An 8-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents 30 minutes after losing consciousness. He was at a water park with his family when he fell to the ground and started to have jerking movements of the arms and legs. On arrival, he continues to have generalized, violent muscle contractions and is unresponsive to verbal and painful stimuli. The emergency department physician administers lorazepam. The expected beneficial effect of this drug is most likely caused by which of the following mechanisms?
Q192
A 71-year-old man is brought in by his wife with acute onset aphasia and weakness in his right arm and leg for the past 2 hours. The patient's wife says they were eating breakfast when he suddenly could not speak. His symptoms have not improved over the past 2 hours. The patient denies any similar symptoms in the past. His past medical history is significant for immune thrombocytopenic purpura, managed intermittently with oral prednisone, hypertension, managed with hydrochlorothiazide, and a previous myocardial infarction (MI) 6 months ago. The patient reports a 20-pack-year smoking history and moderate daily alcohol use. His family history is significant for his father who died of an MI at age 58 and his older brother who died of a stroke at age 59. The vital signs include: blood pressure 190/115 mm Hg, pulse 85/min, and respiratory rate 20/min. On physical examination, there is a noticeable weakness of the lower facial muscles on the right. The muscle strength in his upper and lower extremities is 4/5 on the right and 5/5 on the left. There is also a loss of sensation on the right. He has expressive aphasia. The laboratory findings are significant for the following:
WBC 7,500/mm³
RBC 4.40 × 10⁶/mm³
Hematocrit 41.5%
Hemoglobin 14.0 g/dL
Platelet count 95,000/mm³
A noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the head is unremarkable. Diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and CT angiography (CTA) confirms a left middle cerebral artery (MCA) ischemic stroke. Which of the following aspects of this patient's history is a contraindication to intravenous (IV) tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)?
Q193
A steel welder presents to his family physician with a one-week history of intense abdominal cramping with nausea, vomiting, constipation, headaches, myalgias, and arthralgias. He claims that the symptoms started about two months after he began work on replacing the pipes in an early 20th century house. Blood was taken and he was found to have a microcytic, hypochromic anemia with basophilic stippling. Which of the following is the best treatment for his symptoms?
Q194
A 14-year-old teenager is brought to the physician by her mother who seems extremely concerned that her daughter is unable to sleep at night and has become increasingly irritated and aggressive. She has been noticing changes in her daughter's behavior recently. She had no idea what was going on until she found pills hidden in her daughter's room a week ago. Her daughter confessed that she tried these drugs once with her friends and started using them since then. Her mother threw away all the pills and prevented her daughter from seeing her friends. This is when she started to notice her daughter tear often and sweat. She is seeking a quick and effective treatment for her daughter. Which drug was the teenager most likely using?
Q195
A 56-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of progressive swelling and pain in his left calf for 1 day. He does not have shortness of breath or chest pain. He has hypertension and chronic kidney disease. Current medications include enalapril, aspirin, simvastatin, and vitamin D. His temperature is 100.4°F (38°C), pulse is 84/min, and blood pressure is 135/92 mm Hg. Physical examination shows tenderness and swelling of the left lower extremity. A venous Doppler ultrasonography shows a thrombus in the left popliteal vein. Treatment with unfractionated heparin is begun. Two days later, physical examination shows improvement of symptoms. Laboratory studies at admission and 2 days after admission show:
Admission Two days after admission
Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL 11.1 g/dL
Leukocyte count 5,500/mm3 6,100/mm3
Platelet count 230,000/mm3 170,000/mm3
Serum
Prothrombin time 12 seconds 13 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time 30 seconds 55 seconds
Estimated glomerular filtration rate 29 mL/min/1.73 m2 28 mL/min/1.73 m2
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q196
A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe nausea and diarrhea. One day prior to presentation, she went to a new seafood restaurant known for serving exotic fish. For the past day she experienced nausea, diarrhea, weakness, and a tingling sensation in her extremities. In the emergency department, her temperature is 100.3°F (37.9°C), blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, pulse is 105/min, and respirations are 20/min. On physical examination, she appears fatigued and has 1+ Achilles and patellar reflexes. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the compound most likely responsible for this patient's clinical presentation?
