A 65-year-old woman is transferred to the intensive care unit after she underwent coronary stenting for a posterior-inferior STEMI. She is known to have allergies to amiodarone and captopril. A few hours after the transfer, she suddenly loses consciousness. The monitor shows ventricular fibrillation. CPR is initiated. After 3 consecutive shocks with a defibrillator, the monitor shows ventricular fibrillation. Which of the following medications should be administered next?
Q342
A 62-year-old man presents to his geriatrician due to waking several times during the night and also rising too early in the morning. He says this has worsened over the past 7 months. In the morning, he feels unrefreshed and tired. His medical history is positive for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. He has never been a smoker. He denies drinking alcohol or caffeine prior to bedtime. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 36.6°C (97.8°F), blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, and heart rate of 77/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. After discussing good sleep hygiene with the patient, which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient’s condition?
Q343
An ECG from an 8-year-old male with neurosensory deafness and a family history of sudden cardiac arrest demonstrates QT-interval prolongation. Which of the following is this patient most at risk of developing?
Q344
A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department from hospice. The patient has been complaining of worsening pain over the past few days and states that it is no longer bearable. The patient has a past medical history of pancreatic cancer which is being managed in hospice. The patient desires no "heroic measures" to be made with regards to treatment and resuscitation. His temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 107/68 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals an uncomfortable elderly man who experiences severe pain upon abdominal palpation. Laboratory values reveal signs of renal failure, liver failure, and anemia. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q345
A 58-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of vaginal dryness and pain during sexual intercourse with her husband. Four months ago, she was diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer and is currently undergoing chemotherapy. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 15 years but quit when she was diagnosed with breast cancer. Physical examination shows thinning of the vaginal mucosa. A dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) study of her hip shows a T-score of -2.6. Six months ago, her T-score was -1.6. Which of the following drugs is most likely exacerbating this patient's symptoms?
Q346
A 26-year-old G1P0 presents to her first obstetric visit after having a positive urine pregnancy test at home. Her last menstrual period was 9 weeks ago. She has no past medical history, but her mother has rheumatoid arthritis. The patient states that for several weeks, she has felt especially warm, even when her co-workers do not, and had muscle weakness. She also complains of mood swings and fatigue. At this visit, her temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 140/81 mmHg, pulse is 106/min, and respirations are 17/min. Physical exam is notable for 3+ deep tendon reflexes bilaterally and 4/5 strength in both hips and shoulders. Ultrasound confirms the presence of a heart beat and shows a crown rump length that is consistent with a gestational age of 9 weeks and 3 days. Which of the following is the best therapy for this patient?
Q347
A 69-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by his daughter due to confusion. She reports that her father did not remember who she was yesterday, and his refrigerator was completely empty when she tried to make him lunch. She states that he was acting like himself when she visited him last week. She also notes that he has struggled with alcoholism for many years and has not seen a doctor in over two decades. She is unsure if he has any other chronic medical conditions. In the emergency room, the patient’s temperature is 101.2°F (38.4°C), pulse is 103/min, respirations are 22/min, and O2 saturation is 92% on room air. His BMI is 17.1 kg/m^2. Physical exam reveals an extremely thin and frail man who is not oriented to person, place, or time. As he is being examined, he becomes unresponsive and desaturates to 84%. He is intubated and admitted to the intensive care unit for what is found to be pneumonia, and the patient is started on total parental nutrition as he is sedated and has a history of aspiration from a prior hospitalization. Two days later, physical exam is notable for new peripheral edema. Laboratory tests at that time reveal the following:
Serum:
Na+: 133 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 2.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 22 mg/dL
Glucose: 124 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Phosphate: 1.1 mg/dL
Mg2+: 1.0 mg/dL
Which of the following could have prevented the complication seen in this patient?
Q348
A 60-year-old patient is at his physician’s office for a routine health maintenance exam. The patient has a past medical history of osteoarthritis in his right knee and GERD that is well-controlled with over the counter medication. On a fasting lipid profile, he is found to have high cholesterol. The patient is started on daily atorvastatin to reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease. What is the major apolipoprotein found on the lipoprotein most directly affected by his statin medication?
Q349
A new drug X is being tested for its effect on renal function. During the experiments, the researchers found that in patients taking substance X, the urinary concentration of sodium decreases while urine potassium concentration increase. Which of the following affects the kidneys in the same way as does substance X?
