A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician accompanied by her husband after he started noticing strange behavior. He first noticed her talking to herself 8 months ago. For the past 6 months, she has refused to eat any packaged foods out of fear that the government is trying to poison her. She has no significant past medical history. She smoked marijuana in college but has not smoked any since. She appears restless. Mental status examination shows a flat affect. Her speech is clear, but her thought process is disorganized with many loose associations. The patient is diagnosed with schizophrenia and started on olanzapine. This patient is most likely to experience which of the following adverse effects?
Q242
A 58-year-old African-American man with a history of congestive heart failure presents to the emergency room with headache, frequent vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, and heart palpitations. He is taking a drug that binds the sodium-potassium pump in myocytes. EKG reveals ventricular dysrhythmia. Which of the following is likely also present in the patient?
Q243
A 38-year-old woman applies a PABA sunscreen to her skin before going to the beach. Which type(s) of ultraviolet light will it protect her against?
Q244
A 59-year-old male with history of hypertension presents to your clinic for achy, stiff joints for the last several months. He states that he feels stiff in the morning, particularly in his shoulders, neck, and hips. Occasionally, the aches travel to his elbows and knees. His review of systems is positive for low-grade fever, tiredness and decreased appetite. On physical exam, there is decreased active and passive movements of his shoulders and hips secondary to pain without any obvious deformities or joint swelling. His laboratory tests are notable for an ESR of 52 mm/hr (normal for males: 0-22 mm/hr). What is the best treatment in management?
Q245
A 63-year-old man with a history of stage 4 chronic kidney disease (CKD) has started to develop refractory anemia. He denies any personal history of blood clots in his past, but he says that his mother has also had to be treated for deep venous thromboembolism in the past. His past medical history is significant for diabetes mellitus type 2, hypertension, non-seminomatous testicular cancer, and hypercholesterolemia. He currently smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day, drinks a glass of wine per day, and he currently denies any illicit drug use. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 87/min, and respiratory rate 17/min. On physical examination, the pulses are bounding, the complexion is pale, but breath sounds remain clear. Oxygen saturation was initially 91% on room air, with a new oxygen requirement of 2 L by nasal cannula. His primary care physician refers him to a hematologist, who is considering initiating the erythropoietin-stimulating agent (ESA), darbepoetin. Which of the following is true regarding the use of ESA?
Q246
A 19-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by the police. The officers indicate that he was acting violently and talking strangely. In the ED, he becomes increasingly more violent. On exam his vitals are: Temp 101.1 F, HR 119/min, BP 132/85 mmHg, and RR 18/min. Of note, he has vertical nystagmus on exam. What did this patient most likely ingest prior to presentation?
Q247
A researcher is investigating the behavior of two novel chemotherapeutic drugs that he believes will be effective against certain forms of lymphoma. In order to evaluate the safety of these drugs, this researcher measures the concentration and rate of elimination of each drug over time. A partial set of the results is provided below.
Time 1:
Concentration of Drug A: 4 mg/dl
Concentration of Drug B: 3 mg/dl
Elimination of Drug A: 1 mg/minute
Elimination of Drug B: 4 mg/minute
Time 2:
Concentration of Drug A: 2 mg/dl
Concentration of Drug B: 15 mg/dl
Elimination of Drug A: 0.5 mg/minute
Elimination of Drug B: 4 mg/minute
Which of the following statements correctly identifies the most likely relationship between the half-life of these two drugs?
Q248
An 8-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents because of vomiting, abdominal pain, and blurry vision for the past hour. The parents report that the boy developed these symptoms after he accidentally ingested 2 tablets of his grandfather’s heart failure medication. On physical examination, the child is drowsy, and his pulse is 120/min and irregular. Digoxin toxicity is suspected. A blood sample is immediately sent for analysis and shows a serum digoxin level of 4 ng/mL (therapeutic range: 0.8–2 ng/mL). Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is most likely to be present in the boy?
Q249
A 31-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a 2-week history of diarrhea. She says that she has also noticed that she is losing weight, which makes her feel anxious since she has relatives who have suffered from anorexia. Finally, she says that she is worried she has a fever because she feels warm and has been sweating profusely. On physical examination she is found to have proptosis, fine tremor of her hands, and symmetrical, non-tender thyroid enlargement. Which of the following types of enzymes is targeted by a treatment for this disease?