Q197
A 19-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder and an unknown cardiac arrhythmia presents with palpitations and chest pain. She admits to taking lithium and procainamide regularly, but she ran out of medication 2 weeks ago and has not been able to get refills. Her family history is significant for bipolar disorder in her mother and maternal aunt. Her vital signs include blood pressure 130/90 mm Hg, pulse 110/min, respiratory rate 18/min. Physical examination is significant for a widely split first heart sound with a holosystolic murmur loudest over the left sternal border. Visible cyanosis is noted in the lips and nailbeds. An electrocardiogram is performed which shows intermittent supraventricular tachyarrhythmia with a right bundle branch block. Her cardiac enzymes are normal. An echocardiogram is performed, which shows evidence of a dilated right atria with portions of the tricuspid valve displaced towards the apex. Which of the following medications was this patient most likely exposed to prenatally?
Q198
A 62-year-old man comes to the physician because of gradual onset of bilateral ankle swelling over the past month. He also noticed reddish blotches of skin around his ankles. Five weeks ago, he came to the physician with difficulty walking and a resting tremor. He was diagnosed with Parkinson disease and started on medication. He has a history of hypertension and his antihypertensive medications were also adjusted. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 64/min, respirations are 13/min, and blood pressure is 124/74 mm Hg. Physical examination shows bilateral 2+ edema in the ankles. There is purple-red discoloration on the lower legs in a reticular pattern. Neurologic examination shows resting tremor in both hands and bilateral cogwheel rigidity in the elbows. Which of the following pharmacotherapies is the most likely cause of this patient's edema?
Q199
A 56-year-old woman presents with fatigue and joint pain in her fingers and wrists for the last 6 months. She says the pain is present in both hands, and her wrists are also swollen. Furthermore, she describes morning stiffness in her joints lasting about 2 hours, which improves with use. She has been taking acetaminophen, which provided minimal relief, but the swelling has gotten progressively worse. She also feels increasingly tired. Her past medical history reveals she has been successfully treated for Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) related ulcers last year but still takes omeprazole for her mild gastroesophageal reflux. The patient denies any smoking history and stopped drinking when her gastric symptoms started. Which of the following analgesic drugs is the best choice to use in this patient?
Q200
A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 1-hour history of heavy nasal bleeding. He drinks half a bottle of sherry daily. His pulse is 112/min, and blood pressure is 92/54 mm Hg. Physical examination shows scattered ecchymoses across the extremities and oozing from a venipuncture site. Laboratory studies show a prothrombin time of 28 seconds and a partial thromboplastin time of 36 seconds. Impaired function of which of the following proteins is the most likely cause of this patient's hemorrhage?
Autonomic/CV Drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: An 8-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents 30 minutes after losing consciousness. He was at a water park with his family when he fell to the ground and started to have jerking movements of the arms and legs. On arrival, he continues to have generalized, violent muscle contractions and is unresponsive to verbal and painful stimuli. The emergency department physician administers lorazepam. The expected beneficial effect of this drug is most likely caused by which of the following mechanisms?
A. Increased affinity of GABAA receptors for GABAB agonists
B. Noncompetitive NMDA receptor antagonism
C. Increased duration of chloride channel opening
D. Allosteric activation of GABAA receptors (Correct Answer)
E. Inhibition of GABA transaminase
Explanation: ***Allosteric activation of GABAA receptors***
- **Lorazepam** is a **benzodiazepine** that acts as a positive allosteric modulator of the **GABAA receptor**.
- This binding enhances the effect of **GABA**, leading to increased frequency of **chloride channel opening** and neuronal hyperpolarization, which ultimately suppresses seizure activity.
*Increased affinity of GABAA receptors for GABAB agonists*
- This statement is incorrect because lorazepam acts on **GABAA receptors** and does not increase the affinity for **GABAB agonists**.
- **GABAB agonists** like baclofen act on a different receptor subtype and have a distinct mechanism of action.
