A 30-year-old woman presents to a medical clinic for a routine check-up. She gained about 5 kg (11 lb) since the last time she weighed herself 3 months ago. She also complains of constipation and sensitivity to cold. She also noticed her hair appears to be thinning. The patient started to use combined oral contraceptives a few months ago and she is compliant. On physical examination, the temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), the blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, the pulse is 65/min, and the respiratory rate is 14/min. The laboratory results are as follows:
Thyroxine (T4), total 25 ug/dL
Thyroxine (T4), free 0.8 ng/dL
TSH 0.2 mU/L
Which of the following is the main mechanism of action of the drug that caused her signs and symptoms?
Q312
A 54-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with recurrent episodes of flushing. At first she attributed these symptoms to hormonal changes. However, lately she has also been experiencing episodes of explosive, watery diarrhea. She has also noticed the onset of heart palpitations. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Her physical exam is notable for an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP). Echocardiography shows tricuspid insufficiency. Urine 5-HIAA is elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q313
A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of a 6-month history of persistent rhinorrhea and nasal congestion. She works in retail and notices her symptoms worsen anytime she is exposed to strong perfumes. Her symptoms have worsened since winter began 2 months ago. She has not had fever, nausea, wheezing, itching, or rash. She has no history of serious illness or allergies. She takes no medications. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows congested nasal mucosa, enlarged tonsils, and pharyngeal postnasal discharge. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q314
An 18-year-old girl comes to the clinic because she is concerned about her weight. She states that she is on her school’s cheerleading team and is upset because she feels she is the “fattest” girl on the team despite her healthy diet. She says that in the last 2 weeks since practice began, she has lost 2 lbs. The patient has bipolar disorder I. Her medications include lithium and a combined oral contraceptive that was recently started by her gynecologist, because “everyone is on it." Her mother has hypothyroidism and is treated with levothyroxine. The patient’s BMI is 23.2 kg/m2. Thyroid function labs are drawn and shown below:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): 4.0 mIU/L
Serum thyroxine (T4): 18 ug/dL
Free thyroxine (Free T4): 1.4 ng/dl (normal range: 0.7-1.9 ng/dL)
Serum triiodothyronine (T3): 210 ng/dL
Free triiodothyronine (T3): 6.0 pg/mL (normal range: 3.0-7.0 pg/mL)
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s abnormal lab values?
Q315
A 45-year-old woman comes to the physician because of early satiety and intermittent nausea for 3 months. During this period she has also felt uncomfortably full after meals and has vomited occasionally. She has not had retrosternal or epigastric pain. She has longstanding type 1 diabetes mellitus, diabetic nephropathy, and generalized anxiety disorder. Current medications include insulin, ramipril, and escitalopram. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows dry mucous membranes and mild epigastric tenderness. Her hemoglobin A1C concentration was 12.2% 3 weeks ago. Which of the following drugs is most appropriate to treat this patient's current condition?
Q316
A 58-year-old woman with New York Heart Association Class III heart failure, atrial fibrillation, and bipolar disorder presents to the urgent care center with nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, double vision, and describes seeing green/yellow outlines around objects. Her current medications include ramipril, bisoprolol, spironolactone, digoxin, amiodarone, and lithium. Of the following, which medication is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
Q317
A 70-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of progressive shortness of breath and a dry cough. He has also noticed gradual development of facial discoloration. He has not had fevers. He has coronary artery disease, hypertension, and atrial fibrillation. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. He does not remember which medications he takes. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 150/85 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 95%. Examination shows blue-gray discoloration of the face and both hands. Diffuse inspiratory crackles are heard. Laboratory studies show:
Prothrombin time 12 seconds (INR=1.0)
Serum
Na+ 142 mEq/L
Cl- 105 mEq/L
K+ 3.6 mEq/L
HCO3- 25 mg/dL
Urea Nitrogen 20
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 70 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 120 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 110 U/L
An x-ray of the chest shows reticular opacities around the lung periphery and particularly around the lung bases. The most likely cause of this patient's findings is an adverse effect to which of the following medications?