Q250
A 36-year-old man comes to the clinic for follow-up of his general anxiety disorder. He was diagnosed a year ago for excessive worry and irritability and was subsequently started on paroxetine. He demonstrated great response to therapy but is now complaining of decreased libido, which is affecting his marriage and quality of life. He wishes to switch to a different medication at this time. Following a scheduled tapering of paroxetine, the patient is started on a different medication that is a partial agonist of the 5-HT1A receptor. Which of the following is the most likely drug that was prescribed?
Autonomic/CV Drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 241: A 35-year-old woman comes to the physician accompanied by her husband after he started noticing strange behavior. He first noticed her talking to herself 8 months ago. For the past 6 months, she has refused to eat any packaged foods out of fear that the government is trying to poison her. She has no significant past medical history. She smoked marijuana in college but has not smoked any since. She appears restless. Mental status examination shows a flat affect. Her speech is clear, but her thought process is disorganized with many loose associations. The patient is diagnosed with schizophrenia and started on olanzapine. This patient is most likely to experience which of the following adverse effects?
A. Dyslipidemia (Correct Answer)
B. Diabetes insipidus
C. Agranulocytosis
D. Myoglobinuria
E. Seizures
Explanation: ***Dyslipidemia***
- **Olanzapine** is a **second-generation antipsychotic** commonly associated with significant **metabolic side effects**, including **weight gain**, **dyslipidemia**, and **insulin resistance**.
- These metabolic disturbances increase the risk of cardiovascular disease.
*Diabetes insipidus*
- This is a rare side effect, not typically associated with **olanzapine** or other **second-generation antipsychotics**.
- **Lithium** is an antimanic agent that can cause **nephrogenic diabetes insipidus**, but it is not relevant here.
*Agranulocytosis*
- While a serious side effect of some antipsychotics, **agranulocytosis** is most notably associated with **clozapine**,
- **Olanzapine** has a much lower risk of causing **agranulocytosis** compared to clozapine.
*Myoglobinuria*
- **Myoglobinuria** is associated with conditions like significant muscle damage (e.g., rhabdomyolysis).
- It is not a direct or common adverse effect of **olanzapine** therapy.
*Seizures*
- While some antipsychotics can lower the **seizure threshold**, **olanzapine** generally has a relatively low risk of inducing seizures.
- The risk is higher with certain other antipsychotics, particularly at high doses, or in patients with pre-existing seizure disorders.
Question 242: A 58-year-old African-American man with a history of congestive heart failure presents to the emergency room with headache, frequent vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, and heart palpitations. He is taking a drug that binds the sodium-potassium pump in myocytes. EKG reveals ventricular dysrhythmia. Which of the following is likely also present in the patient?
A. Angioedema
B. Changes in color vision (Correct Answer)
C. Bronchoconstriction
D. Cough
E. Decreased PR interval
Explanation: ***Changes in color vision***
- The patient's symptoms (headache, vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, heart palpitations, ventricular dysrhythmia) and the medication (**cardiac glycoside, like digoxin**) that binds the **sodium-potassium pump** are classic signs of **digoxin toxicity**.
- **Yellow-green vision**, known as xanthopsia, is a highly characteristic and specific visual disturbance associated with digoxin toxicity, often described as seeing halos around lights.
*Angioedema*
- **Angioedema** is an adverse effect commonly associated with **ACE inhibitors** due to their impact on bradykinin metabolism, which is not the drug class described.
- This symptom is unrelated to the mechanism of a sodium-potassium pump inhibitor or cardiac glycoside toxicity.
*Bronchoconstriction*
- **Bronchoconstriction** is a common side effect of **beta-blockers**, especially in patients with reactive airway disease, but not directly linked to cardiac glycosides.
- There is no direct mechanism by which a drug binding the sodium-potassium pump would cause airway narrowing.
*Cough*
- A persistent, dry **cough** is a well-known side effect of **ACE inhibitors**, which increase bradykinin levels.
- This symptom is not characteristic of digoxin toxicity or the action of a sodium-potassium pump inhibitor.
*Decreased PR interval*
- **Digoxin** typically works by **slowing AV nodal conduction**, which would lengthen, not decrease, the **PR interval** (if it were to change significantly due to toxicity, it would be prolongation or AV block).
- A decreased PR interval can be seen in conditions like **Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome**, or a rapid heart rate.
Question 243: A 38-year-old woman applies a PABA sunscreen to her skin before going to the beach. Which type(s) of ultraviolet light will it protect her against?