*Noncompetitive NMDA receptor antagonism*
- This mechanism describes drugs like **ketamine** or **phencyclidine (PCP)**, which block the **NMDA receptor** to produce anesthetic or dissociative effects.
- Lorazepam's primary action is on the **GABAA receptor**, not the **NMDA receptor**.
*Increased duration of chloride channel opening*
- While benzodiazepines increase chloride influx, they primarily do so by increasing the **frequency** of **chloride channel opening**, not the duration.
- **Barbiturates**, such as phenobarbital, are known to increase the **duration** of chloride channel opening.
*Inhibition of GABA transaminase*
- **GABA transaminase** is an enzyme responsible for GABA metabolism. Its inhibition would lead to increased GABA levels in the synapse.
- **Valproic acid** is an example of an antiepileptic drug that inhibits **GABA transaminase**, but this is not the mechanism of action for lorazepam.
Question 192: A 71-year-old man is brought in by his wife with acute onset aphasia and weakness in his right arm and leg for the past 2 hours. The patient's wife says they were eating breakfast when he suddenly could not speak. His symptoms have not improved over the past 2 hours. The patient denies any similar symptoms in the past. His past medical history is significant for immune thrombocytopenic purpura, managed intermittently with oral prednisone, hypertension, managed with hydrochlorothiazide, and a previous myocardial infarction (MI) 6 months ago. The patient reports a 20-pack-year smoking history and moderate daily alcohol use. His family history is significant for his father who died of an MI at age 58 and his older brother who died of a stroke at age 59. The vital signs include: blood pressure 190/115 mm Hg, pulse 85/min, and respiratory rate 20/min. On physical examination, there is a noticeable weakness of the lower facial muscles on the right. The muscle strength in his upper and lower extremities is 4/5 on the right and 5/5 on the left. There is also a loss of sensation on the right. He has expressive aphasia. The laboratory findings are significant for the following:
WBC 7,500/mm³
RBC 4.40 × 10⁶/mm³
Hematocrit 41.5%
Hemoglobin 14.0 g/dL
Platelet count 95,000/mm³
A noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the head is unremarkable. Diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and CT angiography (CTA) confirms a left middle cerebral artery (MCA) ischemic stroke. Which of the following aspects of this patient's history is a contraindication to intravenous (IV) tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)?
A. Platelet count 95,000/mm3 (Correct Answer)
B. 20-pack-year smoking history
C. Age 71 years
D. Myocardial infarction 6 months ago
E. Blood pressure 190/115 mm Hg
Explanation: ***Platelet count 95,000/mm³***
- A **platelet count less than 100,000/mm³** is a **contraindication to IV tPA** due to an increased risk of hemorrhagic transformation.
- This patient's history of **immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)** explains the low platelet count, further increasing the bleeding risk.
*20-pack-year smoking history*
- A history of **smoking** is a significant **risk factor for stroke**, but it is **not a contraindication for tPA** administration.
- While smoking contributes to atherosclerosis and increased stroke risk, it does not directly affect the immediate decision for thrombolysis.
*Age 71 years*
- Although older age is associated with increased risk of complications from tPA, **age itself is not an absolute contraindication** for intravenous tPA in eligible patients.
- The decision to administer tPA in older adults is based on a comprehensive risk-benefit assessment, not solely on age.
*Myocardial infarction 6 months ago*
- A **prior myocardial infarction** is a risk factor for future strokes but is **not a contraindication to tPA** as long as it did not occur within the last 3 months (for specific types of MI with cardiac thrombus) or result in the placement of a cardiac device that would contraindicate tPA.
- This event occurred 6 months ago, placing it outside of the acute concern for thrombolysis.
*Blood pressure 190/115 mm Hg*
- **Elevated blood pressure above 185/110 mm Hg** is a **contraindication to tPA**; however, it can often be **managed with antihypertensive medications** to bring it within the acceptable range prior to administration.
- In this case, while the blood pressure is high, it can potentially be controlled to allow for tPA, unlike a low platelet count which is a more absolute contraindication.