Q318
A 66-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations. She says that she has been experiencing palpitations and lightheadedness for the past 6 months, but before this morning the episodes usually resolved on their own. The patient's medical history is significant for a transient ischemia attack 2 months ago, hypertension, and diabetes. She takes aspirin, metformin, and lisinopril. She states her grandfather died of a stroke, and her mom has a "blood disorder." An electrocardiogram is obtained that shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with rapid ventricular response, consistent with atrial fibrillation. She is given intravenous metoprolol, which resolves her symptoms. In addition to starting a beta-blocker for long-term management, the patient meets criteria for anticoagulation. Both unfractionated heparin and warfarin are started. Five days later, the patient begins complaining of pain and swelling of her left lower extremity. A Doppler ultrasound reveals thrombosis in her left popliteal and tibial veins. A complete blood count is obtained that shows a decrease in platelet count from 245,000/mm^3 to 90,000/mm^3. Coagulation studies are shown below:
Prothrombin time (PT): 15 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT): 37 seconds
Bleeding time: 14 minutes
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q319
A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room after a syncopal episode. The patient is awake, alert, and oriented; however, he becomes lightheaded whenever he tries to sit up. The medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and stable angina, which are controlled with simvastatin and isosorbide dinitrate, respectively. The blood pressure is 70/45 mm Hg and the heart rate is 110/min; all other vital signs are stable. IV fluids are started as he is taken for CT imaging of the head. En route to the imaging suite, the patient mentions that he took a new medication for erectile dysfunction just before he began to feel ill. What is the metabolic cause of this patient’s symptoms?
Q320
A 47-year-old man with bipolar I disorder and hypertension comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of increased thirst, urinary frequency, and sleep disturbance. He says that he now drinks up to 30 cups of water daily. He has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes daily for the past 20 years. Examination shows decreased skin turgor. Serum studies show a sodium concentration of 149 mEq/L, a potassium concentration of 4.1 mEq/L, and an elevated antidiuretic hormone concentration. His urine osmolality is 121 mOsm/kg H2O. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?
Autonomic/CV Drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 311: A 30-year-old woman presents to a medical clinic for a routine check-up. She gained about 5 kg (11 lb) since the last time she weighed herself 3 months ago. She also complains of constipation and sensitivity to cold. She also noticed her hair appears to be thinning. The patient started to use combined oral contraceptives a few months ago and she is compliant. On physical examination, the temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), the blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, the pulse is 65/min, and the respiratory rate is 14/min. The laboratory results are as follows:
Thyroxine (T4), total 25 ug/dL
Thyroxine (T4), free 0.8 ng/dL
TSH 0.2 mU/L
Which of the following is the main mechanism of action of the drug that caused her signs and symptoms?
A. Inhibition of an enzyme in the thyroid gland
B. Inducing endometrial atrophy
C. Increase the thickness of cervical mucus secretions
D. Inhibition of hormones in the pituitary gland (Correct Answer)
E. Inhibition of hormones in hypothalamus
Explanation: ***Inhibition of hormones in the pituitary gland***
- The patient's symptoms (weight gain, constipation, cold sensitivity, hair thinning) combined with laboratory results showing **low TSH** and **low free T4** are indicative of **central hypothyroidism**.
- **Combined oral contraceptives** contain estrogen, which increases **thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)** levels. This leads to increased total T4 but a decrease in free T4. The body compensates by increasing TSH to maintain euthyroidism. However, if the patient has central hypothyroidism (pituitary suppression), the TSH will not increase appropriately. Thus, the main mechanism of oral contraceptives relates to its interaction with the **hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid (HPT) axis**, where the estrogen component of COCs can suppress pituitary TSH secretion over time, leading to central hypothyroidism in susceptible individuals. The primary action of combined oral contraceptives (COCs) in preventing pregnancy is the **inhibition of gonadotropins (FSH and LH) from the pituitary gland**, thereby preventing ovulation. While this is the main contraceptive mechanism, the estrogen component of COCs is known to affect thyroid hormone binding and metabolism, which can unmask or exacerbate underlying thyroid dysregulation, leading to the observed picture of central hypothyroidism with suppressed TSH and low free T4.