A. UVA and UVB
B. UVB and UVC
C. UVB (Correct Answer)
D. UVA
E. UVC
Explanation: ***UVB***
- **Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)** and its derivatives primarily absorb **UVB radiation** (290-320 nm), which is responsible for sunburn and erythema.
- PABA-containing sunscreens are effective at preventing the acute effects of sun exposure like sunburn caused by UVB.
- Traditional PABA sunscreens are primarily effective against **UVB only**, not broad-spectrum.
*UVA and UVB*
- While some modern sunscreens offer broad-spectrum protection against both UVA and UVB, traditional PABA sunscreens are primarily effective against **UVB only**.
- **UVA filters** (e.g., avobenzone, zinc oxide, titanium dioxide) are needed in addition to PABA to achieve protection against both types of radiation.
*UVB and UVC*
- PABA sunscreens protect against **UVB**, but **UVC radiation** (100-280 nm) is mostly blocked by the Earth's ozone layer and does not reach the Earth's surface.
- Sunscreens are not typically formulated to protect against UVC, as it is not a clinical concern for typical sun exposure.
*UVA*
- PABA is **not effective** at significantly absorbing or blocking **UVA radiation** (320-400 nm), which is primarily associated with photoaging, deeper skin damage, and tanning.
- Protection against UVA requires different chemical filters (avobenzone, ecamsule) or physical blockers (zinc oxide, titanium dioxide).
*UVC*
- **UVC radiation** does not reach the Earth's surface due to complete absorption by the ozone layer, making protection against it unnecessary for sunscreen formulations.
- Sunscreens, including those containing PABA, are not designed to filter UVC as it poses no risk in normal outdoor settings.
Question 244: A 59-year-old male with history of hypertension presents to your clinic for achy, stiff joints for the last several months. He states that he feels stiff in the morning, particularly in his shoulders, neck, and hips. Occasionally, the aches travel to his elbows and knees. His review of systems is positive for low-grade fever, tiredness and decreased appetite. On physical exam, there is decreased active and passive movements of his shoulders and hips secondary to pain without any obvious deformities or joint swelling. His laboratory tests are notable for an ESR of 52 mm/hr (normal for males: 0-22 mm/hr). What is the best treatment in management?
A. Corticosteroid (Correct Answer)
B. Bisphosphonate
C. Methotrexate
D. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agent
E. Hyaluronic acid
Explanation: ***Corticosteroid***
- The patient's symptoms (aching, stiff joints in shoulders, neck, and hips, morning stiffness, fever, fatigue, and elevated **ESR**) are highly suggestive of **polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR)**.
- **Corticosteroids** are the first-line and most effective treatment for PMR, leading to rapid symptomatic relief.
*Bisphosphonate*
- **Bisphosphonates** are primarily used to treat and prevent **osteoporosis** by reducing bone resorption.
- They have no direct role in the anti-inflammatory management of conditions like polymyalgia rheumatica.
*Methotrexate*
- **Methotrexate** is a **disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)** often used in conditions like **rheumatoid arthritis** or as a corticosteroid-sparing agent in some autoimmune diseases.
- It is not the initial treatment of choice for polymyalgia rheumatica, as corticosteroids provide faster and more definitive relief.
*Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agent*
- **NSAIDs** can provide some symptomatic relief for mild musculoskeletal pain, but they are generally ineffective for the systemic inflammation seen in **polymyalgia rheumatica**.
- They do not address the underlying inflammatory process and are not considered adequate treatment for PMR.
*Hyaluronic acid*
- **Hyaluronic acid injections** are used to treat **osteoarthritis**, primarily in the knee, to lubricate the joint and reduce pain.
- This treatment is for joint degeneration and has no role in the systemic inflammatory condition of polymyalgia rheumatica.
Question 245: A 63-year-old man with a history of stage 4 chronic kidney disease (CKD) has started to develop refractory anemia. He denies any personal history of blood clots in his past, but he says that his mother has also had to be treated for deep venous thromboembolism in the past. His past medical history is significant for diabetes mellitus type 2, hypertension, non-seminomatous testicular cancer, and hypercholesterolemia. He currently smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day, drinks a glass of wine per day, and he currently denies any illicit drug use. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 87/min, and respiratory rate 17/min. On physical examination, the pulses are bounding, the complexion is pale, but breath sounds remain clear. Oxygen saturation was initially 91% on room air, with a new oxygen requirement of 2 L by nasal cannula. His primary care physician refers him to a hematologist, who is considering initiating the erythropoietin-stimulating agent (ESA), darbepoetin. Which of the following is true regarding the use of ESA?