Question 193: A steel welder presents to his family physician with a one-week history of intense abdominal cramping with nausea, vomiting, constipation, headaches, myalgias, and arthralgias. He claims that the symptoms started about two months after he began work on replacing the pipes in an early 20th century house. Blood was taken and he was found to have a microcytic, hypochromic anemia with basophilic stippling. Which of the following is the best treatment for his symptoms?
A. Prussian blue
B. Deferasirox
C. EDTA (Correct Answer)
D. N-acetylcysteine
E. Deferoxamine
Explanation: ***EDTA***
- The patient's symptoms (abdominal cramping, nausea, vomiting, constipation, headaches, myalgias, arthralgias), occupation (steel welder working on old pipes), and lab findings (**microcytic, hypochromic anemia** with **basophilic stippling**) are highly suggestive of **lead poisoning**.
- **EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid)** is a chelating agent that binds to lead and promotes its excretion, making it the most appropriate treatment for severe lead poisoning.
*Prussian blue*
- This is an antidote for **thallium** and **radioactive cesium poisoning**, not lead.
- It works by trapping these ions in the gut, preventing their absorption and increasing their fecal excretion.
*Deferasirox*
- This is an **oral iron chelator** used for treating **iron overload**, particularly in patients with thalassemia who receive frequent blood transfusions.
- It is not indicated for lead poisoning.
*N-acetylcysteine*
- This agent is primarily used as an antidote for **acetaminophen overdose** by replenishing glutathione stores.
- It also has applications in certain respiratory conditions as a mucolytic, but not in lead poisoning.
*Deferoxamine*
- This is another **iron chelator**, administered intravenously or subcutaneously, primarily used for acute iron intoxication or chronic iron overload (e.g., hemochromatosis).
- Like deferasirox, it is specific for iron and not used for lead poisoning.
Question 194: A 14-year-old teenager is brought to the physician by her mother who seems extremely concerned that her daughter is unable to sleep at night and has become increasingly irritated and aggressive. She has been noticing changes in her daughter's behavior recently. She had no idea what was going on until she found pills hidden in her daughter's room a week ago. Her daughter confessed that she tried these drugs once with her friends and started using them since then. Her mother threw away all the pills and prevented her daughter from seeing her friends. This is when she started to notice her daughter tear often and sweat. She is seeking a quick and effective treatment for her daughter. Which drug was the teenager most likely using?
A. Atomoxetine
B. Naloxone
C. Marijuana
D. Oxycodone (Correct Answer)
E. Cocaine
Explanation: ***Oxycodone***
- The patient's symptoms of **irritability**, **aggression**, inability to sleep, tearing, and sweating after the mother disposing of her pills are consistent with **opioid withdrawal**.
- **Oxycodone** is a potent opioid analgesic that can lead to significant physical dependence and withdrawal symptoms upon cessation.
*Atomoxetine*
- **Atomoxetine** is a norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor used for **ADHD**; it does not typically cause these withdrawal symptoms.
- Discontinuation of atomoxetine usually does not result in the severe physiological withdrawal syndrome described.
*Naloxone*
- **Naloxone** is an **opioid antagonist** used to reverse opioid overdose, not a drug of abuse that would cause these withdrawal symptoms.
- Its mechanism of action involves blocking opioid receptors, which would precipitate withdrawal if given to an opioid-dependent individual but is not itself abused in this manner.
*Marijuana*
- **Marijuana withdrawal** can cause irritability and sleep disturbances, but typically does not involve physical symptoms like significant tearing and sweating.
- Marijuana is an illicit drug, and withdrawal is generally less severe than opioid withdrawal.
*Cocaine*
- **Cocaine withdrawal** is primarily psychological, characterized by **dysphoria**, fatigue, and intense cravings, without the prominent physical symptoms like tearing and sweating seen here.
- While cocaine abuse is strongly associated with aggression and irritability, the specific physical withdrawal symptoms point away from it.
