A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his fiancée for altered mental status. She states that they got in a fight that morning. She later got a text from him at work that said he was going to kill himself. She rushed back home and found him unconscious on the living room floor surrounded by his prescription pill bottles. The patient is sedated but conscious and states that he thinks he swallowed “a bunch of pills” about 2 hours ago. He also complains of nausea. The patient’s medical history is significant for bipolar disorder and chronic back pain from a motor vehicle accident. He takes lithium and oxycodone. The patient’s temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 130/78 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 17/min with an oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. On physical exam, the patient is drowsy, and his speech is slurred, but he is fully oriented. He has horizontal nystagmus, is diffusely hyperreflexic, and has a mild tremor. His initial electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia. Labs are obtained, as shown below:
Serum:
Na: 143 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
Cl-: 104 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 18 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
Glucose: 75 mg/dL
Lithium level: 6.8 mEq/L (normal 0.6 mEq/L – 1.2 mEq/L)
An intravenous bolus of 1 liter normal saline is given. Which of the following is the next step in management?
Q102
A 27-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with lower back pain. He notes that the pain started over a year ago but has become significantly worse over the past few months. The pain is most severe in the mornings. His past medical history is unremarkable except for a recent episode of right eye pain and blurry vision. Radiographs of the spine and pelvis show bilateral sacroiliitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Q103
An investigator is studying the regulation of adrenal hormone synthesis in rats. The investigator measures serum concentrations of different hormones before and after intravenous administration of metyrapone, which inhibits adrenal 11β-hydroxylase. The serum concentration of which of the following hormones is most likely to be increased after administration of this agent?
Q104
A 54-year-old male with a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease status post 3-vessel coronary artery bypass surgery 5 years prior, stage III chronic kidney disease and a long history of uncontrolled diabetes presents to your office. His diabetes is complicated by diabetic retinopathy, gastroparesis with associated nausea, and polyneuropathy. He returns to your clinic for a medication refill. He was last seen in your clinic 1 year ago and was living in Thailand since then and has recently moved back to the United States. He has been taking lisinopril, amlodipine, simvastatin, aspirin, metformin, glyburide, gabapentin, metoclopramide and multivitamins during his time abroad. You notice that he is constantly smacking his lips and moving his tongue in and out of his mouth in slow movements. His physical exam is notable for numbness and decreased proprioception of feet bilaterally. Which of the following medications most likely is causing his abnormal movements?
Q105
An 89-year-old woman is admitted to the neurology intensive care unit following a massive cerebral infarction. She has a history of hypertension, ovarian cancer, and lung cancer. Her medications include lisinopril and aspirin. She has smoked a few cigarettes each day for the last 60 years. She does not drink alcohol or use drugs. An arterial line and intraventricular pressure monitor are placed. You decide to acutely lower intracranial pressure by causing cerebral vasoconstriction. Which of the following methods could be used for this effect?
Q106
A 64-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Four months ago, he underwent a renal transplantation for end-stage renal disease. Current medications include sirolimus, tacrolimus, and prednisolone. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show a creatinine concentration of 2.7 mg/dL. A kidney allograft biopsy specimen shows tubular vacuolization without parenchymal changes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's renal injury?
Q107
A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath, cough, and fatigue. He reports that his shortness of breath was worst at night, requiring him to sit on a chair in order to get some sleep. Medical history is significant for hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and coronary heart disease. His temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 146/94 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, respirations are 20/min with an oxygen saturation of 89%. On physical examination, the patient's breathing is labored. Pulmonary auscultation reveals crackles and wheezes, and cardiac auscultation reveals an S3 heart sound. After appropriate imaging and labs, the patient receives a non-rebreather facemask, and two intravenous catheters. Drug therapy is initiated. Which of the following is the site of action of the prescribed drug used to relieve this patient's symptoms?
