A 45-year-old man comes to the emergency department with fever, nonproductive cough, and difficulty breathing. Three years ago, he underwent lung transplantation. A CT scan of the chest shows diffuse bilateral ground-glass opacities. Pathologic examination of a transbronchial lung biopsy specimen shows several large cells containing intranuclear inclusions with a clear halo. Treatment with ganciclovir fails to improve his symptoms. He is subsequently treated successfully with another medication. This drug does not require activation by viral kinases and also has known in-vitro activity against HIV and HBV. The patient was most likely treated with which of the following drugs?
Q32
A 37-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of progressive breast enlargement. Two years ago, he was diagnosed with HIV infection and started treatment with antiretroviral medications. Examination shows a soft, non-tender, ill-defined swelling at the nape of the neck. The cheeks appear hollowed. Serum studies show increased total cholesterol and LDL concentration. Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of these findings?
Q33
A 44-year-old man presents to a family medical center for evaluation of multiple, painful lesions on the lower lip. He says that the lesions appeared 1 day ago after spending a weekend vacation at the beach. He reports having experienced a tingling sensation before the lesions appeared. This is the 3rd time in the past year that the lesions have occurred. There are no past medical conditions to document. He appears well-nourished and does not exhibit poor hygiene. His vital signs include the following: the heart rate is 66/min, the respiratory rate is 14/min, the temperature is 37.3°C (99.2°F), and the blood pressure is 124/76 mm Hg. Inspection of the lips at the vermillion border reveals 2 vesicular lesions (refer to picture). Palpation of the neck reveals cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
Q34
A 56-year-old African American presents to the emergency department due to abdominal pain, fatigue, and weight loss over the past 3 months. He has a long-standing history of chronic hepatitis B virus infection complicated by cirrhosis. On examination, he has jaundice, leg edema, and a palpable mass in the right upper abdominal quadrant. Abdominal ultrasound shows a 3-cm liver mass with poorly defined margins and coarse, irregular internal echoes. Blood investigations are shown:
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 90 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 50 U/L
Total bilirubin 2 mg/dL
Albumin 3 g/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 100 U/L
Alpha fetoprotein 600 micrograms/L
Which of the following targeted agents is approved for advanced-stage hepatoma?
Q35
A 20-year-old medical student presents to the clinic with a very painful lesion on her lower lip, as shown in the photograph below. She admits that she applied polymyxin ointment to the lesion without improvement. A few months ago, she used the same antibiotic ointment to treat an infected cut on her arm. At that time, she had read in her microbiology book that polymyxin is an antibiotic that disrupts cell membranes. Why did the treatment fail this time?
Q36
A 65-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a rash. He states that for the past several days he has felt burning and itching around his eye. Yesterday, he noticed that a rash had formed. Review of systems is notable for mild diarrhea for the past week. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes, asthma, seasonal allergies, and hypertension. He is not currently taking any medications. Physical exam is notable for a vesicular rash surrounding the orbit. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q37
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department because of a generalized pruritic rash for 14 hours. Five days ago, he had pink eyes that resolved spontaneously. He has acute lymphoblastic leukemia. He has received 3 cycles of chemotherapy with vincristine, asparaginase, dexamethasone, and doxorubicin. His last treatment cycle was 2 weeks ago. The patient's other medications include multivitamin supplements. His temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), pulse 90/min, and blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg. Examination of the skin shows multiple crops of macules and papules over the face, trunk, and extremities. There are also excoriation marks and crusted lesions. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the treatment of this patient?
Q38
An HIV-positive 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 3-month history of recurrent, painful mouth ulcers. This time, the pain is so severe that the patient cannot eat. He has a history of a seizure disorder but currently does not take any medications. He appears very ill. His temperature is 39.0°C (102.2°F). Physical examination shows numerous vesicular ulcerations on the lips and sloughing of the gums, buccal mucosa, and hard palate. Genetic analysis of the pathogen isolated from the lesions shows a mutation in a gene encoding viral phosphotransferases. Which of the following drugs is the most appropriate treatment?
