
C. Nephrotoxicity, gingival hyperplasia
D. Pancreatitis
E. Cytokine release syndrome, hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation: ***Hyperlipidemia, thrombocytopenia***
- **Sirolimus** (rapamycin) is an **mTOR inhibitor** commonly used in transplant immunology, which frequently causes **hyperlipidemia** (elevated cholesterol and triglycerides) and **thrombocytopenia** (low platelet count).
- Other common side effects include **myelosuppression** (leukopenia, anemia), **mouth ulcers**, and **impaired wound healing**.
*Nephrotoxicity, hypertension*
- **Nephrotoxicity** and **hypertension** are more characteristic side effects of **calcineurin inhibitors** like **tacrolimus** and **cyclosporine**, which are also used in transplant immunosuppression but have a different mechanism of action than sirolimus.
- While sirolimus can indirectly affect kidney function, it is generally considered less nephrotoxic than calcineurin inhibitors.
*Nephrotoxicity, gingival hyperplasia*
- **Gingival hyperplasia** is a hallmark side effect of **cyclosporine**, a calcineurin inhibitor, along with **hirsutism** and **nephrotoxicity**.
- Sirolimus does not typically cause gingival hyperplasia.
*Pancreatitis*
- While some immunosuppressants can rarely cause pancreatitis, it is not a common or characteristic side effect of **sirolimus**.
- **Azathioprine** is more frequently associated with pancreatitis among immunosuppressive agents.
*Cytokine release syndrome, hypersensitivity reaction*
- **Cytokine release syndrome** and acute **hypersensitivity reactions** are more often associated with **monoclonal antibodies** (e.g., **basiliximab**, **daclizumab**) used for induction therapy or treatment of acute rejection, particularly within hours or days of administration.
- Sirolimus is less likely to cause these immediate severe reactions.
Question 415: A 29-year-old woman presents to the primary care office for a recent history of falls. She has fallen 5 times over the last year. These falls are not associated with any preceding symptoms; she specifically denies dizziness, lightheadedness, or visual changes. However, she has started noticing that both of her legs feel weak. She's also noticed that her carpet feels strange beneath her bare feet. Her mother and grandmother have a history of similar problems. On physical exam, she has notable leg and foot muscular atrophy and 4/5 strength throughout her bilateral lower extremities. Sensation to light touch and pinprick is decreased up to the mid-calf. Ankle jerk reflex is absent bilaterally. Which of the following is the next best diagnostic test for this patient?
A. MRI brain
B. Ankle-brachial index
C. Electromyography (including nerve conduction studies) (Correct Answer)
D. Lumbar puncture
E. Hemoglobin A1c
Explanation: ***Electromyography (including nerve conduction studies)***
- The patient's symptoms of **progressive weakness**, **sensory deficits** (carpet feels strange, decreased sensation up to mid-calf), **muscular atrophy**, and **absent ankle reflexes**, along with a **family history**, are highly suggestive of a **hereditary peripheral neuropathy** (e.g., Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease).
- **Electromyography (EMG)** and **nerve conduction studies (NCS)** are essential for confirming peripheral neuropathy, differentiating between demyelinating and axonal involvement, and localizing the lesion.
*MRI brain*
- An MRI brain would be indicated for central nervous system pathology, but the patient's symptoms (distal weakness, sensory loss with a "stocking-glove" distribution, absent reflexes) are highly suggestive of a **peripheral neuropathy**.
- There is no indication of upper motor neuron signs or other CNS involvement to warrant a brain MRI at this stage.
*Ankle-brachial index*
- Ankle-brachial index (ABI) is used to diagnose **peripheral artery disease (PAD)**, which typically presents with claudication (pain with exertion) and ischemic changes.
- The patient's symptoms of sensory changes and progressive weakness are not characteristic of PAD.
*Lumbar puncture*
- A lumbar puncture is primarily used to analyze **cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)** for inflammatory, infectious, or neoplastic conditions affecting the CNS or nerve roots (e.g., Guillain-Barré syndrome, which has acute onset).
- Given the chronic and progressive nature of her symptoms and a positive family history, it is less likely to be an acute inflammatory process of the nerve roots.
*Hemoglobin A1c*
- Hemoglobin A1c is used to screen for or monitor **diabetes mellitus**, which can cause a **diabetic neuropathy**.
- While diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, the patient's young age, lack of typical diabetic risk factors, and strong family history point more strongly towards a hereditary condition. Glycemic control does not fully explain her presentation.
Question 416: A 17-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder presents to clinic with a rash (Image A) that he noticed one week after starting a medication to stabilize his mood. The medication blocks voltage-gated sodium channels and can be used to treat partial simple, partial complex, and generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Regarding the patient's rash, what is the next step in management?
A. Begin a short course of oral steroids and continue the drug as directed
B. Immediately discontinue the drug (Correct Answer)
C. Decrease the dose by 50% and continue
D. Reassure the patient that it is normal to have a rash in the first week and to continue the drug as directed
E. Begin diphenhydramine and continue the drug as directed
Explanation: ***Immediately discontinue the drug***
- The rash described, occurring one week after starting a new antiepileptic medication that blocks voltage-gated sodium channels (e.g., **lamotrigine**), is highly suspicious for **Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS)** or **toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN)**, even if mild initially.