Q108
A 48-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a complaint of lower back pain that has developed over the past week. He works in construction but cannot recall a specific injury or incident that could have led to this pain. He denies any pain, weakness, or change/loss of sensation in his legs. The patient also reports no episodes of incontinence and confirms that he has not noted any changes in his bowel movements or urination. His temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 133/82 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals no focal spine tenderness and demonstrates 5/5 strength and intact sensation to light touch throughout the lower extremities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q109
A 78-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance 30 minutes after the sudden onset of speech difficulties and right-sided arm and leg weakness. Examination shows paralysis and hypoesthesia on the right side, positive Babinski sign on the right, and slurred speech. A CT scan of the head shows a hyperdensity in the left middle cerebral artery and no evidence of intracranial bleeding. The patient's symptoms improve rapidly after pharmacotherapy is initiated and his weakness completely resolves. Which of the following drugs was most likely administered?
Q110
A 33-year-old comes to her dermatologist complaining of a rash that recently started appearing on her face. She states that over the past three months, she has noticed that her cheeks have been getting darker, which has been causing her psychological distress. She has attempted using skin lighteners on her cheeks, but recently noticed more dark spots on her forehead. Aside from a first-trimester miscarriage 5 years ago and a 15-year history of migraines, she has no other past medical history. She is currently taking ibuprofen and rizatriptan for her migraines, and is also on oral contraceptives. Her mother has a history of thyroid disease and migraines but was otherwise healthy. On exam, the patient’s temperature is 99.1°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 130/88 mmHg, pulse is 76/min, and respirations are 12/min. The patient has Fitzpatrick phototype III skin and marked confluent hyperpigmented patches over her cheeks without scarring. Her forehead is also notable for hyperpigmented macules that have not yet become confluent. There are no oral ulcers nor any other visible skin lesion. The patient has a negative pregnancy test, and her ANA is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s disease?
Autonomic/CV Drugs US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his fiancée for altered mental status. She states that they got in a fight that morning. She later got a text from him at work that said he was going to kill himself. She rushed back home and found him unconscious on the living room floor surrounded by his prescription pill bottles. The patient is sedated but conscious and states that he thinks he swallowed “a bunch of pills” about 2 hours ago. He also complains of nausea. The patient’s medical history is significant for bipolar disorder and chronic back pain from a motor vehicle accident. He takes lithium and oxycodone. The patient’s temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 130/78 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 17/min with an oxygen saturation of 97% on room air. On physical exam, the patient is drowsy, and his speech is slurred, but he is fully oriented. He has horizontal nystagmus, is diffusely hyperreflexic, and has a mild tremor. His initial electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia. Labs are obtained, as shown below:
Serum:
Na: 143 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
Cl-: 104 mEq/L
HCO3-: 24 mEq/L
BUN: 18 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.5 mg/dL
Glucose: 75 mg/dL
Lithium level: 6.8 mEq/L (normal 0.6 mEq/L – 1.2 mEq/L)
An intravenous bolus of 1 liter normal saline is given. Which of the following is the next step in management?
A. Naloxone
B. Activated charcoal
C. Hemodialysis (Correct Answer)
D. Gastric lavage
E. Sodium bicarbonate
Explanation: ***Hemodialysis***
- The patient presents with severe **lithium toxicity** (lithium level of 6.8 mEq/L) evidenced by altered mental status, slurred speech, nystagmus, hyperreflexia, and tremor. Given the severe symptoms and extremely high lithium level, **hemodialysis** is the most effective and rapid method to remove lithium from the body.
- Indications for emergent hemodialysis in lithium toxicity include lithium levels > 4 mEq/L (or >2.5 mEq/L with severe symptoms), seizures, cardiac arrhythmias, and renal failure, all of which are severe presentations.
*Naloxone*
- Naloxone is an **opioid antagonist** used to reverse opioid overdose, which presents with **respiratory depression**, miosis, and sedation.
- While the patient takes oxycodone, his current presentation does not align with opioid overdose; he is tachycardic, and his respiratory rate and oxygen saturation are within normal limits.
*Activated charcoal*
- **Activated charcoal** is effective for many oral poisonings by binding to toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, but it is **not effective for lithium** due to lithium's poor absorption by charcoal.
- It would also be less effective given the presumed ingestion occurred 2 hours prior, as its utility significantly decreases beyond 1 hour post-ingestion.
*Gastric lavage*
- **Gastric lavage** involves flushing the stomach to remove unabsorbed toxins, but it is generally **not recommended for lithium toxicity** due to its limited efficacy and potential complications, especially if more than 1 hour has passed since ingestion.