Question 195: A 56-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of progressive swelling and pain in his left calf for 1 day. He does not have shortness of breath or chest pain. He has hypertension and chronic kidney disease. Current medications include enalapril, aspirin, simvastatin, and vitamin D. His temperature is 100.4°F (38°C), pulse is 84/min, and blood pressure is 135/92 mm Hg. Physical examination shows tenderness and swelling of the left lower extremity. A venous Doppler ultrasonography shows a thrombus in the left popliteal vein. Treatment with unfractionated heparin is begun. Two days later, physical examination shows improvement of symptoms. Laboratory studies at admission and 2 days after admission show:
Admission Two days after admission
Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL 11.1 g/dL
Leukocyte count 5,500/mm3 6,100/mm3
Platelet count 230,000/mm3 170,000/mm3
Serum
Prothrombin time 12 seconds 13 seconds
Partial thromboplastin time 30 seconds 55 seconds
Estimated glomerular filtration rate 29 mL/min/1.73 m2 28 mL/min/1.73 m2
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Switch to warfarin
B. Obtain serum immunoassay
C. Switch to enoxaparin
D. Discontinue heparin and initiate argatroban (Correct Answer)
E. Continue unfractionated heparin
Explanation: ***Discontinue heparin and initiate argatroban***
- The **26% drop in platelet count** (from 230,000 to 170,000/mm³) occurring **2 days after starting unfractionated heparin (UFH)** raises high suspicion for **heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)**.
- When HIT is suspected (intermediate to high probability by 4T score), the **most critical next step** is to **immediately discontinue all heparin products** and **start a non-heparin anticoagulant**.
- **Argatroban** is the preferred alternative in this patient with **chronic kidney disease (eGFR 28 mL/min)** as it is hepatically metabolized and safe in renal impairment.
- HIT antibody testing should be obtained concurrently, but **therapeutic anticoagulation must not be delayed** while awaiting results.
*Obtain serum immunoassay*
- While **HIT antibody testing** (heparin-PF4 immunoassay) should be obtained to confirm the diagnosis, it is **not the most appropriate next step**.
- The priority is to **stop heparin exposure immediately** and provide alternative anticoagulation to prevent thrombotic complications.
- Testing can and should be done concurrently with changing anticoagulation.
*Switch to warfarin*
- Initiating **warfarin alone** in suspected or confirmed HIT is **contraindicated** and can cause **venous limb gangrene** due to rapid depletion of protein C before clotting factors.
- Warfarin should only be started after platelet count recovery (>150,000/mm³) and after at least 5 days of therapeutic non-heparin anticoagulation.
*Switch to enoxaparin*
- **Enoxaparin** (low-molecular-weight heparin) has **>90% cross-reactivity** with HIT antibodies.
- Switching to LMWH in suspected HIT is **contraindicated** as it will perpetuate platelet activation and thrombosis.
*Continue unfractionated heparin*
- Continuing UFH with a significant **platelet drop** is dangerous and will worsen **HIT**, leading to life-threatening **arterial and venous thrombosis**.
- Immediate discontinuation is imperative.
Question 196: A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe nausea and diarrhea. One day prior to presentation, she went to a new seafood restaurant known for serving exotic fish. For the past day she experienced nausea, diarrhea, weakness, and a tingling sensation in her extremities. In the emergency department, her temperature is 100.3°F (37.9°C), blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, pulse is 105/min, and respirations are 20/min. On physical examination, she appears fatigued and has 1+ Achilles and patellar reflexes. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the compound most likely responsible for this patient's clinical presentation?
A. Increases synthesis of histamine
B. Promotes depolarization of Na+ channels (Correct Answer)
C. Superantigen that activates T-cells
D. Permanent Gs activation
E. Prevents depolarization of Na+ channels
Explanation: ***Promotes depolarization of Na+ channels***
- The patient's symptoms, including **nausea**, **diarrhea**, **weakness**, **tingling extremities**, and consumption of **exotic fish**, are highly suggestive of **ciguatera poisoning**.
- **Ciguatoxin**, the primary toxin responsible for ciguatera, acts by **binding to voltage-gated sodium channels and keeping them in an open state**, leading to **persistent depolarization** and sustained sodium influx.