- SJS/TEN are potentially life-threatening mucocutaneous reactions requiring immediate cessation of the causative drug to prevent progression.
*Begin a short course of oral steroids and continue the drug as directed*
- Continuing the causative drug in the presence of a suspected severe cutaneous adverse reaction like SJS/TEN is contraindicated and could worsen the condition.
- While steroids might be used as an adjunct in some severe cases of drug-induced rash, they do not replace the critical step of drug discontinuation.
*Decrease the dose by 50% and continue*
- Dose reduction is inappropriate for a suspected severe cutaneous reaction like SJS/TEN as it does not eliminate the trigger and the reaction may still progress.
- The offending drug must be completely withdrawn.
*Reassure the patient that it is normal to have a rash in the first week and to continue the drug as directed*
- Not all rashes are benign, especially those associated with drugs like lamotrigine which are known to cause severe cutaneous adverse reactions.
- Reassurance without proper evaluation and discontinuation could lead to a rapid and severe progression of the rash, posing a significant risk to the patient's life.
*Begin diphenhydramine and continue the drug as directed*
- Diphenhydramine (an antihistamine) might alleviate mild itching from a benign rash, but it does not address the underlying immunological mechanism of a severe drug reaction.
- Prescribing an antihistamine while continuing the causative drug for a suspicious rash is dangerous as it ignores the potential for severe adverse drug reactions like SJS/TEN.
Question 417: A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his parents to the emergency department for lethargy and vomiting. The patient was fine until this afternoon, when his parents found him in the garage with an unlabeled open bottle containing an odorless liquid. On exam, the patient is not alert or oriented, but is responsive to touch and pain. The patient is afebrile and pulse is 90/min, blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, and respirations are 20/min. Which of the following is an antidote for the most likely cause of this patient’s presentation?
A. Glucagon
B. Epinephrine
C. Fomepizole (Correct Answer)
D. Succimer
E. Sodium bicarbonate
Explanation: ***Fomepizole***
- The patient's presentation with **lethargy**, **vomiting**, and altered mental status after unsupervised access to an **unlabeled, odorless liquid** highly suggests **toxic alcohol ingestion** (e.g., ethylene glycol or methanol).
- **Fomepizole** is a competitive inhibitor of **alcohol dehydrogenase**, preventing the metabolism of toxic alcohols into their highly toxic acid metabolites (oxalic acid, formic acid), thus reducing organ damage.
*Glucagon*
- **Glucagon** is primarily used to treat severe **hypoglycemia**, especially in patients who cannot tolerate oral glucose or if intravenous access is difficult.
- It is also indicated in the management of **beta-blocker overdose** to bypass beta-adrenergic receptors and increase cardiac contractility.
*Epinephrine*
- **Epinephrine** is a potent **vasopressor** and bronchodilator used in emergencies such as **anaphylaxis**, **cardiac arrest**, and severe asthma exacerbations.
- It works by stimulating alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors, leading to vasoconstriction, increased heart rate, and bronchodilation.
*Succimer*
- **Succimer** is a **chelating agent** primarily used in the treatment of **lead poisoning** in children with blood lead levels above a certain threshold.
- It binds to lead ions, forming a stable complex that can be excreted in the urine.
*Sodium bicarbonate*
- **Sodium bicarbonate** is used to correct **metabolic acidosis**, which can occur in various conditions, including severe sepsis, diabetic ketoacidosis, and certain poisonings (e.g., salicylates, tricyclic antidepressants).
- While toxic alcohol ingestion can cause metabolic acidosis, sodium bicarbonate addresses the acidosis itself, not the underlying toxic alcohol metabolism, for which fomepizole is the specific antidote.
Question 418: A 27-year-old woman was found lying unconscious on the side of the street by her friend. He immediately called the ambulance who were close to this neighborhood. On initial examination, she appears barely able to breathe. Her pupils are pinpoint. The needles she likely used were found on site but the drug she injected was unknown. The first responders were quick to administer a drug which is effectively used in these situations and her symptoms slowly began to reverse. She was taken to the nearest emergency department for further workup. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the drug administered by the first responders?
A. Alpha 2 receptor agonist
B. Delta receptor antagonist
C. Kappa receptor pure agonist
D. NMDA receptor antagonist
E. Mu receptor antagonist (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Mu receptor antagonist***
- The patient's symptoms (unconsciousness, barely breathing, pinpoint pupils) are classic for **opioid overdose**, which primarily acts on **mu opioid receptors**.
- **Naloxone**, an opioid antagonist, is the drug of choice in such emergencies, reversing the effects by blocking opioid binding at the **mu receptor**.
*Alpha 2 receptor agonist*
- Alpha-2 receptor agonists like **clonidine** are used to treat **hypertension** and **opioid withdrawal symptoms**, not acute overdose.