Q39
A 10-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with his parents. The boy complains of fever, neck stiffness, and drowsiness for the last several days. His past medical history is noncontributory. The boy was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is up to date on all vaccines and is meeting all developmental milestones. There were no sick contacts at home or at school. The family did not travel out of the area recently. His heart rate is 100/min, respiratory rate is 22/min, blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg, and temperature is 40.5ºC (104.9°F). On physical examination, he appears unwell and confused. His heart rate is elevated with a regular rhythm and his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. During the examination, he experiences a right-sided focal seizure, which is controlled with lorazepam. A head CT reveals bilateral asymmetrical hypodensities of the temporal region. A lumbar puncture is performed and reveals the following:
WBC count 25/mm3
Cell predominance lymphocytes
Protein elevated
The patient is started on a medication to treat the underlying cause of his symptoms. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Q40
A 52-year-old woman comes to the physician because of abdominal discomfort, anorexia, and mild fatigue. She has systemic lupus erythematosus and takes hydroxychloroquine. She does not drink alcohol or use illicit drugs. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Alanine aminotransferase 455 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase 205 U/L
Hepatitis B surface antigen positive
Hepatitis B surface antibody negative
Hepatitis B envelope antigen positive
Hepatitis B core antigen IgG antibody positive
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
Antivirals US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: A 45-year-old man comes to the emergency department with fever, nonproductive cough, and difficulty breathing. Three years ago, he underwent lung transplantation. A CT scan of the chest shows diffuse bilateral ground-glass opacities. Pathologic examination of a transbronchial lung biopsy specimen shows several large cells containing intranuclear inclusions with a clear halo. Treatment with ganciclovir fails to improve his symptoms. He is subsequently treated successfully with another medication. This drug does not require activation by viral kinases and also has known in-vitro activity against HIV and HBV. The patient was most likely treated with which of the following drugs?
A. Lamivudine
B. Foscarnet (Correct Answer)
C. Elvitegravir
D. Zanamivir
E. Acyclovir
Explanation: ***Foscarnet***
- The patient presents with **cytomegalovirus (CMV) pneumonitis** post-lung transplant, evidenced by **diffuse bilateral ground-glass opacities** and **intranuclear inclusions with a clear halo** on biopsy, and initial treatment with **ganciclovir failed**.
- **Foscarnet** is an alternative antiviral that does not require activation by viral kinases and is effective against viruses that develop **ganciclovir resistance** due to mutations in UL97 phosphotransferase, which activates ganciclovir. It also has known activity against **HIV** and **HBV**, fitting the description.
*Lamivudine*
- **Lamivudine** is a **nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)** primarily used for **HIV** and **HBV** infections.
- It has **no activity against CMV** and would not be used to treat CMV pneumonitis, especially after ganciclovir failure.
*Elvitegravir*
- **Elvitegravir** is an **integrase inhibitor** used in combination therapy for **HIV infection**.
- It has **no activity against CMV** and would not be effective in treating CMV pneumonitis.
*Zanamivir*
- **Zanamivir** is a **neuraminidase inhibitor** used to treat and prevent **influenza A and B viruses**.
- It has **no activity against CMV** and is not indicated for the patient's condition.
*Acyclovir*
- **Acyclovir** is a guanosine analog primarily used to treat **herpes simplex virus (HSV)** and **varicella-zoster virus (VZV)** infections.
- It has **limited to no activity against CMV** at therapeutic doses and would not be effective in this case.
Question 32: A 37-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 6-month history of progressive breast enlargement. Two years ago, he was diagnosed with HIV infection and started treatment with antiretroviral medications. Examination shows a soft, non-tender, ill-defined swelling at the nape of the neck. The cheeks appear hollowed. Serum studies show increased total cholesterol and LDL concentration. Which of the following medications is the most likely cause of these findings?
A. Nevirapine
B. Indinavir (Correct Answer)
C. Enfuvirtide
D. Abacavir
E. Raltegravir
Explanation: ***Indinavir***
- This patient presents with signs of **lipodystrophy**, specifically **lipoaccumulation** (breast enlargement, "buffalo hump" at the nape of the neck) and **lipoatrophy** (hollow cheeks), along with **dyslipidemia**.
- **Protease inhibitors (PIs)**, such as indinavir, are well-known to cause these metabolic complications, including **lipodystrophy** and **hyperlipidemia**, in patients with HIV.
*Nevirapine*
- Nevirapine is a **non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI)**.
- While NNRTIs can be associated with some metabolic side effects, they are less commonly implicated in severe **lipodystrophy** and **dyslipidemia** compared to protease inhibitors.
*Enfuvirtide*
- Enfuvirtide is a **fusion inhibitor** and generally has a favorable metabolic profile.
- It is not typically associated with **lipodystrophy** or significant **dyslipidemia**.
*Abacavir*
- Abacavir is a **nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI)**.
- While some NRTIs (especially stavudine and zidovudine) were strongly linked to lipoatrophy, abacavir is much less likely to cause this severe form of **lipodystrophy** or **hyperlipidemia**.
*Raltegravir*
- Raltegravir is an **integrase strand transfer inhibitor (INSTI)**.