- This mechanism explains the **neurological symptoms** (paresthesias, weakness, hyporeflexia) and **gastrointestinal symptoms** characteristic of ciguatera poisoning.
*Prevents depolarization of Na+ channels*
- This mechanism describes **sodium channel BLOCKERS** such as **tetrodotoxin** (found in pufferfish).
- Tetrodotoxin **blocks sodium channels**, preventing depolarization and causing paralysis, respiratory failure, and potentially death.
- While tetrodotoxin poisoning can present with neurological symptoms, the clinical picture here (GI symptoms predominant, mild hypotension, consumption from "exotic fish restaurant") is more consistent with ciguatera, which has the **opposite mechanism** (promotes channel opening).
*Increases synthesis of histamine*
- This mechanism is associated with **scombroid poisoning**, which typically involves the consumption of improperly stored dark-meat fish like tuna or mackerel.
- Bacterial histidine decarboxylase converts histidine to histamine in decomposing fish.
- Scombroid poisoning presents as an **allergic-type reaction** (flushing, urticaria, headache, bronchospasm) rather than the neurological symptoms seen in this patient.
*Superantigen that activates T-cells*
- This mechanism is characteristic of toxins produced by bacteria such as *Staphylococcus aureus* or *Streptococcus pyogenes*, causing conditions like **toxic shock syndrome**.
- Toxic shock syndrome presents with high fever, diffuse erythematous rash, hypotension, and multi-organ involvement.
- Foodborne illness caused by superantigens typically involves severe gastrointestinal distress but not the specific neurological symptoms like paresthesias and hyporeflexia.
*Permanent Gs activation*
- **Gs protein** activation leads to increased **cAMP** levels, seen with **cholera toxin** (*Vibrio cholerae*) or **pertussis toxin** (*Bordetella pertussis*).
- Cholera toxin causes massive secretory **watery diarrhea** ("rice-water stools") leading to severe dehydration.
- This mechanism does not explain the neurological findings of tingling extremities, weakness, and hyporeflexia seen in this patient.
Question 197: A 19-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder and an unknown cardiac arrhythmia presents with palpitations and chest pain. She admits to taking lithium and procainamide regularly, but she ran out of medication 2 weeks ago and has not been able to get refills. Her family history is significant for bipolar disorder in her mother and maternal aunt. Her vital signs include blood pressure 130/90 mm Hg, pulse 110/min, respiratory rate 18/min. Physical examination is significant for a widely split first heart sound with a holosystolic murmur loudest over the left sternal border. Visible cyanosis is noted in the lips and nailbeds. An electrocardiogram is performed which shows intermittent supraventricular tachyarrhythmia with a right bundle branch block. Her cardiac enzymes are normal. An echocardiogram is performed, which shows evidence of a dilated right atria with portions of the tricuspid valve displaced towards the apex. Which of the following medications was this patient most likely exposed to prenatally?
A. Insulin
B. Antihypertensive
C. Mood stabilizer (Correct Answer)
D. Antidepressant
E. Isotretinoin
Explanation: ***Mood stabilizer***
- The echocardiogram findings of a **dilated right atrium** and **apically displaced tricuspid valve leaflets** are classic for **Ebstein anomaly**.
- **Lithium**, a mood stabilizer used for bipolar disorder, is a known teratogen associated with **Ebstein anomaly** when taken during the first trimester of pregnancy.
*Insulin*
- **Insulin** is the primary treatment for diabetes and is not directly associated with **Ebstein anomaly**.
- While uncontrolled maternal diabetes can lead to various congenital anomalies, the specific cardiac defect described is not typically linked to insulin use itself.
*Antihypertensive*
- **Antihypertensive medications** are used to treat high blood pressure and are not known to cause **Ebstein anomaly**.
- Certain antihypertensives might have other fetal effects, but this specific cardiac malformation is not a recognized side effect.
*Antidepressant*
- Studies have linked some **antidepressants** to various congenital anomalies, but **Ebstein anomaly** is not a common or direct association.
- The clinical picture strongly points to a lithium-induced anomaly.