Q350
A 7-year-old girl presents with a low-grade fever, lethargy, and fatigue for the past week. The patient’s mother says she also complains of leg pain for the past couple of weeks. No significant past medical history. The patient was born at term via spontaneous transvaginal delivery with no complications. On physical examination, the patient shows generalized pallor. Cervical lymphadenopathy is present. A bone marrow biopsy is performed which confirms the diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). The patient is started on a chemotherapy regimen consisting of vincristine, daunorubicin, L-asparaginase, and prednisolone for induction, followed by intrathecal methotrexate for maintenance. Following the 4th cycle of chemotherapy, she develops bilateral ptosis. Physical examination shows a normal pupillary reflex and eye movements. She is started on pyridoxine and pyridostigmine, and, in 7 days, she has complete resolution of the ptosis. Which of the following drugs is most likely associated with this patient’s adverse reaction?
Autonomic/CV Drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 341: A 65-year-old woman is transferred to the intensive care unit after she underwent coronary stenting for a posterior-inferior STEMI. She is known to have allergies to amiodarone and captopril. A few hours after the transfer, she suddenly loses consciousness. The monitor shows ventricular fibrillation. CPR is initiated. After 3 consecutive shocks with a defibrillator, the monitor shows ventricular fibrillation. Which of the following medications should be administered next?
A. Adrenaline and lidocaine (Correct Answer)
B. Lidocaine and sotalol
C. Adrenaline and verapamil
D. Adrenaline and amiodarone
E. Amiodarone and lidocaine
Explanation: ***Adrenaline and lidocaine***
- **Adrenaline (epinephrine)** is the standard vasopressor in ACLS for cardiac arrest, given at 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes to increase coronary and cerebral perfusion pressures, improving the chances of return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC).
- **Lidocaine** is the recommended alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory ventricular fibrillation when **amiodarone is contraindicated** (as in this patient with documented amiodarone allergy).
- Per **ACLS guidelines**, after failed defibrillation attempts, continue CPR, administer epinephrine, and give an antiarrhythmic agent (lidocaine 1-1.5 mg/kg when amiodarone cannot be used).
*Lidocaine and sotalol*
- **Lidocaine** is appropriate as an antiarrhythmic in refractory VF when amiodarone is contraindicated.
- However, this option omits **epinephrine (adrenaline)**, which is a critical vasopressor required during cardiac arrest per ACLS protocols.
- **Sotalol** is a beta-blocker with Class III antiarrhythmic properties, but it is not recommended for acute management of refractory VF in cardiac arrest.
*Adrenaline and verapamil*
- **Adrenaline** is indicated as the vasopressor for cardiac arrest.
- **Verapamil** is a calcium channel blocker used for supraventricular arrhythmias; it is **contraindicated in ventricular fibrillation** due to negative inotropic effects and peripheral vasodilation that can worsen hemodynamic collapse during cardiac arrest.
*Adrenaline and amiodarone*
- While **adrenaline** is indicated and **amiodarone** would typically be the preferred antiarrhythmic for refractory VF, this patient has a **documented allergy to amiodarone**, making it contraindicated.
- Lidocaine must be used as the alternative antiarrhythmic agent.
*Amiodarone and lidocaine*
- **Lidocaine** is appropriate in this scenario.
- However, **amiodarone is contraindicated** due to the patient's known allergy.
- This combination would be dangerous and violates basic principles of avoiding known allergens.
Question 342: A 62-year-old man presents to his geriatrician due to waking several times during the night and also rising too early in the morning. He says this has worsened over the past 7 months. In the morning, he feels unrefreshed and tired. His medical history is positive for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. He has never been a smoker. He denies drinking alcohol or caffeine prior to bedtime. Vital signs reveal a temperature of 36.6°C (97.8°F), blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, and heart rate of 77/min. Physical examination is unremarkable. After discussing good sleep hygiene with the patient, which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient’s condition?
A. Cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I) (Correct Answer)
B. Melatonin supplementation
C. Referral to sleep medicine specialist
D. Polysomnography
E. Zolpidem
Explanation: ***Cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I)***
- CBT-I is the **first-line treatment** for chronic insomnia according to the American Academy of Sleep Medicine and American College of Physicians guidelines
- After addressing sleep hygiene (already done), CBT-I is the recommended next step before considering pharmacotherapy
- CBT-I has **durable benefits** without the risks of medications, particularly important in elderly patients
- Components include sleep restriction, stimulus control, cognitive restructuring, and relaxation techniques
- In elderly patients, CBT-I avoids medication-related risks such as **falls, cognitive impairment, and dependence**
*Zolpidem*
- While hypnotics like zolpidem may provide short-term symptom relief, they are **not first-line therapy** for chronic insomnia
- The American Geriatrics Society **Beers Criteria** lists benzodiazepines and Z-drugs (including zolpidem) as potentially inappropriate medications in older adults due to increased risk of **falls, fractures, cognitive impairment, and delirium**
- Hypnotics should be reserved for situations where CBT-I is unavailable, ineffective, or when used as a short-term adjunct while implementing behavioral therapy
- If used, they should be prescribed at the **lowest effective dose for the shortest duration**
*Melatonin supplementation*
- Melatonin is most helpful for **circadian rhythm disorders** (e.g., delayed sleep phase syndrome) or **jet lag**
- Limited evidence supports its effectiveness for chronic insomnia with sleep maintenance problems (frequent awakenings and early morning awakening) in elderly patients
- May have a role in patients with documented melatonin deficiency or specific circadian disorders
*Referral to sleep medicine specialist*
- Appropriate if initial interventions (sleep hygiene, CBT-I, limited pharmacotherapy trial) fail
- Indicated when suspecting **primary sleep disorders** such as obstructive sleep apnea, restless legs syndrome, or periodic limb movement disorder
- Not the immediate next step for straightforward chronic insomnia presentation after sleep hygiene counseling
*Polysomnography*
- Polysomnography (sleep study) is indicated when there is clinical suspicion of **sleep-disordered breathing** (sleep apnea), **narcolepsy**, **REM sleep behavior disorder**, or **periodic limb movement disorder**
- This patient's presentation (sleep maintenance insomnia with frequent awakenings and early morning awakening) is most consistent with **primary insomnia**, not a parasomnia or sleep-disordered breathing
- Red flags for sleep apnea (witnessed apneas, loud snoring, gasping, excessive daytime sleepiness, obesity) are absent
- Polysomnography is **not routinely indicated** for the diagnosis of chronic insomnia
Question 343: An ECG from an 8-year-old male with neurosensory deafness and a family history of sudden cardiac arrest demonstrates QT-interval prolongation. Which of the following is this patient most at risk of developing?
A. Hypertrophic cardiac myopathy
B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Essential hypertension
D. Torsades de pointes (Correct Answer)
E. First degree atrioventricular block
Explanation: ***Torsades de pointes***
- The combination of **neurosensory deafness**, **QT-interval prolongation**, and a family history of **sudden cardiac arrest** is highly suggestive of **Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome**, a form of **long QT syndrome**.
- Patients with long QT syndrome are at significant risk for developing **polymorphic ventricular tachycardia** known as **Torsades de pointes**, which can degenerate into **ventricular fibrillation** and cause sudden cardiac death.
*Hypertrophic cardiac myopathy*
- This condition involves thickening of the **ventricular walls** and is associated with outflow tract obstruction, not primarily with QT prolongation.
- While it can cause sudden cardiac arrest, it typically presents with symptoms like **dyspnea, chest pain**, or syncope during exertion, and its ECG findings usually include **left ventricular hypertrophy** and **deep Q waves**.
*Cardiac tamponade*
- **Cardiac tamponade** results from the accumulation of fluid in the **pericardial sac**, compressing the heart and impairing its filling.
- This condition is not related to **QT prolongation** or **sensorineural deafness** and would present with signs of **hemodynamic instability**, such as **pulsus paradoxus** and muffled heart sounds.
*Essential hypertension*
- **Essential hypertension** is chronic high blood pressure with no identifiable secondary cause, commonly affecting adults.
- It is not associated with **congenital neurosensory deafness** or significant **QT-interval prolongation** in childhood.
*First degree atrioventricular block*
- **First-degree AV block** is characterized by a prolonged **PR interval** on ECG, indicating delayed conduction through the AV node.
- While it's an electrical abnormality, it is distinct from **QT prolongation** and is not typically associated with **neurosensory deafness** or the same risk of sudden cardiac arrest as long QT syndrome.