A. ESAs show efficacy with low iron levels
B. ESAs can improve survival in patients with breast and cervical cancers
C. ESAs are generally initiated when the hemoglobin level is < 10 g/dL (Correct Answer)
D. The highest-tolerated dose should be used in patients with chronic kidney disease
E. ESAs are utilized in patients receiving myelosuppressive chemotherapy with an anticipated curative outcome
Explanation: ***ESAs are generally initiated when the hemoglobin level is < 10 g/dL***
- Clinical guidelines recommend **considering** erythropoietin-stimulating agents (ESAs) when the hemoglobin level falls below **10 g/dL** to manage anemia in chronic kidney disease, balancing benefits and risks.
- Using ESAs at higher hemoglobin targets (e.g., >11.5 g/dL) has been associated with increased risks of **cardiovascular events**, **stroke**, and **thrombosis**.
- Treatment decisions should be individualized, considering symptoms, transfusion requirements, and patient preferences.
*ESAs show efficacy with low iron levels*
- **Iron deficiency** is a common cause of **ESA hyporesponsiveness**, meaning ESAs are less effective when iron stores are low.
- Adequate **iron supplementation** is crucial before and during ESA therapy to maximize treatment efficacy and reduce the required ESA dose.
*ESAs can improve survival in patients with breast and cervical cancers*
- ESAs have shown **no survival benefit** and may even worsen outcomes in patients with certain cancers, including **breast** and **cervical cancers**.
- Their use in cancer patients is generally restricted to managing **chemotherapy-induced anemia** to avoid transfusions, not to improve cancer-specific survival.
*The highest-tolerated dose should be used in patients with chronic kidney disease*
- The goal in CKD patients is to use the **lowest effective ESA dose** to achieve and maintain a hemoglobin level sufficient to avoid transfusions, typically between 10 and 11.5 g/dL.
- Using the highest-tolerated dose is **not recommended** due to increased risks of cardiovascular events, stroke, and **thromboembolism**.
*ESAs are utilized in patients receiving myelosuppressive chemotherapy with an anticipated curative outcome*
- ESAs are generally **contraindicated** in patients receiving myelosuppressive chemotherapy with an anticipated curative outcome, especially in non-myeloid malignancies.
- This is because ESAs may promote **tumor growth** and are linked to **inferior outcomes**, including reduced locoregional control and survival, in this specific population.
Question 246: A 19-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by the police. The officers indicate that he was acting violently and talking strangely. In the ED, he becomes increasingly more violent. On exam his vitals are: Temp 101.1 F, HR 119/min, BP 132/85 mmHg, and RR 18/min. Of note, he has vertical nystagmus on exam. What did this patient most likely ingest prior to presentation?
A. Marijuana
B. Dextromethorphan
C. Ketamine
D. Phencyclidine (Correct Answer)
E. Mescaline
Explanation: ***Phencyclidine***
- **Phencyclidine (PCP)** intoxication is characterized by acute behavioral changes, violence, hyperthermia, tachycardia, and hypertension.
- **Vertical nystagmus** is a classic and highly suggestive sign of PCP intoxication, due to its effect on cerebellar and vestibular pathways.
*Marijuana*
- Marijuana typically causes euphoria, relaxation, altered perception of time, and conjunctival injection, not aggression or vertical nystagmus.
- While it can impair coordination, it rarely leads to the extreme violence and specific vital sign abnormalities seen here.
*Dextromethorphan*
- Dextromethorphan (DXM) abuse can cause dissociative effects, hallucinations, nystagmus (often horizontal), and tachycardia.
- However, the severe violence and classic vertical nystagmus exhibited in this case are more characteristic of PCP.
*Ketamine*
- Ketamine, a dissociative anesthetic, can cause hallucinations, agitation, and nystagmus, similar to PCP.
- While it shares some effects with PCP, **vertical nystagmus** is more specifically associated with PCP toxicity.
*Mescaline*
- Mescaline is a psychedelic hallucinogen that primarily causes visual hallucinations, altered thought processes, and euphoria.
- It does not typically produce the severe violent behavior, hyperthermia, or characteristic vertical nystagmus seen with PCP.
Question 247: A researcher is investigating the behavior of two novel chemotherapeutic drugs that he believes will be effective against certain forms of lymphoma. In order to evaluate the safety of these drugs, this researcher measures the concentration and rate of elimination of each drug over time. A partial set of the results is provided below.