*Inhibition of an enzyme in the thyroid gland*
- This mechanism of action is associated with **antithyroid drugs** like methimazole or propylthiouracil, used to treat **hyperthyroidism**, not hypothyroidism.
- These drugs block thyroid hormone synthesis, leading to high TSH and low thyroid hormones, a picture of primary hypothyroidism, which is not what's observed here (TSH is low).
*Inducing endometrial atrophy*
- While combined oral contraceptives can cause **endometrial thinning**, this is a direct effect on the uterus and not the primary mechanism responsible for the systemic symptoms or the thyroid abnormalities described.
- Endometrial atrophy is also seen in conditions like menopause or progestin-only contraception, but it does not explain the thyroid dysfunction.
*Increase the thickness of cervical mucus secretions*
- This is a primary contraceptive mechanism of **progestin-only contraceptives**, designed to impede sperm passage, but it is not the main mechanism of combined oral contraceptives leading to the observed systemic symptoms.
- While combined oral contraceptives also affect cervical mucus, it's not the critical factor explaining the thyroid profile and symptoms in this case.
*Inhibition of hormones in hypothalamus*
- While oral contraceptives do influence the **hypothalamus-pituitary-ovarian axis**, the direct cause of the thyroid dysfunction in this scenario is due to direct effects on the liver (TBG) and the pituitary (TSH suppression), rather than primarily inhibiting hypothalamic hormones.
- The direct and primary site of action for inducing the thyroid hormone changes due to COCs is more downstream at the pituitary and liver levels not the hypothalamus.
Question 312: A 54-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with recurrent episodes of flushing. At first she attributed these symptoms to hormonal changes. However, lately she has also been experiencing episodes of explosive, watery diarrhea. She has also noticed the onset of heart palpitations. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Her physical exam is notable for an elevated jugular venous pressure (JVP). Echocardiography shows tricuspid insufficiency. Urine 5-HIAA is elevated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Levothyroxine
B. Promethazine
C. Octreotide (Correct Answer)
D. Metoclopramide
E. Ondansetron
Explanation: ***Octreotide***
- The patient's symptoms (flushing, watery diarrhea, palpitations, elevated JVP, tricuspid insufficiency) along with elevated urine **5-HIAA** are highly suggestive of **carcinoid syndrome**.
- **Octreotide**, a somatostatin analog, is the most appropriate next step as it reduces the secretion of vasoactive substances (like serotonin) from carcinoid tumors, alleviating symptoms and often inhibiting tumor growth.
*Levothyroxine*
- **Levothyroxine** is used to treat **hypothyroidism** and is not indicated for the symptoms presented.
- The patient's symptoms are not consistent with thyroid dysfunction.
*Promethazine*
- **Promethazine** is an antihistamine with antiemetic and sedative properties, used for nausea, vomiting, and allergies.
- It does not address the underlying pathology or symptoms of carcinoid syndrome.
*Metoclopramide*
- **Metoclopramide** is a **dopamine antagonist** and prokinetic agent used to treat nausea, vomiting, and gastroparesis.
- It would not be effective in managing the systemic effects of carcinoid syndrome.
*Ondansetron*
- **Ondansetron** is a **5-HT3 receptor antagonist** primarily used as an antiemetic, particularly for chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
- While it targets serotonin receptors, it is not the primary treatment for the broad range of symptoms in carcinoid syndrome and would not effectively reduce the production of vasoactive mediators.
Question 313: A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of a 6-month history of persistent rhinorrhea and nasal congestion. She works in retail and notices her symptoms worsen anytime she is exposed to strong perfumes. Her symptoms have worsened since winter began 2 months ago. She has not had fever, nausea, wheezing, itching, or rash. She has no history of serious illness or allergies. She takes no medications. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows congested nasal mucosa, enlarged tonsils, and pharyngeal postnasal discharge. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Oral phenylephrine
B. Radioallergosorbent testing
C. Percutaneous allergy testing
D. Intranasal azelastine (Correct Answer)
E. Oral diphenhydramine
Explanation: ***Intranasal azelastine***
- The patient's symptoms (rhinorrhea and nasal congestion) worsen with **irritants** (perfumes) and **cold weather**. The absence of itching, rash, or wheezing makes **allergic rhinitis** less likely. This presentation is highly suggestive of **vasomotor rhinitis**, for which intranasal antihistamines like azelastine are a highly effective treatment.