Question 344: A 72-year-old man is brought to the emergency department from hospice. The patient has been complaining of worsening pain over the past few days and states that it is no longer bearable. The patient has a past medical history of pancreatic cancer which is being managed in hospice. The patient desires no "heroic measures" to be made with regards to treatment and resuscitation. His temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 107/68 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, respirations are 22/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals an uncomfortable elderly man who experiences severe pain upon abdominal palpation. Laboratory values reveal signs of renal failure, liver failure, and anemia. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Ketorolac and fentanyl
B. Ketorolac
C. Morphine (Correct Answer)
D. No intervention warranted
E. Morphine and fentanyl patch
Explanation: ***Morphine***
- This patient is in **hospice** with **acute, unbearable pain** requiring **immediate relief** in the emergency department. **Intravenous or subcutaneous morphine** is the **best next step** as it provides **rapid onset of analgesia** (within 5-10 minutes for IV, 15-30 minutes for SC).
- In the **ED setting**, the priority is to achieve **immediate pain control** for this acute exacerbation. Once stabilized, a comprehensive long-acting regimen can be coordinated with hospice, but the question asks for the **best next step**, which is immediate-acting opioid administration.
- Morphine is appropriate despite renal failure in end-of-life care where **comfort is the primary goal**. Doses may need adjustment, but pain relief takes precedence in hospice patients.
*Ketorolac and fentanyl*
- **Ketorolac (NSAID)** is **contraindicated** in patients with **renal failure** and carries risk of **gastrointestinal bleeding**, especially concerning in advanced cancer with anemia.
- While fentanyl is appropriate for pain management, a **fentanyl patch** takes **12-24 hours** to reach therapeutic levels and is unsuitable for **acute pain** requiring immediate relief.
*Ketorolac*
- **Ketorolac (NSAID)** is contraindicated due to **renal failure** and would be insufficient for severe cancer-related pain.
- NSAIDs are generally avoided in hospice patients with multi-organ dysfunction and do not provide adequate analgesia for unbearable pain.
*Morphine and fentanyl patch*
- While this represents a comprehensive pain management approach, it is **not the best next step** in the **emergency department** for **acute pain**.
- **Fentanyl patches** have a **delayed onset** (12-24 hours to reach steady state) and are designed for **chronic, stable pain management**, not acute exacerbations.
- The immediate priority is rapid pain relief with short-acting opioids; long-acting formulations should be coordinated with hospice after acute stabilization.
*No intervention warranted*
- This is **unethical and inappropriate** given the patient's explicit complaint of unbearable pain.
- **Comfort and symptom management** are the primary objectives of hospice care, making pain relief an absolute necessity.
Question 345: A 58-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of vaginal dryness and pain during sexual intercourse with her husband. Four months ago, she was diagnosed with metastatic breast cancer and is currently undergoing chemotherapy. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 15 years but quit when she was diagnosed with breast cancer. Physical examination shows thinning of the vaginal mucosa. A dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) study of her hip shows a T-score of -2.6. Six months ago, her T-score was -1.6. Which of the following drugs is most likely exacerbating this patient's symptoms?
A. Paclitaxel
B. Exemestane (Correct Answer)
C. Tamoxifen
D. Palbociclib
E. Raloxifene
Explanation: **Exemestane**
- This patient's symptoms of **vaginal dryness**, **dyspareunia**, and **accelerated bone loss (T-score decrease from -1.6 to -2.6)** are consistent with **estrogen deficiency**. Exemestane is an **aromatase inhibitor** that potently blocks peripheral estrogen synthesis, leading to profound estrogen deprivation and exacerbating these symptoms.
- As a **postmenopausal woman** with **estrogen receptor-positive breast cancer**, aromatase inhibitors like exemestane are commonly used as adjuvant therapy.
*Paclitaxel*
- **Paclitaxel** is a **microtubule inhibitor** used in chemotherapy, but it primarily causes side effects such as **neuropathy**, **myelosuppression**, and **alopecia**, not direct exacerbation of estrogen-deficiency symptoms.
- While chemotherapy can induce ovarian suppression in premenopausal women, this patient is likely postmenopausal given her age and presentation, and paclitaxel itself does not directly mediate estrogen deprivation to this extent.
*Tamoxifen*
- **Tamoxifen** is a **selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)**. In postmenopausal women, it acts as an **estrogen antagonist** in breast tissue but can be an **estrogen agonist in the bone and endometrium**, providing some protective effects against bone loss.
- While it can cause some vaginal dryness, it is **less likely to cause significant bone density loss** compared to aromatase inhibitors, and often even has beneficial effects on BMD.