- The procedure also carries a risk of aspiration in patients with altered mental status.
*Sodium bicarbonate*
- **Sodium bicarbonate** is used to alkalinize urine in certain toxicities to promote drug excretion (e.g., salicylates, phenobarbital), and it is also used for QRS widening in tricyclic antidepressant overdose.
- It is **not indicated for lithium toxicity** as it does not enhance lithium elimination and can worsen electrolyte imbalances.
Question 102: A 27-year-old male presents to his primary care physician with lower back pain. He notes that the pain started over a year ago but has become significantly worse over the past few months. The pain is most severe in the mornings. His past medical history is unremarkable except for a recent episode of right eye pain and blurry vision. Radiographs of the spine and pelvis show bilateral sacroiliitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A. Methotrexate
B. Oral prednisone
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Indomethacin (Correct Answer)
E. Bed rest
Explanation: ***Indomethacin***
- This patient's symptoms (chronic inflammatory back pain, morning stiffness, uveitis, and sacroiliitis on imaging) are highly suggestive of a **spondyloarthritis**, likely **ankylosing spondylitis**.
- **NSAIDs**, such as indomethacin, are the **first-line treatment** for pain and stiffness in spondyloarthritis, providing symptomatic relief and often improving function.
*Methotrexate*
- **Methotrexate** is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD) used in inflammatory arthritis but is generally **ineffective for axial (spinal) inflammation** in spondyloarthritis.
- It is more commonly used in peripheral arthritis or psoriasis associated with spondyloarthritis but not as a primary treatment for isolated axial disease.
*Oral prednisone*
- While oral corticosteroids like **prednisone** can reduce inflammation, their use in chronic spondyloarthritis is limited due to **significant side effects** with long-term use.
- They are typically reserved for acute symptom flares or as a bridge therapy, not for sustained management.
*Cyclophosphamide*
- **Cyclophosphamide** is a potent immunosuppressant used for severe autoimmune conditions or vasculitis, not typically indicated for the initial or routine treatment of spondyloarthritis.
- Its use is associated with considerable **toxicity** and side effects, making it unsuitable for this clinical presentation.
*Bed rest*
- **Bed rest** is generally **contraindicated** in inflammatory back conditions like spondyloarthritis, as inactivity can actually worsen stiffness and pain.
- Regular exercise and activity that improves spinal mobility are encouraged, along with pharmacological interventions.
Question 103: An investigator is studying the regulation of adrenal hormone synthesis in rats. The investigator measures serum concentrations of different hormones before and after intravenous administration of metyrapone, which inhibits adrenal 11β-hydroxylase. The serum concentration of which of the following hormones is most likely to be increased after administration of this agent?
A. Aldosterone
B. 17-hydroxyprogesterone
C. 11-deoxycortisol (Correct Answer)
D. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
E. Cortisol
Explanation: ***11-deoxycortisol***
- Metyrapone inhibits **11β-hydroxylase**, which catalyzes the conversion of **11-deoxycortisol to cortisol** in the zona fasciculata.
- **11-deoxycortisol** is the **direct substrate** for this enzyme, so when 11β-hydroxylase is blocked, 11-deoxycortisol accumulates dramatically in the serum.
- This principle forms the basis of the **metyrapone stimulation test**, used clinically to assess ACTH reserve and diagnose adrenal insufficiency.
*17-hydroxyprogesterone*
- 17-hydroxyprogesterone is converted to **11-deoxycortisol** by **21-hydroxylase**, not by 11β-hydroxylase.
- Since 21-hydroxylase is **not inhibited** by metyrapone, 17-hydroxyprogesterone continues to be converted downstream to 11-deoxycortisol.
- While there may be a minor accumulation due to increased flux through the pathway, it is **not the primary hormone that accumulates**.
*Aldosterone*
- Aldosterone synthesis occurs predominantly in the **zona glomerulosa** and involves aldosterone synthase (CYP11B2).
- Although 11β-hydroxylase (CYP11B1) is involved in cortisol synthesis, metyrapone primarily affects the zona fasciculata pathway.
- Aldosterone levels typically **remain stable or decrease slightly**, rather than increase.
*Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)*
- Metyrapone blocks cortisol synthesis, leading to **decreased cortisol levels**.