- They cause **sedation** and **reduced sympathetic outflow**, which would worsen the patient's respiratory depression in an overdose.
*Delta receptor antagonist*
- While delta opioid receptors are involved in pain modulation, **delta receptor antagonists** are not the primary treatment for acute opioid overdose.
- Their role in reversing respiratory depression caused by mu-agonist opioids is limited compared to mu-receptor antagonists.
*Kappa receptor pure agonist*
- Kappa receptor agonists like **butorphanol** or **nalbuphine** can provide **analgesia** but can also cause **respiratory depression** and **sedation**.
- Administering a kappa agonist would exacerbate the patient's overdose symptoms rather than reversing them.
*NMDA receptor antagonist*
- **NMDA receptor antagonists** (e.g., ketamine, phencyclidine) have dissociative anesthetic and analgesic properties.
- They are not used to treat opioid overdose; their mechanism of action is unrelated to opioid receptors and their overdose symptoms differ.
Question 419: A 40-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a chief complaint of chest pain for the last 3 hours. His ECG shows normal sinus rhythm with ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF and reciprocal segment depression in leads V1–V6. On physical examination, cardiac sounds are normal on auscultation. His blood pressure is 92/64 mm Hg and heart rate is 93/min. A tissue plasminogen activator is administered to the patient intravenously within 1 hour of hospital arrival due to a lack of available percutaneous coronary intervention. After 6 hours of therapy, the patient's clinical condition starts to deteriorate. ECG on the monitor shows accelerated idioventricular rhythm, which within a couple of minutes changes to ventricular fibrillation. Before any measures could be started, the patient deteriorates further and must be transferred to the ICU. What is the most likely etiology of the ECG findings in this patient?
A. Increase in cellular pH
B. Inhibition of lipid peroxidation
C. Free radical formation (Correct Answer)
D. Calcium efflux
E. Increased production of superoxide dismutase
Explanation: ***Free radical formation***
- **Reperfusion injury**, characterized by **free radical formation**, often involves the generation of **reactive oxygen species** upon the restoration of blood flow to ischemic tissue.
- These free radicals cause significant cellular damage, contributing to the deterioration seen in this patient after successful thrombolysis.
*Increase in cellular pH*
- Ischemic tissue typically experiences a decrease in cellular pH due to the accumulation of **lactic acid** from anaerobic metabolism.
- Upon reperfusion, while some buffering occurs, a significant increase in cellular pH *above normal* is not the primary mechanism of reperfusion injury.
*Inhibition of lipid peroxidation*
- **Lipid peroxidation** is a process by which free radicals attack membrane lipids, leading to cell damage.
- Inhibition of lipid peroxidation would *protect* against reperfusion injury, not cause the deterioration observed in this patient.
*Calcium efflux*
- During ischemia and reperfusion, there is typically an *influx* of **calcium** into cells, leading to **calcium overload** and contributing to cell damage.
- **Calcium efflux** (movement out of the cell) would generally be protective or indicates a different pathological process.
*Increased production of superoxide dismutase*
- **Superoxide dismutase (SOD)** is an important **antioxidant enzyme** that neutralizes superoxide radicals.
- Therefore, increased production of SOD would *protect* against free radical damage and reperfusion injury, rather than causing clinical deterioration.
Question 420: A 50-year-old male is brought to the dermatologist's office with complaints of a pigmented lesion. The lesion is uniformly dark with clean borders and no asymmetry and has been increasing in size over the past two weeks. He works in construction and spends large portions of his day outside. The dermatologist believes that this mole should be biopsied. To prepare the patient for the biopsy, the dermatologist injects a small amount of lidocaine into the skin around the lesion. Which of the following nerve functions would be the last to be blocked by the lidocaine?
A. Pain
B. Touch
C. Temperature
D. Sympathetic stimulation
E. Pressure (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pressure***
- **Pressure** sensation is mediated by **Aβ fibers**, which are relatively **larger** and **myelinated**, making them more resistant to local anesthetic blockade.
- Nerve fibers are blocked in a specific order, typically starting with smaller, unmyelinated fibers and ending with larger, myelinated fibers.
*Pain*
- **Pain** sensation is primarily carried by **unmyelinated C fibers** and **small myelinated Aδ fibers**, which are among the **first to be blocked** by local anesthetics.
- These fibers have a **high surface-to-volume ratio**, making them more susceptible to the action of lidocaine.
*Touch*
- **Touch** sensation is mediated by a mix of **Aβ and Aδ fibers**; light touch is typically blocked relatively early due to the involvement of smaller fibers.
- However, **crude touch** often persists longer than pain and temperature but is usually blocked before pressure.
*Temperature*
- **Temperature** sensation is primarily carried by **Aδ and C fibers**, making it one of the **earliest sensations to be blocked** by local anesthetic.
- These fibers are generally small and have high sensitivity to local anesthetic agents.
*Sympathetic stimulation*
- **Sympathetic nerve fibers** are typically **small, unmyelinated C fibers** and are generally the **first to be blocked** by local anesthetics.
- This early blockade can lead to **vasodilation** in the area due to the loss of sympathetic tone.