*Palbociclib*
- **Palbociclib** is a **CDK4/6 inhibitor** used in combination with endocrine therapy for advanced breast cancer. Its primary side effects include **myelosuppression (neutropenia)** and fatigue.
- It does not directly impact estrogen levels or bone metabolism to cause vaginal atrophy and accelerated bone loss.
*Raloxifene*
- **Raloxifene** is also a **SERM** that acts as an **estrogen antagonist in breast tissue** and an **estrogen agonist in bone**, meaning it would typically improve or stabilize bone mineral density, not cause accelerated bone loss.
- It is often used for the prevention and treatment of **osteoporosis in postmenopausal women** and for the reduction of invasive breast cancer risk.
Question 346: A 26-year-old G1P0 presents to her first obstetric visit after having a positive urine pregnancy test at home. Her last menstrual period was 9 weeks ago. She has no past medical history, but her mother has rheumatoid arthritis. The patient states that for several weeks, she has felt especially warm, even when her co-workers do not, and had muscle weakness. She also complains of mood swings and fatigue. At this visit, her temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 140/81 mmHg, pulse is 106/min, and respirations are 17/min. Physical exam is notable for 3+ deep tendon reflexes bilaterally and 4/5 strength in both hips and shoulders. Ultrasound confirms the presence of a heart beat and shows a crown rump length that is consistent with a gestational age of 9 weeks and 3 days. Which of the following is the best therapy for this patient?
A. Methimazole
B. Prednisone
C. Propylthiouracil (Correct Answer)
D. Intravenous immunoglobulin
E. Radioactive thyroid ablation (I-131)
Explanation: ***Propylthiouracil***
- This patient presents with symptoms of **hyperthyroidism** (warmth, muscle weakness, mood swings, fatigue, tachycardia, hypertension, and hyperreflexia) exacerbated by pregnancy. **Propylthiouracil (PTU)** is the preferred treatment for hyperthyroidism in the **first trimester** of pregnancy due to a lower risk of teratogenicity compared to methimazole.
- PTU works by **inhibiting thyroid hormone synthesis** and also blocks the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
*Methimazole*
- While an effective antithyroid drug, methimazole is generally **avoided in the first trimester** of pregnancy due to its association with rare but severe birth defects, such as **aplasia cutis** and choanal atresia.
- It becomes the preferred treatment in the second and third trimesters if antithyroid medication is still required, due to a lower risk of liver toxicity compared to PTU.
*Prednisone*
- **Prednisone** is a corticosteroid used to manage inflammatory conditions and suppress the immune system; it is **not a primary treatment for hyperthyroidism**.
- While it can be used in severe cases of thyroid storm to reduce peripheral conversion of T4 to T3, it is not the initial therapy for uncomplicated gestational hyperthyroidism.
*Intravenous immunoglobulin*
- **Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)** is an immune modulator used in various autoimmune conditions but has **no direct role in the treatment of hyperthyroidism**.
- It works by providing antibodies and modulating the immune response, which is not the primary mechanism needed to control excessive thyroid hormone production.
*Radioactive thyroid ablation (I-131)*
- **Radioactive iodine ablation** is absolutely **contraindicated in pregnancy** as it can cross the placenta and destroy the fetal thyroid gland, leading to **fetal hypothyroidism**.
- This treatment is reserved for non-pregnant individuals with hyperthyroidism who fail antithyroid medications or have recurrent disease.
Question 347: A 69-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by his daughter due to confusion. She reports that her father did not remember who she was yesterday, and his refrigerator was completely empty when she tried to make him lunch. She states that he was acting like himself when she visited him last week. She also notes that he has struggled with alcoholism for many years and has not seen a doctor in over two decades. She is unsure if he has any other chronic medical conditions. In the emergency room, the patient’s temperature is 101.2°F (38.4°C), pulse is 103/min, respirations are 22/min, and O2 saturation is 92% on room air. His BMI is 17.1 kg/m^2. Physical exam reveals an extremely thin and frail man who is not oriented to person, place, or time. As he is being examined, he becomes unresponsive and desaturates to 84%. He is intubated and admitted to the intensive care unit for what is found to be pneumonia, and the patient is started on total parental nutrition as he is sedated and has a history of aspiration from a prior hospitalization. Two days later, physical exam is notable for new peripheral edema. Laboratory tests at that time reveal the following:
Serum:
Na+: 133 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 2.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 22 mg/dL
Glucose: 124 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Phosphate: 1.1 mg/dL
Mg2+: 1.0 mg/dL
Which of the following could have prevented the complication seen in this patient?