- This reduces **negative feedback** on the **hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis**.
- The pituitary responds by **increasing ACTH secretion** as a compensatory mechanism.
- While ACTH does increase, the question asks about the **most direct hormonal effect** of enzyme inhibition, which is accumulation of the enzyme's substrate (11-deoxycortisol).
*Cortisol*
- **Cortisol** is the product of the 11β-hydroxylase reaction.
- When this enzyme is inhibited, cortisol synthesis is **blocked**, resulting in **decreased** serum cortisol concentration.
Question 104: A 54-year-old male with a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease status post 3-vessel coronary artery bypass surgery 5 years prior, stage III chronic kidney disease and a long history of uncontrolled diabetes presents to your office. His diabetes is complicated by diabetic retinopathy, gastroparesis with associated nausea, and polyneuropathy. He returns to your clinic for a medication refill. He was last seen in your clinic 1 year ago and was living in Thailand since then and has recently moved back to the United States. He has been taking lisinopril, amlodipine, simvastatin, aspirin, metformin, glyburide, gabapentin, metoclopramide and multivitamins during his time abroad. You notice that he is constantly smacking his lips and moving his tongue in and out of his mouth in slow movements. His physical exam is notable for numbness and decreased proprioception of feet bilaterally. Which of the following medications most likely is causing his abnormal movements?
A. Gabapentin
B. Aspirin
C. Amlodipine
D. Metoclopramide (Correct Answer)
E. Glyburide
Explanation: ***Metoclopramide***
- The patient's presentation with **lip smacking** and **tongue movements** is highly indicative of **tardive dyskinesia**, a movement disorder often triggered by dopamine receptor blocking agents.
- **Metoclopramide** is a prokinetic agent and
**dopamine D2 receptor antagonist** commonly associated with **extrapyramidal symptoms**, including tardive dyskinesia, especially with chronic use.
*Gabapentin*
- **Gabapentin** is an anticonvulsant and neuropathic pain medication that primarily acts on voltage-gated calcium channels.
- While it can cause side effects like dizziness and somnolence, it is **not known to cause tardive dyskinesia** or similar abnormal movements.
*Aspirin*
- **Aspirin** is an antiplatelet agent and NSAID primarily used for cardiovascular disease prevention and pain relief.
- Its side effects include gastrointestinal upset and bleeding, but it **does not cause movement disorders** such as tardive dyskinesia.
*Amlodipine*
- **Amlodipine** is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension and angina.
- Common side effects include edema, headache, and flushing, but it is **not associated with extrapyramidal symptoms** or tardive dyskinesia.
*Glyburide*
- **Glyburide** is a sulfonylurea used to treat type 2 diabetes by stimulating insulin release from the pancreas.
- Its primary side effects are hypoglycemia and weight gain, and it **does not cause neurological movement disorders**.
Question 105: An 89-year-old woman is admitted to the neurology intensive care unit following a massive cerebral infarction. She has a history of hypertension, ovarian cancer, and lung cancer. Her medications include lisinopril and aspirin. She has smoked a few cigarettes each day for the last 60 years. She does not drink alcohol or use drugs. An arterial line and intraventricular pressure monitor are placed. You decide to acutely lower intracranial pressure by causing cerebral vasoconstriction. Which of the following methods could be used for this effect?
A. Elevating head position
B. Mannitol infusion
C. Glucocorticoids
D. Mechanical hyperventilation (Correct Answer)
E. Mechanical hypoventilation
Explanation: ***Mechanical hyperventilation***
- **Mechanical hyperventilation** acutely lowers **PaCO2**, leading to cerebral **vasoconstriction** and a reduction in cerebral blood volume, thereby decreasing intracranial pressure (ICP).
- This effect is rapid but **transient**, as the brain can adapt to changes in PaCO2 within hours, and excessive vasoconstriction can lead to **cerebral ischemia**.
*Elevating head position*
- Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees can help improve **venous outflow** from the brain, which can mildly reduce ICP.
- However, it does not achieve ICP reduction through **cerebral vasoconstriction**.
*Mannitol infusion*
- **Mannitol** is an **osmotic diuretic** that draws water from brain tissue into the intravascular space, reducing brain edema and ICP.
- It does not primarily induce ICP reduction via **cerebral vasoconstriction**.