- INSTIs are increasingly used due to their generally good metabolic profile and are not a common cause of **lipodystrophy** or **dyslipidemia**.
Question 33: A 44-year-old man presents to a family medical center for evaluation of multiple, painful lesions on the lower lip. He says that the lesions appeared 1 day ago after spending a weekend vacation at the beach. He reports having experienced a tingling sensation before the lesions appeared. This is the 3rd time in the past year that the lesions have occurred. There are no past medical conditions to document. He appears well-nourished and does not exhibit poor hygiene. His vital signs include the following: the heart rate is 66/min, the respiratory rate is 14/min, the temperature is 37.3°C (99.2°F), and the blood pressure is 124/76 mm Hg. Inspection of the lips at the vermillion border reveals 2 vesicular lesions (refer to picture). Palpation of the neck reveals cervical lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
A. Docosanol cream
B. Imiquimod
C. Penciclovir cream (Correct Answer)
D. No treatment necessary
E. Oral cidofovir
Explanation: ***Penciclovir cream***
- This patient presents with recurrent outbreaks of **herpes labialis**, commonly known as cold sores, characterized by painful vesicular lesions on the lip, tingling sensation preceding the lesions, and recurrence, often triggered by sun exposure.
- **Penciclovir cream** is a topical antiviral agent that is highly effective in reducing the healing time and duration of pain from recurrent herpes labialis when applied early in the course of the outbreak.
*Docosanol cream*
- Docosanol cream is an over-the-counter topical treatment for herpes labialis, but it primarily acts by **inhibiting viral fusion** with human cells.
- While it can be effective, it generally has a **less potent antiviral effect** and may not reduce healing time as significantly as prescription antivirals like penciclovir, especially in recurrent, symptomatic cases.
*Imiquimod*
- Imiquimod is an **immune response modifier** primarily used to treat external genital and perianal warts, actinic keratosis, and superficial basal cell carcinoma.
- It works by stimulating the immune system to produce **interferon and other cytokines**, which is not the primary mechanism of action for treating acute herpetic lesions.
*No treatment necessary*
- While herpes labialis lesions can resolve spontaneously, the patient experiences **painful lesions** and has a history of recurrent outbreaks.
- Providing antiviral therapy can **alleviate symptoms**, reduce healing time, and potentially decrease viral shedding, which is beneficial for patient comfort and preventing transmission.
*Oral cidofovir*
- Oral cidofovir is a broad-spectrum antiviral agent primarily used for severe viral infections, such as **cytomegalovirus retinitis** in immunocompromised patients, or certain mucocutaneous infections caused by **acyclovir-resistant HSV**.
- It is an **intravenous medication** in its primary formulation for serious systemic infections and not a standard treatment for uncomplicated recurrent herpes labialis due to its **toxicity profile** and specific indications.
Question 34: A 56-year-old African American presents to the emergency department due to abdominal pain, fatigue, and weight loss over the past 3 months. He has a long-standing history of chronic hepatitis B virus infection complicated by cirrhosis. On examination, he has jaundice, leg edema, and a palpable mass in the right upper abdominal quadrant. Abdominal ultrasound shows a 3-cm liver mass with poorly defined margins and coarse, irregular internal echoes. Blood investigations are shown:
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 90 U/L
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 50 U/L
Total bilirubin 2 mg/dL
Albumin 3 g/dL
Alkaline phosphatase 100 U/L
Alpha fetoprotein 600 micrograms/L
Which of the following targeted agents is approved for advanced-stage hepatoma?
A. Ustekinumab
B. Daclizumab
C. Sorafenib (Correct Answer)
D. Abciximab
E. Palivizumab
Explanation: ***Sorafenib***
- This patient's presentation with chronic hepatitis B, cirrhosis, a liver mass, and an **elevated alpha-fetoprotein** is highly suggestive of **hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)**, also known as hepatoma.
- **Sorafenib** is a **multi-targeted tyrosine kinase inhibitor** that inhibits tumor cell proliferation and angiogenesis by targeting VEGFR, PDGFR, Raf kinases, and other kinases involved in tumor progression.
- It was the **first systemic therapy approved for advanced-stage HCC** and remains an important first-line treatment option for patients with advanced disease who are not candidates for surgical or locoregional therapies.
*Ustekinumab*
- **Ustekinumab** is a monoclonal antibody that targets the **p40 subunit of IL-12 and IL-23**, primarily used in the treatment of **psoriasis** and psoriatic arthritis, not HCC.
- It works by blocking inflammatory pathways involved in autoimmune conditions.
*Daclizumab*
- **Daclizumab** is a humanized monoclonal antibody that targets the **CD25 subunit of the IL-2 receptor**; it was previously used for treating **multiple sclerosis** but has been largely discontinued due to safety concerns.