A. Initiation of furosemide
B. Use of low-sugar TPN
C. Use of enteral nutrition
D. Initiation of intermittent dialysis
E. Slow initiation of total parenteral nutrition (TPN) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Slow initiation of total parenteral nutrition (TPN)***
- This patient likely developed **refeeding syndrome**, which is characterized by severe electrolyte shifts (especially **hypophosphatemia**, **hypokalemia**, and **hypomagnesemia**) and fluid retention (peripheral edema) upon rapid reintroduction of nutrition to severely malnourished individuals.
- A **slow and gradual introduction of TPN** would have allowed the body to adapt to the increased metabolic demands, preventing the sudden intracellular shift of electrolytes and subsequent depletion in the serum.
*Initiation of furosemide*
- Furosemide is a **loop diuretic** primarily used to treat fluid overload and edema by increasing renal excretion of water and electrolytes.
- While it could address the peripheral edema, it would not correct the underlying electrolyte imbalances of refeeding syndrome and could potentially worsen them (e.g., contributing to **hypokalemia**).
*Use of low-sugar TPN*
- Refeeding syndrome is triggered by the shift from fat metabolism to carbohydrate metabolism, leading to increased insulin secretion and subsequent intracellular movement of electrolytes.
- While a lower glucose load might slightly mitigate the insulin response, it does not address the core issue of rapid nutrient repletion in a severely malnourished state, and the absolute amount of carbohydrates would still be significant in TPN.
*Use of enteral nutrition*
- **Enteral nutrition** (feeding via the gastrointestinal tract) is generally preferred over TPN when feasible, as it helps maintain gut integrity and has a lower risk of certain complications.
- However, if initiated too rapidly in a severely malnourished patient, enteral nutrition can also precipitate refeeding syndrome, as the metabolic shifts are triggered by carbohydrate repletion regardless of the delivery route.
*Initiation of intermittent dialysis*
- **Intermittent dialysis** is a renal replacement therapy used for acute or chronic kidney failure to remove waste products and excess fluid.
- This patient's creatinine and BUN are only mildly elevated for someone with pneumonia and dehydration, indicating **no clear indication for dialysis**; phosphorus and magnesium could be corrected with supplementation.
Question 348: A 60-year-old patient is at his physician’s office for a routine health maintenance exam. The patient has a past medical history of osteoarthritis in his right knee and GERD that is well-controlled with over the counter medication. On a fasting lipid profile, he is found to have high cholesterol. The patient is started on daily atorvastatin to reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease. What is the major apolipoprotein found on the lipoprotein most directly affected by his statin medication?
A. Apolipoprotein C-II
B. Apolipoprotein B-100 (Correct Answer)
C. Apolipoprotein A-I
D. Apolipoprotein B-48
E. Apolipoprotein E
Explanation: ***Apolipoprotein B-100***
- Statins primarily reduce **LDL-C** levels by inhibiting **HMG-CoA reductase**, leading to increased LDL receptor expression and clearance of LDL particles from the blood.
- **Apolipoprotein B-100** is the main apolipoprotein found on **LDL** and is crucial for its binding to the LDL receptor.
*Apolipoprotein C-II*
- This apolipoprotein activates **lipoprotein lipase**, which is involved in the hydrolysis of triglycerides in **chylomicrons** and **VLDL**, not directly targeted by statins.
- While statins can indirectly affect VLDL, ApoC-II is not the major apolipoprotein of the lipoprotein most directly affected by statins.
*Apolipoprotein A-I*
- **Apolipoprotein A-I** is the primary apolipoprotein found on **HDL**, which is involved in **reverse cholesterol transport**.
- While statins can have a modest effect on increasing HDL, their primary action is on reducing LDL.
*Apolipoprotein B-48*
- **Apolipoprotein B-48** is found exclusively on **chylomicrons**, which are responsible for the transport of exogenous dietary fats from the intestines.
- Chylomicrons are not the primary target of statin therapy, which focuses on endogenous cholesterol metabolism.
*Apolipoprotein E*
- **Apolipoprotein E** is found on chylomicrons, VLDL, and HDL and plays a role in receptor binding for their clearance from circulation.
- While important for lipoprotein metabolism, it is not the *major* apolipoprotein of the lipoprotein most *directly* affected by statins (LDL).