*Isotretinoin*
- **Isotretinoin** is a severe teratogen primarily known for causing **craniofacial, central nervous system, and cardiovascular defects**, including conotruncal abnormalities.
- While it can cause congenital heart defects, **Ebstein anomaly** is not its most characteristic cardiac malformation, and the patient's history of bipolar disorder points more directly to lithium.
Question 198: A 62-year-old man comes to the physician because of gradual onset of bilateral ankle swelling over the past month. He also noticed reddish blotches of skin around his ankles. Five weeks ago, he came to the physician with difficulty walking and a resting tremor. He was diagnosed with Parkinson disease and started on medication. He has a history of hypertension and his antihypertensive medications were also adjusted. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 64/min, respirations are 13/min, and blood pressure is 124/74 mm Hg. Physical examination shows bilateral 2+ edema in the ankles. There is purple-red discoloration on the lower legs in a reticular pattern. Neurologic examination shows resting tremor in both hands and bilateral cogwheel rigidity in the elbows. Which of the following pharmacotherapies is the most likely cause of this patient's edema?
A. Lisinopril
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Levodopa/carbidopa
D. Amantadine (Correct Answer)
E. Benztropine
Explanation: ***Amantadine***
- **Amantadine** is known to cause peripheral edema, particularly in the lower extremities, as a side effect.
- The patient's history of **Parkinson disease** and recent initiation of medication makes amantadine a highly likely cause if it was part of his regimen.
- **Key diagnostic clue:** The purple-red discoloration in a reticular pattern (livedo reticularis) combined with peripheral edema is a **classic and pathognomonic presentation** of amantadine side effects.
*Lisinopril*
- **Lisinopril** (an ACE inhibitor) can cause angioedema of the face, lips, or tongue but is not typically associated with bilateral ankle edema.
- While it can be used for hypertension, it's not a common cause of this specific type of peripheral edema.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- **Hydrochlorothiazide** is a diuretic that helps to reduce fluid retention and treat edema, rather than cause it.
- It works by increasing the excretion of sodium and water by the kidneys.
*Levodopa/carbidopa*
- While **levodopa/carbidopa** can cause various side effects in Parkinson's patients, peripheral edema is not a common or significant side effect.
- Common side effects include nausea, dizziness, dyskinesia, and psychiatric disturbances.
*Benztropine*
- **Benztropine** is an anticholinergic medication used for Parkinson's disease, and its common side effects include dry mouth, constipation, and blurred vision.
- It is not typically associated with causing peripheral edema.
Question 199: A 56-year-old woman presents with fatigue and joint pain in her fingers and wrists for the last 6 months. She says the pain is present in both hands, and her wrists are also swollen. Furthermore, she describes morning stiffness in her joints lasting about 2 hours, which improves with use. She has been taking acetaminophen, which provided minimal relief, but the swelling has gotten progressively worse. She also feels increasingly tired. Her past medical history reveals she has been successfully treated for Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) related ulcers last year but still takes omeprazole for her mild gastroesophageal reflux. The patient denies any smoking history and stopped drinking when her gastric symptoms started. Which of the following analgesic drugs is the best choice to use in this patient?
A. Indomethacin
B. Naproxen
C. Diclofenac
D. Aspirin
E. Celecoxib (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Celecoxib***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **rheumatoid arthritis**, characterized by **symmetric polyarticular joint pain**, swelling, and prolonged morning stiffness, along with fatigue. Given her history of **H. pylori-related ulcers** and current omeprazole use for GERD, she is at increased risk for **gastrointestinal complications** from traditional NSAIDs.
- **Celecoxib** is a **selective COX-2 inhibitor**, which preferentially inhibits the COX-2 enzyme responsible for inflammation and pain, while sparing COX-1, which protects the gastric mucosa. This makes it a safer choice for patients with a **history of GI ulcers** or at high risk for ulcer development.
*Indomethacin*
- Indomethacin is a **non-selective NSAID** that inhibits both COX-1 and COX-2. Given the patient's history of H. pylori ulcers and current omeprazole use, it carries a **high risk of causing gastric irritation** and ulcer recurrence.