- **Azelastine** is an antihistamine that, when administered intranasally, has local anti-inflammatory effects and can significantly reduce symptoms associated with non-allergic rhinitis, including **rhinorrhea** and **congestion**.
*Oral phenylephrine*
- **Oral phenylephrine** is a decongestant that primarily works by causing vasoconstriction to reduce nasal congestion. It does not address the underlying **vasomotor dysregulation** or rhinorrhea as effectively as an intranasal antihistamine.
- Furthermore, **oral decongestants** can have systemic side effects such as elevated blood pressure, palpitations, and insomnia, which are generally avoided if local treatments are effective.
*Radioallergosorbent testing*
- **Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST)** measures **IgE antibodies** to specific allergens in the blood. This test is primarily used to diagnose **allergic rhinitis**.
- Given the patient's symptoms are exacerbated by irritants (perfumes) and cold rather than specific allergens, and she lacks typical allergic symptoms like itching, **allergic rhinitis** is less probable, making RAST testing an unnecessary initial step.
*Percutaneous allergy testing*
- **Percutaneous allergy testing** (skin prick testing) is used to identify specific environmental allergens that trigger IgE-mediated allergic reactions.
- As with RAST testing, the clinical picture does not strongly suggest an **allergic etiology**. The absence of typical allergic symptoms (itching, wheezing, rash) and the worsening with irritants point away from **allergic rhinitis**.
*Oral diphenhydramine*
- **Oral diphenhydramine** is a first-generation antihistamine that can reduce rhinorrhea and sneezing but often causes significant **sedation** and anticholinergic side effects.
- It is generally not the preferred long-term treatment for chronic rhinitis due to its side effect profile, especially when effective topical agents are available.
Question 314: An 18-year-old girl comes to the clinic because she is concerned about her weight. She states that she is on her school’s cheerleading team and is upset because she feels she is the “fattest” girl on the team despite her healthy diet. She says that in the last 2 weeks since practice began, she has lost 2 lbs. The patient has bipolar disorder I. Her medications include lithium and a combined oral contraceptive that was recently started by her gynecologist, because “everyone is on it." Her mother has hypothyroidism and is treated with levothyroxine. The patient’s BMI is 23.2 kg/m2. Thyroid function labs are drawn and shown below:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH): 4.0 mIU/L
Serum thyroxine (T4): 18 ug/dL
Free thyroxine (Free T4): 1.4 ng/dl (normal range: 0.7-1.9 ng/dL)
Serum triiodothyronine (T3): 210 ng/dL
Free triiodothyronine (T3): 6.0 pg/mL (normal range: 3.0-7.0 pg/mL)
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s abnormal lab values?
A. Familial hyperthyroidism
B. Hypocholesterolemia
C. Lithium
D. Oral contraception-induced (Correct Answer)
E. Surreptitious use of levothyroxine
Explanation: ***Oral contraception-induced***
- The patient's **total T4 and T3 are elevated**, while **free T4 and T3** are within normal limits, indicating an increase in thyroid-binding globulin (TBG).
- Oral contraceptives, specifically **estrogen**, increase the synthesis of TBG in the liver, leading to higher total thyroid hormone levels as more hormone is bound.
*Familial hyperthyroidism*
- Familial hyperthyroidism would present with genuinely **elevated free T4 and T3** levels, alongside suppressed TSH, indicating true hyperthyroidism.
- The patient's **normal free T4 and T3** and slightly elevated TSH rule out true hyperthyroidism.
*Hypocholesterolemia*
- While thyroid hormones can affect lipid metabolism, **hypocholesterolemia is not a direct cause** of altered thyroid lab values.