Question 349: A new drug X is being tested for its effect on renal function. During the experiments, the researchers found that in patients taking substance X, the urinary concentration of sodium decreases while urine potassium concentration increase. Which of the following affects the kidneys in the same way as does substance X?
A. Aldosterone (Correct Answer)
B. Furosemide
C. Spironolactone
D. Atrial natriuretic peptide
E. Hydrochlorothiazide
Explanation: ***Aldosterone***
- **Aldosterone** acts on the **principal cells** of the **collecting duct** to increase sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion.
- This action leads to a decrease in urinary sodium concentration and an increase in urinary potassium concentration, matching the effects of drug X.
*Furosemide*
- **Furosemide** is a **loop diuretic** that inhibits the **Na-K-2Cl cotransporter** in the **thick ascending limb** of the loop of Henle.
- This inhibition leads to increased excretion of sodium, potassium, and water, resulting in higher urinary sodium concentration.
*Spironolactone*
- **Spironolactone** is an **aldosterone antagonist** that blocks aldosterone's effects on the collecting duct.
- This leads to increased sodium excretion and decreased potassium excretion (potassium-sparing effect), which is the opposite of drug X.
*Atrial natriuretic peptide*
- **Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)** is released in response to atrial stretch and causes **natriuresis** (increased sodium excretion) and **diuresis**.
- It works by dilating afferent arterioles and constricting efferent arterioles, increasing GFR, and inhibiting sodium reabsorption, thus increasing urinary sodium concentration.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- **Hydrochlorothiazide** is a **thiazide diuretic** that inhibits the **Na-Cl cotransporter** in the **distal convoluted tubule**.
- This leads to increased sodium and chloride excretion but typically causes potassium wasting (hypokalemia), which differs from the increased urinary potassium concentration seen with drug X.
Question 350: A 7-year-old girl presents with a low-grade fever, lethargy, and fatigue for the past week. The patient’s mother says she also complains of leg pain for the past couple of weeks. No significant past medical history. The patient was born at term via spontaneous transvaginal delivery with no complications. On physical examination, the patient shows generalized pallor. Cervical lymphadenopathy is present. A bone marrow biopsy is performed which confirms the diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). The patient is started on a chemotherapy regimen consisting of vincristine, daunorubicin, L-asparaginase, and prednisolone for induction, followed by intrathecal methotrexate for maintenance. Following the 4th cycle of chemotherapy, she develops bilateral ptosis. Physical examination shows a normal pupillary reflex and eye movements. She is started on pyridoxine and pyridostigmine, and, in 7 days, she has complete resolution of the ptosis. Which of the following drugs is most likely associated with this patient’s adverse reaction?
A. Methotrexate
B. Daunorubicin
C. Prednisolone
D. Pyridoxine
E. Vincristine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Vincristine***
- Vincristine is an **antimicrotubule agent** known for causing **peripheral neuropathy**, which can manifest as **cranial nerve palsies**, including ptosis from CN III involvement.
- Vincristine can cause **neuromuscular junction dysfunction** similar to myasthenia gravis, leading to muscle weakness including extraocular muscles.
- The response to **pyridostigmine** (an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor) confirms this mechanism, as it increases acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction.
- **Pyridoxine** (vitamin B6) is used for both prevention and treatment of vincristine-induced neuropathy.
*Methotrexate*
- Methotrexate is an **antifolate** that primarily causes **myelosuppression**, **mucositis**, and **hepatotoxicity**.
- While intrathecal methotrexate can cause neurotoxicity, it typically presents as **meningeal irritation**, **seizures**, or **leukoencephalopathy**, not isolated ptosis.
*Daunorubicin*
- Daunorubicin is an **anthracycline** antibiotic primarily known for **cardiotoxicity** and **myelosuppression**.
- It does not commonly cause **neurological side effects** like ptosis.
*Prednisolone*
- Prednisolone is a **corticosteroid** with side effects including **immunosuppression**, **hyperglycemia**, **osteoporosis**, and **mood changes**.
- It is not directly associated with **neuromuscular side effects** such as isolated ptosis.
*Pyridoxine*
- Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) is used for the **treatment** and **prevention** of vincristine-induced neuropathy, not its causation.
- The patient was started on pyridoxine to *resolve* the ptosis, indicating it is therapeutic for the vincristine-induced neurotoxicity.