Time 1:
Concentration of Drug A: 4 mg/dl
Concentration of Drug B: 3 mg/dl
Elimination of Drug A: 1 mg/minute
Elimination of Drug B: 4 mg/minute
Time 2:
Concentration of Drug A: 2 mg/dl
Concentration of Drug B: 15 mg/dl
Elimination of Drug A: 0.5 mg/minute
Elimination of Drug B: 4 mg/minute
Which of the following statements correctly identifies the most likely relationship between the half-life of these two drugs?
A. The half-life of drug A is always longer than that of drug B
B. The half-life of both drug A and drug B are constant
C. The half-life of both drug A and drug B are variable
D. The half-life of drug A is variable but that of drug B is constant
E. The half-life of drug A is constant but that of drug B is variable (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***The half-life of drug A is constant but that of drug B is variable***
- Drug A shows a **constant fraction** eliminated per unit time (1 mg/minute from 4 mg/dl, then 0.5 mg/minute from 2 mg/dl), indicating **first-order kinetics** and thus a constant half-life.
- Drug B's elimination rate remains constant (4 mg/minute) despite varying concentrations (3 mg/dl then 15 mg/dl), which suggests **zero-order kinetics** and a variable half-life dependent on concentration.
*The half-life of drug A is always longer than that of drug B*
- This statement is incorrect because Drug B exhibits **zero-order kinetics**, meaning its **half-life changes** with concentration, making a constant comparison invalid.
- At very high concentrations, Drug B's half-life could actually be longer than Drug A's if the elimination rate is slow relative to the large amount of drug.
*The half-life of both drug A and drug B are constant*
- This is incorrect because Drug B demonstrates **zero-order kinetics**, where the elimination rate is constant, but the **half-life is variable** and directly depends on the drug concentration.
- For zero-order kinetics, a constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time, not a constant fraction, which causes the half-life to change.
*The half-life of both drug A and drug B are variable*
- This is incorrect because Drug A exhibits **first-order kinetics**, where a **constant proportion** of the drug is eliminated per unit time, resulting in a **constant half-life**.
- Its elimination rate is directly proportional to its concentration (1 mg/min from 4 mg/dl, 0.5 mg/min from 2 mg/dl), which defines first-order kinetics.
*The half-life of drug A is variable but that of drug B is constant*
- This statement is the opposite of what the data indicates for Drug A; Drug A's elimination is **proportional to its concentration**, signifying **first-order kinetics** and a constant half-life.
- Drug B's elimination rate is constant regardless of concentration, which points to **zero-order kinetics** and thus a variable half-life.
Question 248: An 8-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents because of vomiting, abdominal pain, and blurry vision for the past hour. The parents report that the boy developed these symptoms after he accidentally ingested 2 tablets of his grandfather’s heart failure medication. On physical examination, the child is drowsy, and his pulse is 120/min and irregular. Digoxin toxicity is suspected. A blood sample is immediately sent for analysis and shows a serum digoxin level of 4 ng/mL (therapeutic range: 0.8–2 ng/mL). Which of the following electrolyte abnormalities is most likely to be present in the boy?
A. Hypermagnesemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyperkalemia (Correct Answer)
E. Hypocalcemia
Explanation: ***Hyperkalemia***
- **Digoxin** inhibits the **Na+/K+-ATPase pump**, leading to an increase in intracellular sodium and a decrease in intracellular potassium.
- The decreased function of the Na+/K+-ATPase pump results in reduced cellular uptake of potassium, causing **elevated extracellular potassium** levels.
*Hypermagnesemia*
- **Magnesium** is not directly affected by digoxin toxicity in a way that would lead to hypermagnesemia; in fact, hypomagnesemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.
- High magnesium levels are typically associated with renal failure or excessive intake of magnesium-containing antacids or laxatives.
*Hypokalemia*
- While hypokalemia can **predispose to digoxin toxicity** (by increasing digoxin binding to the Na+/K+-ATPase pump), acute digoxin overdose, as described here, often leads to **hyperkalemia** due to the direct inhibition of the pump's ability to drive potassium into cells.
- The classic association of hypokalemia with digoxin refers more to its role as a risk factor for toxicity, especially with diuretic use, rather than a direct consequence of acute overdose.
*Hypercalcemia*
- **Calcium** levels are not directly altered to hypercalcemia by digoxin toxicity.
- Digoxin's mechanism involves increasing intracellular calcium by promoting calcium influx and inhibiting its efflux via the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger, but this typically does not manifest as measurable serum hypercalcemia.