- It is also not a common side effect of oral contraceptives, nor is it related to the specific pattern of elevated total T4/T3 with normal free hormones.
*Lithium*
- Lithium is known to **cause hypothyroidism** (elevated TSH, low T4/T3) or, less commonly, hyperthyroidism, but not isolated elevated total T4/T3 with normal free hormones due to increased TBG.
- The patient's normal free thyroid hormones and only slightly elevated TSH are not consistent with significant lithium-induced thyroid dysfunction.
*Surreptitious use of levothyroxine*
- Surreptitious use of exogenous **levothyroxine** would typically result in suppressed TSH and elevated free T4, as the gland would be overstimulated or shut down.
- The patient's normal free T4 and elevated total T4/T3 are not indicative of levothyroxine abuse.
Question 315: A 45-year-old woman comes to the physician because of early satiety and intermittent nausea for 3 months. During this period she has also felt uncomfortably full after meals and has vomited occasionally. She has not had retrosternal or epigastric pain. She has longstanding type 1 diabetes mellitus, diabetic nephropathy, and generalized anxiety disorder. Current medications include insulin, ramipril, and escitalopram. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows dry mucous membranes and mild epigastric tenderness. Her hemoglobin A1C concentration was 12.2% 3 weeks ago. Which of the following drugs is most appropriate to treat this patient's current condition?
A. Ondansetron
B. Clarithromycin
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Metoclopramide (Correct Answer)
E. Omeprazole
Explanation: ***Metoclopramide***
- This patient presents with symptoms of **gastroparesis**, including early satiety, nausea, vomiting, and postprandial fullness, in the setting of **longstanding type 1 diabetes mellitus** and a very high HbA1c (12.2%), indicative of poor glycemic control.
- **Metoclopramide** is a prokinetic agent that acts as a **dopamine D2 receptor antagonist**. It increases gastric motility and emptying, which is the primary pathology in diabetic gastroparesis, making it the most appropriate treatment.
*Ondansetron*
- Ondansetron is a **serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist** and primarily acts as an antiemetic, reducing nausea and vomiting.
- While it could alleviate some symptoms, it does not address the underlying problem of **delayed gastric emptying** in gastroparesis.
*Clarithromycin*
- Clarithromycin is a **macrolide antibiotic** that can exhibit prokinetic effects due to its action on motilin receptors, but it is typically reserved for cases where metoclopramide is contraindicated or ineffective due to concerns regarding **antibiotic resistance** and potential side effects with prolonged use.
- It is not a first-line treatment for diabetic gastroparesis.
*Calcium carbonate*
- Calcium carbonate is an **antacid** used to neutralize stomach acid, providing relief from heartburn and indigestion.
- It would not be effective in treating the symptoms of gastroparesis, which are related to **impaired gastric motility**, not acid production.
*Omeprazole*
- Omeprazole is a **proton pump inhibitor (PPI)** that reduces stomach acid production by irreversibly binding to the H+/K+-ATPase pump.
- It is used to treat conditions like GERD, peptic ulcers, and esophagitis, which are not suggested by the patient's primary symptoms of **early satiety and nausea without retrosternal pain**.
Question 316: A 58-year-old woman with New York Heart Association Class III heart failure, atrial fibrillation, and bipolar disorder presents to the urgent care center with nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, double vision, and describes seeing green/yellow outlines around objects. Her current medications include ramipril, bisoprolol, spironolactone, digoxin, amiodarone, and lithium. Of the following, which medication is most likely responsible for her symptoms?
A. Lithium
B. Amiodarone
C. Digoxin (Correct Answer)
D. Bisoprolol
E. Spironolactone
Explanation: ***Digoxin***
- The patient's symptoms, including **nausea**, **vomiting**, **abdominal pain**, **double vision**, and seeing **green/yellow outlines** around objects, are classic signs of **digoxin toxicity**.
- This is particularly concerning given her Class III heart failure and atrial fibrillation for which digoxin is often prescribed, and the presence of other medications like amiodarone, which can increase digoxin levels.