*Glucocorticoids*
- **Glucocorticoids** like dexamethasone are effective in reducing ICP primarily in cases of **vasogenic edema** associated with brain tumors.
- They work by stabilizing the **blood-brain barrier** and reducing inflammation, not through cerebral vasoconstriction.
*Mechanical hypoventilation*
- **Mechanical hypoventilation** would increase **PaCO2**, leading to **cerebral vasodilation** and an increase in cerebral blood volume.
- This would **raise intracranial pressure**, which is the opposite of the desired effect.
Question 106: A 64-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Four months ago, he underwent a renal transplantation for end-stage renal disease. Current medications include sirolimus, tacrolimus, and prednisolone. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show a creatinine concentration of 2.7 mg/dL. A kidney allograft biopsy specimen shows tubular vacuolization without parenchymal changes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's renal injury?
A. Sirolimus toxicity
B. Preformed antibody-mediated rejection
C. T cell-mediated rejection
D. Prednisolone toxicity
E. Tacrolimus toxicity (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Tacrolimus toxicity***
- **Tacrolimus** is a **calcineurin inhibitor** known to cause nephrotoxicity, and its signature histological finding is **tubular vacuolization**.
- The elevated **creatinine** level in the presence of this specific biopsy finding strongly suggests tacrolimus-induced renal injury, especially in a transplant patient on this medication.
*Sirolimus toxicity*
- **Sirolimus** is an **mTOR inhibitor** that can cause nephrotoxicity, but it typically presents with different histological findings, such as **thrombotic microangiopathy** or **proteinuria**, rather than isolated tubular vacuolization.
- While it can contribute to renal dysfunction, the specific biopsy finding points away from sirolimus as the primary cause.
*Preformed antibody-mediated rejection*
- **Antibody-mediated rejection (AMR)** typically presents with **glomerulitis**, **peritubular capillaritis**, and C4d deposition in the biopsy, rather than isolated tubular vacuolization.
- It usually occurs acutely post-transplant, often with severe renal dysfunction, but the specific histologic changes seen here are not characteristic of AMR.
*T cell-mediated rejection*
- **T cell-mediated rejection (TCMR)** is characterized by **tubulitis** (inflammation of the tubules with infiltrating lymphocytes) and **interstitial inflammation**, sometimes with vascular involvement.
- The biopsy mentions "tubular vacuolization without parenchymal changes," which does not fit the typical histological picture of TCMR.
*Prednisolone toxicity*
- **Prednisolone** (a corticosteroid) is generally nephroprotective and does not directly cause renal injury with tubular vacuolization.
- While chronic steroid use can have various side effects, direct acute renal toxicity with this specific histological finding is not characteristic of prednisolone.
Question 107: A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening shortness of breath, cough, and fatigue. He reports that his shortness of breath was worst at night, requiring him to sit on a chair in order to get some sleep. Medical history is significant for hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and coronary heart disease. His temperature is 98.8°F (37.1°C), blood pressure is 146/94 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, respirations are 20/min with an oxygen saturation of 89%. On physical examination, the patient's breathing is labored. Pulmonary auscultation reveals crackles and wheezes, and cardiac auscultation reveals an S3 heart sound. After appropriate imaging and labs, the patient receives a non-rebreather facemask, and two intravenous catheters. Drug therapy is initiated. Which of the following is the site of action of the prescribed drug used to relieve this patient's symptoms?
A. Descending loop of Henle
B. Collecting tubule
C. Proximal tubule
D. Ascending loop of Henle (Correct Answer)
E. Distal tubule
Explanation: ***Ascending loop of Henle***
- The patient's symptoms (orthopnea, crackles, S3 heart sound, history of coronary heart disease) are consistent with **acute decompensated heart failure** with pulmonary edema.
- The most effective drug class for rapid symptom relief is a **loop diuretic** (e.g., furosemide), which acts on the **Na-K-2Cl cotransporter** in the thick ascending loop of Henle.
- Loop diuretics promote potent diuresis and rapid reduction of pulmonary congestion, making them the first-line choice in acute heart failure with volume overload.
*Descending loop of Henle*
- This segment is primarily permeable to **water** and largely impermeable to solutes.
