Autonomic/CV Drugs — MCQs

A 54-year-old woman comes to the physician with abdominal distention and mild diffuse abdominal discomfort. She has not had nausea, vomiting, fever, or chills. She was diagnosed with alcoholic liver cirrhosis 2 years ago. Examination shows a protruding, distended abdomen that is dull to percussion with a positive fluid wave. Ultrasonography shows mild to moderate ascites. Appropriate treatment of the patient's condition is started. Four days later, the patient experiences palpitations and chest pain at home. She is brought to the emergency department, where her temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 182/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 82/50 mm Hg. An ECG shows ventricular tachycardia. Initial laboratory studies show: Serum Na+ 131 mEq/L K+ 2.9 mEq/L Cl- 92 mEq/L Bicarbonate 34 mEq/L Urea nitrogen 42 mg/dL Creatinine 4.8 mg/dL Glucose 90 mg/dL Ca2+ 8.1 mg/dL Mg2+ 1.5 mg/dL Phosphate 4.7 mg/dL Arterial Blood Gas pH 7.52 pCO2 45 mm Hg pO2 90.2 mm Hg She is successfully cardioverted to normal sinus rhythm. Which of the following treatments is most likely responsible for this patient's presentation?

A 28-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after he was found half dressed and incoherent in the middle of the road. In the emergency department he states that he has not slept for 36 hours and that he has incredible ideas that will make him a billionaire within a few months. He also states that secret agents from Russia are pursuing him and that he heard one of them speaking through the hospital intercom. His past medical history is significant only for a broken arm at age 13. On presentation, his temperature is 102.2°F (39°C), blood pressure is 139/88 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 17/min. Physical exam reveals pupillary dilation and psychomotor agitation. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?

A 59-year-old woman comes to the physician because of left leg swelling that started after a transcontinental flight. A duplex ultrasound of the left leg shows a noncompressible popliteal vein. A drug is prescribed that inhibits the coagulation cascade. Two weeks later, laboratory studies show: Platelet count 210,000/mm3 Partial thromboplastin time 28 seconds (normal: 25-35) Prothrombin time 12 seconds (normal: 11-13) Thrombin time 15 seconds (control: 15 seconds) Which of the following drugs was most likely prescribed?

A 32-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of irregular menses, milky discharge from her nipples, fatigue, and weight gain. Menses occur at irregular 25–40-day intervals and last 1–2 days with minimal flow. 5 months ago, she was started on clozapine for treatment of schizophrenia. She has hypothyroidism but has not been taking levothyroxine over the past 6 months. Visual field examination show no abnormalities. Her serum thyroid-stimulating hormone is 17.0 μU/mL and serum prolactin is 85 ng/mL. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the nipple discharge in this patient?

A 68-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-week history of episodic tremors, headaches, and sweating. During this time, he has gained 2.5-kg (5 lb 8 oz). Two months ago, he was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus and treatment with an oral antidiabetic drug was initiated. The beneficial effect of the drug that was prescribed for this patient is most likely due to inhibition of which of the following?

A 46-year-old premenopausal woman undergoes lumpectomy after a diagnosis of invasive ductal carcinoma of the breast is made. Pathologic examination of the surgical specimen shows that the breast cancer cells stain positive for estrogen receptor and progesterone receptor, and negative for human epidermal growth factor receptor 2. Which of the following characteristics applies to the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient's condition?

A 64-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-week history of progressive shortness of breath, lower extremity edema, and a 4-kg (9-lb) weight gain. She has ischemic cardiomyopathy and rheumatoid arthritis. Her respirations are 27/min. Examination shows pitting edema of the lower extremities and crackles over both lower lung fields. Therapy is initiated with intravenous furosemide. After 2 hours, urine output is minimal. Concomitant treatment with which of the following drugs is most likely to have contributed to treatment failure?

A 62-year-old man presents to his physician complaining of difficulty maintaining an erection over the past month. Otherwise he feels well. He has a history of hypertension and congestive heart failure. His current medications include metoprolol, amlodipine, furosemide, losartan, and aspirin. Three months ago, lisinopril was switched to losartan due to periodic cough. Two months ago, metoprolol and furosemide were added for better control of hypertension and edema, and the dose of amlodipine was reduced. He does not smoke. At the clinic, his blood pressure is 125/70 mm Hg, pulse is 58/min, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination reveals clear lung sounds, a previously diagnosed systolic murmur, and mild pitting edema on the dorsum of both feet. Which of the following is the most appropriate modification in this patient’s medication?

A 75-year-old man presents with a tremor in his legs and arms. He says he has had the tremor for ‘many years’, but it has worsened in the last year. The tremor is more prominent at rest and nearly disappears on movement. He also says his family has mentioned that his movements have been slower, and he does feel like he has problem initiating movements. There is no significant past medical history. He says he often drinks wine, but this does not affect his tremors. The patient is afebrile and vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, the patient is hunched over and his face is expressionless throughout the examination. There is a ‘pill-rolling’ resting tremor that is accentuated when the patient is asked to clench the contralateral hand and alleviated by finger-nose testing. The patient is unable to play an imaginary piano with his fingers. There is the increased tone in the arm muscles bilaterally and resistance to passive movement at the elbow, knee, and hip joints is noted. When asked to walk across the room, the patient has difficulty taking the first step, has a stooped posture, and takes short rapid shuffling steps. Which of the following drugs would be the most effective treatment for this patient’s condition?

A 31-year-old woman comes to the physician because of headaches and nausea for 2 weeks. The headaches are worse on awakening and she describes them as 7 out of 10 in intensity. During this period, she has noticed brief episodes of visual loss in both eyes lasting several seconds, especially when she suddenly stands up or bends over. She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 98 kg (216 lb); BMI is 36 kg/m2. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a visual acuity of 20/20 in both eyes with mild peripheral vision loss. Fundoscopic examination shows bilateral optic disc swelling. An MRI of the brain shows no abnormalities. A lumbar puncture is performed; opening pressure is 310 mm H2O. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows a leukocyte count of 4/mm3 (75% lymphocytes), a protein concentration of 35 mg/dL, and a glucose concentration of 45 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?