*Lithium*
- **Lithium toxicity** typically presents with neurological symptoms such as **tremor**, **sedation**, **ataxia**, and seizures, as well as gastrointestinal upset.
- While gastrointestinal symptoms can occur, the **visual disturbances** (double vision, green/yellow outlines) are not characteristic of lithium toxicity.
*Amiodarone*
- **Amiodarone side effects** can include **pulmonary fibrosis**, **thyroid dysfunction**, **corneal deposits** (halo vision), and liver toxicity.
- Although visual halos can occur, the specific description of green/yellow outlines and generalized GI distress points away from amiodarone as the primary cause here.
*Bisoprolol*
- **Bisoprolol**, a beta-blocker, can cause **bradycardia**, **hypotension**, **fatigue**, and **dizziness**.
- It does not typically cause the severe gastrointestinal symptoms or the specific visual disturbances described by the patient.
*Spironolactone*
- **Spironolactone**, an aldosterone antagonist, can cause **hyperkalemia**, **gynecomastia**, and gastrointestinal upset such as nausea.
- However, it does not cause the specific visual changes or the constellation of symptoms prominent in this case.
Question 317: A 70-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of progressive shortness of breath and a dry cough. He has also noticed gradual development of facial discoloration. He has not had fevers. He has coronary artery disease, hypertension, and atrial fibrillation. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. He does not remember which medications he takes. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 150/85 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 95%. Examination shows blue-gray discoloration of the face and both hands. Diffuse inspiratory crackles are heard. Laboratory studies show:
Prothrombin time 12 seconds (INR=1.0)
Serum
Na+ 142 mEq/L
Cl- 105 mEq/L
K+ 3.6 mEq/L
HCO3- 25 mg/dL
Urea Nitrogen 20
Creatinine 1.2 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 70 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT) 120 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT) 110 U/L
An x-ray of the chest shows reticular opacities around the lung periphery and particularly around the lung bases. The most likely cause of this patient's findings is an adverse effect to which of the following medications?
A. Amiodarone (Correct Answer)
B. Procainamide
C. Metoprolol
D. Lisinopril
E. Warfarin
Explanation: ***Amiodarone***
- The patient's **progressive shortness of breath**, **dry cough**, and **diffuse inspiratory crackles** are consistent with **pulmonary fibrosis**, a known serious adverse effect of amiodarone.
- The **blue-gray facial and hand discoloration** (smurfism/argyria-like effect) is a classic dermatologic side effect of long-term amiodarone use due to **iodine accumulation** in the skin.
- The **elevated transaminases** (AST 120, ALT 110) suggest **hepatotoxicity**, another well-known adverse effect of amiodarone.
- The patient's underlying atrial fibrillation and coronary artery disease make amiodarone a plausible medication for his history.
*Procainamide*
- This antiarrhythmic can cause a **lupus-like syndrome** (arthralgias, fever, rash) and agranulocytosis, but generally not interstitial lung disease or skin discoloration as described.
- While it could be used for atrial fibrillation, its side effect profile does not match the patient's symptoms.
*Metoprolol*
- Metoprolol is a **beta-blocker** used for hypertension, coronary artery disease, and rate control in atrial fibrillation.
- Its common side effects include **bronchospasm** (especially in asthmatics), bradycardia, and fatigue, but not interstitial lung disease or blue-gray skin discoloration.
*Lisinopril*
- Lisinopril is an **ACE inhibitor** used for hypertension and coronary artery disease.
- Its common side effects include **dry cough** (due to bradykinin accumulation) and angioedema, but not interstitial lung disease or skin discoloration. The cough from Lisinopril is typically **non-productive and persistent**, and would not be associated with crackles or progressive shortness of breath from lung disease.
*Warfarin*
- Warfarin is an **anticoagulant** prescribed for atrial fibrillation to prevent stroke.
- Its main side effects are **bleeding** and skin necrosis, but it does not cause pulmonary fibrosis or skin discoloration.