- There are **no major diuretic drug targets** in the descending loop of Henle.
*Collecting tubule*
- This is the primary site of action for **potassium-sparing diuretics** (e.g., spironolactone, amiloride), which are less potent than loop diuretics and not typically used for initial rapid diuresis in acute heart failure.
- **Vasopressin** also acts here to regulate water reabsorption, but its antagonists are not first-line for acute pulmonary edema.
*Proximal tubule*
- The **proximal tubule** is where most reabsorption of solutes (e.g., Na+, Cl-, HCO3-) and water occurs.
- **Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors** (e.g., acetazolamide) act here, but they are relatively weak diuretics and not used for acute heart failure symptoms.
*Distal tubule*
- This segment is the primary site of action for **thiazide diuretics**, which inhibit the Na-Cl cotransporter.
- While effective for long-term hypertension and heart failure management, thiazides are **less potent** than loop diuretics and have a slower onset of action, making them unsuitable for emergency relief of acute pulmonary edema.
Question 108: A 48-year-old man presents to his primary care physician with a complaint of lower back pain that has developed over the past week. He works in construction but cannot recall a specific injury or incident that could have led to this pain. He denies any pain, weakness, or change/loss of sensation in his legs. The patient also reports no episodes of incontinence and confirms that he has not noted any changes in his bowel movements or urination. His temperature is 97.6°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 133/82 mmHg, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 15/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical examination reveals no focal spine tenderness and demonstrates 5/5 strength and intact sensation to light touch throughout the lower extremities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. CT spine
B. Ibuprofen and bed rest
C. CRP level
D. MRI spine
E. Naproxen and activity as tolerated (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Naproxen and activity as tolerated***
- This patient presents with **acute, uncomplicated low back pain** with no signs of neurological deficits, radiculopathy, or cauda equina syndrome. Initial management should focus on symptom relief with **NSAIDs** (like naproxen) and encouraging **activity as tolerated**, as prolonged bed rest can worsen outcomes.
- Given the absence of "red flag" symptoms (e.g., fever, weight loss, progressive neurological deficits, history of cancer, recent trauma, IV drug use, saddle anesthesia, bowel/bladder dysfunction), imaging is generally not indicated within the first 4-6 weeks of symptom onset.
*CT spine*
- **CT imaging** exposes the patient to significant radiation and is typically reserved for cases where bony abnormalities or fractures are suspected or as a follow-up to plain radiographs.
- It is not the initial imaging modality of choice for uncomplicated back pain, especially without specific trauma or "red flag" symptoms.
*Ibuprofen and bed rest*
- While **NSAIDs like ibuprofen** are appropriate for pain relief, **prolonged bed rest** is generally discouraged for acute low back pain.
- Evidence suggests that maintaining activity as tolerated leads to better outcomes compared to strict bed rest.
*CRP level*
- **CRP (C-reactive protein)** is a marker of inflammation and could be elevated in various conditions, including infection, inflammatory arthropathies, or malignancy.
- However, in cases of uncomplicated acute low back pain without specific "red flag" signs of inflammatory or infectious etiology, routinely measuring CRP is generally not helpful for initial management and can lead to unnecessary investigations.
*MRI spine*
- **MRI is a sensitive imaging modality** for visualizing soft tissues (discs, nerves, spinal cord) and is indicated for suspected radiculopathy, cauda equina syndrome, spinal cord compression, or when "red flag" symptoms suggest infection, tumor, or fracture.
- In this patient, the absence of any neurological deficits, radicular symptoms, or other red flags makes an MRI unnecessary and potentially misleading in the initial management of acute, uncomplicated low back pain.
Question 109: A 78-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance 30 minutes after the sudden onset of speech difficulties and right-sided arm and leg weakness. Examination shows paralysis and hypoesthesia on the right side, positive Babinski sign on the right, and slurred speech. A CT scan of the head shows a hyperdensity in the left middle cerebral artery and no evidence of intracranial bleeding. The patient's symptoms improve rapidly after pharmacotherapy is initiated and his weakness completely resolves. Which of the following drugs was most likely administered?