- Its use would counteract the protective effects of omeprazole and potentially lead to further gastrointestinal complications.
*Naproxen*
- Naproxen is also a **non-selective NSAID** and thus carries a **significant risk of gastrointestinal adverse effects**, including gastric ulcers and bleeding, especially in a patient with a history of H. pylori ulcers.
- Using naproxen would be inappropriate due to the increased risk of exacerbating her pre-existing gastric issues.
*Diclofenac*
- Diclofenac is another **non-selective NSAID** with a considerable risk of **gastrointestinal complications**, similar to indomethacin and naproxen.
- Its use is not recommended given the patient's vulnerable gastric history, making it an unsafe option for long-term pain management in this case.
*Aspirin*
- **Regular-dose aspirin** is a **non-selective NSAID** and is particularly known for its strong inhibition of COX-1, leading to a high risk of **gastrointestinal bleeding** and ulcer formation.
- While low-dose aspirin is used for cardiovascular protection, high-dose aspirin for pain and inflammation is contraindicated in patients with a history of ulcers.
Question 200: A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 1-hour history of heavy nasal bleeding. He drinks half a bottle of sherry daily. His pulse is 112/min, and blood pressure is 92/54 mm Hg. Physical examination shows scattered ecchymoses across the extremities and oozing from a venipuncture site. Laboratory studies show a prothrombin time of 28 seconds and a partial thromboplastin time of 36 seconds. Impaired function of which of the following proteins is the most likely cause of this patient's hemorrhage?
A. Von Willebrand factor
B. Protein S
C. Epoxide reductase
D. Prolyl hydroxylase
E. Gamma-glutamyl carboxylase (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gamma-glutamyl carboxylase***
- This enzyme is crucial for the post-translational modification of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X, protein C, protein S) by adding a **gamma-carboxyglutamate** residue, which is essential for their function.
- Chronic alcohol abuse, suggested by drinking half a bottle of sherry daily, often leads to **hepatic dysfunction** and **nutritional deficiencies**, including vitamin K deficiency. Vitamin K deficiency impairs gamma-glutamyl carboxylase activity by depriving it of its essential cofactor (reduced vitamin K), leading to dysfunctional clotting factors. The prolonged **PT (extrinsic and common pathways)** and slightly prolonged **aPTT (intrinsic and common pathways)**, along with bleeding signs (epistaxis, ecchymoses, oozing from venipuncture), are consistent with this.
*Von Willebrand factor*
- Deficiency or dysfunction of **von Willebrand factor** primarily causes defects in **primary hemostasis**, leading to mucosal bleeding (like epistaxis) and increased bleeding time.
- However, it would typically not cause significant prolongation of both **PT** and **aPTT**, as it is not directly involved in the coagulation cascade measured by these tests.
*Protein S*
- **Protein S** is a natural anticoagulant and a cofactor for activated protein C, which inactivates factors Va and VIIIa.
- A deficiency would lead to a **procoagulant state**, increasing the risk of thrombosis, not a bleeding disorder like the one described.
*Epoxide reductase*
- **Vitamin K epoxide reductase (VKOR)** is responsible for recycling oxidized vitamin K back to its reduced form, which serves as the cofactor for gamma-glutamyl carboxylase.
- While VKOR dysfunction (e.g., by warfarin inhibition) would also lead to similar coagulation abnormalities, in the context of vitamin K deficiency from chronic alcoholism and malnutrition, the primary functional impairment occurs at the level of **gamma-glutamyl carboxylase**, which lacks its essential cofactor (reduced vitamin K) to perform the carboxylation reaction. This makes gamma-glutamyl carboxylase the most direct answer to the question of which protein's function is impaired.
*Prolyl hydroxylase*
- **Prolyl hydroxylase** is involved in the hydroxylation of proline residues, primarily in collagen synthesis.
- A deficiency or impaired function would lead to disorders like **scurvy** (due to vitamin C deficiency), which can cause bleeding due to fragile blood vessels, but it would not typically cause the specific pattern of prolonged **PT** and **aPTT** seen in this patient, which points directly to a defect in the coagulation cascade.