- It is not indicated for the treatment of any form of cancer.
*Abciximab*
- **Abciximab** is a monoclonal antibody that targets the **glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor** on platelets, used as an **antiplatelet agent** in patients undergoing percutaneous coronary intervention.
- Its mechanism of action is related to inhibition of platelet aggregation and thrombosis, not cancer therapy.
*Palivizumab*
- **Palivizumab** is a monoclonal antibody used for the **prevention of serious lower respiratory tract disease** caused by **respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)** in high-risk infants.
- It provides passive immunity against RSV and has no role in cancer treatment.
Question 35: A 20-year-old medical student presents to the clinic with a very painful lesion on her lower lip, as shown in the photograph below. She admits that she applied polymyxin ointment to the lesion without improvement. A few months ago, she used the same antibiotic ointment to treat an infected cut on her arm. At that time, she had read in her microbiology book that polymyxin is an antibiotic that disrupts cell membranes. Why did the treatment fail this time?
A. Cold sores are treated by applying heat
B. Topical antiviral creams are not effective for cold sores
C. Organism has become resistant
D. Cold sore is non-infective in nature
E. Organism has no cell membrane (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Organism has no cell membrane***
- The patient likely has a **cold sore**, which is caused by the **Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)**. Viruses are **acellular organisms** and lack a **cell membrane**, which is the target of polymyxin.
- Polymyxin is an **antibiotic** that targets the **bacterial cell membrane**, making it ineffective against viruses.
*Topical antiviral creams are not effective for cold sores*
- While it's true that the efficacy of topical antivirals can be limited, they are the **standard treatment** for cold sores, especially if applied early.
- **Acyclovir, penciclovir, and docosanol** are commonly used topical antiviral creams for HSV infections.
*Organism has become resistant*
- **Antibiotic resistance** typically occurs in bacteria due to mechanisms like altered drug targets or efflux pumps, which are not relevant to viral infections.
- Since polymyxin targets **bacterial cell membranes**, and cold sores are viral, resistance is not the reason for treatment failure here.
*Cold sore is non-infective in nature*
- This statement is incorrect; **cold sores are highly infective** and caused by the **Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)**, making them viral infections.
- HSV spreads through direct contact and can cause recurrent outbreaks.
*Cold sores are treated by applying heat*
- This is an incorrect assertion; cold sores are typically treated with **antiviral medications** (oral or topical) or symptom-relieving agents, not heat.
- **Heat application** is not a recommended or effective treatment for cold sores.
Question 36: A 65-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a rash. He states that for the past several days he has felt burning and itching around his eye. Yesterday, he noticed that a rash had formed. Review of systems is notable for mild diarrhea for the past week. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes, asthma, seasonal allergies, and hypertension. He is not currently taking any medications. Physical exam is notable for a vesicular rash surrounding the orbit. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Acyclovir (Correct Answer)
B. Removal of gluten containing products from the diet
C. Topical steroids
D. Topical mupirocin
E. Oral steroids
Explanation: ***Acyclovir***
- The patient's symptoms of **burning, itching**, and a **vesicular rash around the orbit** are highly suggestive of **herpes zoster ophthalmicus**, a reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus (shingles).
- **Antiviral medications** like acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir are the mainstay of treatment and should be initiated promptly (within 72 hours of rash onset) to reduce the severity and duration of the rash, prevent new lesions, and decrease the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia and ocular complications.
*Removal of gluten-containing products from the diet*
- This intervention is appropriate for **dermatitis herpetiformis**, an intensely pruritic, vesicular rash associated with **celiac disease**.
- While the patient has mild diarrhea, his rash distribution and the characteristic burning/itching are inconsistent with dermatitis herpetiformis, and there is no evidence of underlying celiac disease.
*Topical steroids*
- Topical steroids are used for various inflammatory skin conditions but are **contraindicated** in viral infections like herpes zoster, especially around the eye, as they can worsen ocular involvement and viral replication.
- They would not address the underlying viral etiology and could delay healing or increase complications.
*Topical mupirocin*
- **Mupirocin is an antibiotic** used for bacterial skin infections, such as impetigo or secondary bacterial infections of skin lesions.
- The primary rash described is viral (vesicular), and there is no mention of signs of bacterial superinfection, such as pustules, purulent discharge, or increasing redness and warmth.
*Oral steroids*
- Oral steroids might be considered for severe cases of post-herpetic neuralgia or to reduce inflammation in specific circumstances, but they are generally **not recommended as primary therapy** for acute herpes zoster due to limited evidence of benefit and potential for adverse effects.