A. Alteplase (Correct Answer)
B. Heparin
C. Prasugrel
D. Rivaroxaban
E. Warfarin
Explanation: ***Alteplase***
- The patient experienced an **acute ischemic stroke** given the sudden onset of neurological deficits and CT findings consistent with a **thrombus (hyperdensity in the M1 segment of the left Middle Cerebral Artery)** and no intracranial bleeding.
- **Alteplase**, a **thrombolytic agent**, is indicated for acute ischemic stroke when administered within the therapeutic window (typically 3-4.5 hours from symptom onset), leading to rapid clot dissolution and resolution of symptoms.
*Heparin*
- **Heparin** is an anticoagulant used to prevent new clot formation or extension of existing clots, but it does not actively dissolve existing clots rapidly enough to explain the immediate resolution of symptoms in an acute setting.
- It is typically used for conditions like DVT, PE, or to prevent stroke in high-risk patients but not as a primary treatment for acute ischemic stroke to restore perfusion quickly.
*Prasugrel*
- **Prasugrel** is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation. It is used to prevent arterial thrombosis, particularly in patients with acute coronary syndromes undergoing PCI.
- While it helps prevent stroke recurrence, it does not dissolve an existing thrombus in an acute ischemic event, nor would it lead to the rapid symptom resolution seen here.
*Rivaroxaban*
- **Rivaroxaban** is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that inhibits Factor Xa. It is used for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation and treatment of DVT/PE.
- Like heparin, it prevents new clot formation or growth, but it is not a thrombolytic and would not cause the rapid resolution of acute ischemic stroke symptoms.
*Warfarin*
- **Warfarin** is a vitamin K antagonist, an anticoagulant used for long-term prevention of thromboembolic events. Its onset of action is slow, taking several days to reach therapeutic levels.
- It is not suitable for the acute treatment of an ischemic stroke where rapid clot dissolution is required.
Question 110: A 33-year-old comes to her dermatologist complaining of a rash that recently started appearing on her face. She states that over the past three months, she has noticed that her cheeks have been getting darker, which has been causing her psychological distress. She has attempted using skin lighteners on her cheeks, but recently noticed more dark spots on her forehead. Aside from a first-trimester miscarriage 5 years ago and a 15-year history of migraines, she has no other past medical history. She is currently taking ibuprofen and rizatriptan for her migraines, and is also on oral contraceptives. Her mother has a history of thyroid disease and migraines but was otherwise healthy. On exam, the patient’s temperature is 99.1°F (37.3°C), blood pressure is 130/88 mmHg, pulse is 76/min, and respirations are 12/min. The patient has Fitzpatrick phototype III skin and marked confluent hyperpigmented patches over her cheeks without scarring. Her forehead is also notable for hyperpigmented macules that have not yet become confluent. There are no oral ulcers nor any other visible skin lesion. The patient has a negative pregnancy test, and her ANA is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s disease?
A. Medication (Correct Answer)
B. Post-inflammatory changes
C. Autoantibodies
D. Hypersensitivity reaction
E. Enzyme inhibition
Explanation: ***Medication***
- The patient's **oral contraceptive use** is a significant risk factor for **melasma**, presenting as hyperpigmented patches on the face.
- Exposure to **estrogen and progesterone** can stimulate melanocyte activity, leading to increased melanin production.
*Post-inflammatory changes*
- **Post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation** typically follows an inflammatory skin condition (e.g., acne, eczema, injury), which is not described.
- The patient's rash appeared spontaneously without a prior inflammatory event or trauma to the skin leading to hyperpigmentation.
*Autoantibodies*
- While some autoimmune conditions can cause skin changes, the patient's **negative ANA** and lack of other systemic symptoms make an autoantibody-mediated disease less likely.
- Melasma is primarily related to hormonal and sun exposure factors, not typically to autoimmune phenomena.
*Hypersensitivity reaction*
- A hypersensitivity reaction would usually present with **erythema, pruritus, or urticaria**, none of which are noted in the patient's presentation.
- The **progressive hyperpigmentation without inflammatory signs** is not consistent with an allergic or hypersensitivity response.
*Enzyme inhibition*
- While some skin conditions involve enzyme pathways, melasma is primarily due to **increased melanocyte activity and melanin production**, not typically a direct result of enzyme inhibition.
- There is no clinical indication in the patient's history or physical exam to suggest an enzyme inhibition disorder.