Question 318: A 66-year-old woman presents to the emergency department complaining of palpitations. She says that she has been experiencing palpitations and lightheadedness for the past 6 months, but before this morning the episodes usually resolved on their own. The patient's medical history is significant for a transient ischemia attack 2 months ago, hypertension, and diabetes. She takes aspirin, metformin, and lisinopril. She states her grandfather died of a stroke, and her mom has a "blood disorder." An electrocardiogram is obtained that shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with rapid ventricular response, consistent with atrial fibrillation. She is given intravenous metoprolol, which resolves her symptoms. In addition to starting a beta-blocker for long-term management, the patient meets criteria for anticoagulation. Both unfractionated heparin and warfarin are started. Five days later, the patient begins complaining of pain and swelling of her left lower extremity. A Doppler ultrasound reveals thrombosis in her left popliteal and tibial veins. A complete blood count is obtained that shows a decrease in platelet count from 245,000/mm^3 to 90,000/mm^3. Coagulation studies are shown below:
Prothrombin time (PT): 15 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time (PTT): 37 seconds
Bleeding time: 14 minutes
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Type I heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
C. Warfarin toxicity
D. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
E. Type II heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Type II heparin-induced thrombocytopenia***
- This diagnosis is strongly supported by the patient's **recent heparin exposure**, a significant **drop in platelet count** (from 245,000 to 90,000/mm^3, a >50% reduction), and new onset **thrombosis** (popliteal and tibial vein thrombosis).
- Type II HIT involves antibody formation against **heparin-platelet factor 4 (PF4) complexes**, leading to platelet activation, aggregation, and paradoxical thrombosis, often occurring 5-10 days after heparin initiation.
*Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura*
- While TTP involves microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, and organ damage including neurological symptoms, the prompt onset of thrombosis after heparin strongly points away from TTP and towards **heparin-related complications**.
- This patient’s symptoms are primarily thrombotic, and typical TTP findings like **schistocytes on blood smear** and **severe ADAMTS13 deficiency** are not mentioned.
*Type I heparin-induced thrombocytopenia*
- Type I HIT is characterized by a **mild, non-immune-mediated platelet drop** (usually not below 100,000/mm^3) that occurs within the first 2 days of heparin therapy.
- It is **rarely associated with thrombosis**, which makes it an unlikely diagnosis given the severe platelet drop and new thromboses.
*Warfarin toxicity*
- Warfarin toxicity typically causes **bleeding complications** due to over-anticoagulation, rather than thrombosis, and is characterized by a **prolonged PT/INR**.
- Although the patient's bleeding time is prolonged, the thrombotic events and significant platelet drop point away from warfarin toxicity as the primary diagnosis.
*Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura*
- ITP is an autoimmune disorder causing **isolated thrombocytopenia** (often severe) and **bleeding**, but it is generally *not* associated with paradoxical thrombosis.
- The temporal relationship with heparin exposure and the thrombotic events are inconsistent with a primary diagnosis of unprovoked ITP.
Question 319: A 52-year-old man presents to the emergency room after a syncopal episode. The patient is awake, alert, and oriented; however, he becomes lightheaded whenever he tries to sit up. The medical history is significant for coronary artery disease and stable angina, which are controlled with simvastatin and isosorbide dinitrate, respectively. The blood pressure is 70/45 mm Hg and the heart rate is 110/min; all other vital signs are stable. IV fluids are started as he is taken for CT imaging of the head. En route to the imaging suite, the patient mentions that he took a new medication for erectile dysfunction just before he began to feel ill. What is the metabolic cause of this patient’s symptoms?
A. Increased O2 consumption
B. Increased PDE-5
C. Increased cGMP (Correct Answer)
D. Increased NO
E. Nitric oxide synthase inhibition
Explanation: ***Increased cGMP***
- The patient likely took a **PDE-5 inhibitor** for erectile dysfunction, which prevents the breakdown of **cGMP**.
- Elevated **cGMP** leads to increased **vasodilation** and a subsequent drop in blood pressure, explaining his syncopal episode and orthostatic hypotension.
- This represents the **final metabolic mediator** of vasodilation in this drug interaction.