*Hypocalcemia*
- Digoxin toxicity does not directly cause hypocalcemia.
- Digoxin actually leads to **increased intracellular calcium**, which is responsible for its positive inotropic effect, but this change is primarily intracellular and does not result in systemic hypocalcemia.
Question 249: A 31-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a 2-week history of diarrhea. She says that she has also noticed that she is losing weight, which makes her feel anxious since she has relatives who have suffered from anorexia. Finally, she says that she is worried she has a fever because she feels warm and has been sweating profusely. On physical examination she is found to have proptosis, fine tremor of her hands, and symmetrical, non-tender thyroid enlargement. Which of the following types of enzymes is targeted by a treatment for this disease?
A. Peroxidase (Correct Answer)
B. Kinase
C. Catalase
D. Cyclooxygenase
E. Phosphatase
Explanation: ***Peroxidase***
- The patient's symptoms (diarrhea, weight loss, anxiety, sweating, proptosis, fine tremor, and symmetrical thyroid enlargement) are classic for **Graves' disease**, a form of **hyperthyroidism**.
- **Thionamides** (e.g., propylthiouracil, methimazole) are a primary treatment for Graves' disease, and they work by inhibiting **thyroid peroxidase (TPO)**, an enzyme crucial for thyroid hormone synthesis.
*Kinase*
- **Kinases** are enzymes that catalyze the transfer of phosphate groups, often involved in signaling pathways. While kinases are important drug targets, they are not directly involved in the primary treatment mechanism for Graves' disease.
- Examples of kinase inhibitors include those used in cancer therapy, but not for hyperthyroidism's specific pathophysiology.
*Catalase*
- **Catalase** is an enzyme that catalyzes the decomposition of hydrogen peroxide into water and oxygen, protecting cells from oxidative damage.
- It has no direct role in the synthesis of thyroid hormones or as a target for hyperthyroidism treatment.
*Cyclooxygenase*
- **Cyclooxygenase (COX)** enzymes are involved in the synthesis of prostaglandins and thromboxanes, key mediators of inflammation and pain.
- COX inhibitors (like NSAIDs) are used for pain and inflammation, not for managing the hyperactive thyroid gland in Graves' disease.
*Phosphatase*
- **Phosphatases** are enzymes that remove phosphate groups from molecules. They play a role in various cellular processes but are not the primary target for drugs treating Graves' disease.
- While important in metabolic regulation, they are not directly inhibited by thionamide drugs used in hyperthyroidism.
Question 250: A 36-year-old man comes to the clinic for follow-up of his general anxiety disorder. He was diagnosed a year ago for excessive worry and irritability and was subsequently started on paroxetine. He demonstrated great response to therapy but is now complaining of decreased libido, which is affecting his marriage and quality of life. He wishes to switch to a different medication at this time. Following a scheduled tapering of paroxetine, the patient is started on a different medication that is a partial agonist of the 5-HT1A receptor. Which of the following is the most likely drug that was prescribed?
A. Diazepam
B. Duloxetine
C. Phenelzine
D. Amitriptyline
E. Buspirone (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Buspirone***
- **Buspirone** is a **5-HT1A receptor partial agonist** used for generalized anxiety disorder
- Has a **lower incidence of sexual side effects** compared to SSRIs, making it an ideal alternative when patients experience SSRI-induced sexual dysfunction
- Delayed onset of action (2-4 weeks) but effective for long-term anxiety management without dependence risk
*Diazepam*
- Benzodiazepine that enhances GABA-A receptor activity, not a 5-HT1A partial agonist
- While effective for acute anxiety, carries risks of dependence, sedation, and tolerance
- Not appropriate for long-term management or as a switch for SSRI-induced sexual dysfunction
*Duloxetine*
- Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), not a 5-HT1A partial agonist
- Can also cause **sexual dysfunction** similar to SSRIs (decreased libido, anorgasmia)
- Would not address the patient's primary complaint
*Phenelzine*
- Monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) affecting multiple neurotransmitters, not a 5-HT1A partial agonist
- Requires strict dietary restrictions (tyramine-free diet) and has significant drug interactions
- Reserved for treatment-resistant anxiety/depression, not first-line for SSRI side effect management
*Amitriptyline*
- Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) that inhibits norepinephrine and serotonin reuptake
- Not a 5-HT1A partial agonist
- Can cause sexual dysfunction along with anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention), sedation, and orthostatic hypotension