*Increased O2 consumption*
- While increased **O2 consumption** can exacerbate angina, it does not directly cause the profound **hypotension** and **syncope** seen in this patient.
- The patient's controlled angina and the timing with a new ED medication point away from primary cardiac oxygen demand issues as the direct cause of the current symptoms.
*Increased PDE-5*
- **PDE-5 inhibitors** work by *decreasing* the breakdown of cGMP by inhibiting **phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5)**, not by increasing PDE-5 itself.
- An increase in **PDE-5** would lead to *decreased* cGMP and vasoconstriction, which is the opposite of the patient's presentation.
*Increased NO*
- While **nitric oxide (NO)** from **isosorbide dinitrate** (a nitrate/NO donor) is indeed increased and contributes to the interaction, NO acts *upstream* by stimulating guanylate cyclase to produce cGMP.
- The question asks for the **metabolic cause**, and **cGMP** is the direct effector molecule causing vasodilation, making it the more precise answer.
- The dangerous interaction occurs because the PDE-5 inhibitor prevents cGMP breakdown while the nitrate increases cGMP production—**increased cGMP** is the final common pathway.
*Nitric oxide synthase inhibition*
- **Nitric oxide synthase (NOS) inhibition** would *decrease* **nitric oxide** production, leading to **vasoconstriction** and potentially *increased* blood pressure.
- This mechanism is contrary to the patient's presentation of severe **hypotension** and syncopal episode.
Question 320: A 47-year-old man with bipolar I disorder and hypertension comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of increased thirst, urinary frequency, and sleep disturbance. He says that he now drinks up to 30 cups of water daily. He has smoked 2 packs of cigarettes daily for the past 20 years. Examination shows decreased skin turgor. Serum studies show a sodium concentration of 149 mEq/L, a potassium concentration of 4.1 mEq/L, and an elevated antidiuretic hormone concentration. His urine osmolality is 121 mOsm/kg H2O. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?
A. Tumor in the adrenal cortex
B. Adverse effect of a medication (Correct Answer)
C. Paraneoplastic production of a hormone
D. Polydipsia caused by acute psychosis
E. Tumor of the pituitary gland
Explanation: ***Adverse effect of a medication***
- The patient's presentation of **polyuria**, **polydipsia**, **hypernatremia**, and **elevated ADH** with **low urine osmolality** is consistent with **nephrogenic diabetes insipidus**.
- **Lithium**, a common treatment for bipolar I disorder, is a well-known cause of **nephrogenic diabetes insipidus** by interfering with the renal collecting duct's response to ADH.
*Tumor in the adrenal cortex*
- An adrenal cortical tumor would typically lead to conditions like **Cushing's syndrome** ( excess cortisol) or **Conn's syndrome** (excess aldosterone), causing **hypokalemia** and **hypertension**, but not primarily hypernatremia with low urine osmolality.
- While it can affect fluid balance, it does not directly cause the classic presentation of **diabetes insipidus** with elevated ADH and low urine osmolality.
*Paraneoplastic production of a hormone*
- Paraneoplastic syndromes can cause various endocrine abnormalities, but paraneoplastic production of a hormone leading to **nephrogenic diabetes insipidus** with high ADH and low urine osmolality is highly unlikely.
- More common paraneoplastic syndromes affecting water balance involve inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH), leading to **hyponatremia**, not hypernatremia.
*Polydipsia caused by acute psychosis*
- Primary polydipsia typically results in **hyponatremia** due to excessive water intake diluting serum sodium, especially if renal concentrating mechanisms are intact. The patient has **hypernatremia**.
- While patients with psychiatric conditions can exhibit **primary polydipsia**, the body usually compensates by suppressing ADH and excreting dilute urine; an **elevated ADH** makes this diagnosis less likely.
*Tumor of the pituitary gland*
- A pituitary tumor could cause **central diabetes insipidus** if it interfered with ADH production or release, but this would lead to a *low* or *inappropriately normal* ADH level, not an **elevated ADH** level.
- An elevated ADH with nephrogenic diabetes insipidus indicates the kidneys are not responding to ADH, rather than a problem with ADH production.