- They also do not treat the underlying viral cause and can potentially suppress the immune system, which is generally undesirable in a viral infection.
Question 37: A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department because of a generalized pruritic rash for 14 hours. Five days ago, he had pink eyes that resolved spontaneously. He has acute lymphoblastic leukemia. He has received 3 cycles of chemotherapy with vincristine, asparaginase, dexamethasone, and doxorubicin. His last treatment cycle was 2 weeks ago. The patient's other medications include multivitamin supplements. His temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), pulse 90/min, and blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg. Examination of the skin shows multiple crops of macules and papules over the face, trunk, and extremities. There are also excoriation marks and crusted lesions. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the treatment of this patient?
A. Symptomatic therapy
B. Immunoglobulin administration
C. Acyclovir administration (Correct Answer)
D. Penicillin V administration
E. Vitamin A administration
Explanation: ***Acyclovir administration***
- This patient, with a history of **acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)** and ongoing chemotherapy, is **immunocompromised**. The rash described, with **multiple crops of macules and papules**, excoriations, and crusted lesions, along with a preceding history of "pink eyes" (possibly conjunctivitis), is highly suggestive of **chickenpox (varicella)**.
- Due to his immunocompromised state, chickenpox places him at high risk for severe and disseminated disease, including **varicella pneumonia** or **encephalitis**. **Intravenous acyclovir** is the treatment of choice in these patients to prevent life-threatening complications.
*Symptomatic therapy*
- While symptomatic relief (e.g., antipruritics) is part of care, it is **insufficient as the sole treatment** for an immunocompromised patient with suspected varicella.
- Symptomatic therapy **does not address the underlying viral replication** or mitigate the risk of severe complications in this high-risk patient.
*Immunoglobulin administration*
- **Varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG)** may be given post-exposure to **prevent infection** in high-risk, unvaccinated individuals.
- It is **not effective as treatment once symptoms** and rash have developed, as the infection is already established.
*Penicillin V administration*
- **Penicillin V** is an **antibiotic** used to treat **bacterial infections**, primarily those caused by streptococci or staphylococci.
- Varicella is a **viral infection**, so penicillin V would be **ineffective** against the virus itself.
*Vitamin A administration*
- **Vitamin A supplementation** is primarily indicated in cases of **vitamin A deficiency**, often presenting with **night blindness** and **xerophthalmia**.
- It has **no role in the treatment of viral infections** like varicella.
Question 38: An HIV-positive 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 3-month history of recurrent, painful mouth ulcers. This time, the pain is so severe that the patient cannot eat. He has a history of a seizure disorder but currently does not take any medications. He appears very ill. His temperature is 39.0°C (102.2°F). Physical examination shows numerous vesicular ulcerations on the lips and sloughing of the gums, buccal mucosa, and hard palate. Genetic analysis of the pathogen isolated from the lesions shows a mutation in a gene encoding viral phosphotransferases. Which of the following drugs is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Acyclovir
B. Famciclovir
C. Cidofovir
D. Ganciclovir
E. Foscarnet (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Foscarnet***
- The presence of **recurrent, painful vesicular ulcerations** in an HIV-positive patient, especially with **gingivostomatitis-like symptoms** (sloughing gums, buccal mucosa), points to a severe **herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection**, likely resistant to nucleoside analogues given the **phosphotransferase mutation**.
- **Foscarnet** is a pyrophosphate analog that directly inhibits viral DNA polymerase without requiring phosphorylation by viral thymidine kinase, making it effective against **acyclovir-resistant HSV** strains, which often develop resistance via mutations in viral phosphotransferases or thymidine kinase.
*Acyclovir*
- **Acyclovir** is a nucleoside analog that requires phosphorylation by viral thymidine kinase (a phosphotransferase) to become active.
- A **mutation in viral phosphotransferases** would render the virus resistant to acyclovir, making it an ineffective treatment.
*Famciclovir*
- **Famciclovir** is a prodrug of penciclovir, which is also a nucleoside analog that requires phosphorylation by viral thymidine kinase for activation.
- Similar to acyclovir, a **mutation in viral phosphotransferases** would lead to resistance and make famciclovir ineffective.
*Cidofovir*
- **Cidofovir** is a nucleotide analog that does not require phosphorylation by viral enzymes for its initial activation.
- While it can be effective against some resistant strains, **foscarnet is generally preferred** for severe, resistant HSV infections as cidofovir is primarily used for **CMV retinitis** and is associated with significant nephrotoxicity.
*Ganciclovir*
- **Ganciclovir** is a nucleoside analog primarily used for **CMV infections**, and it also requires phosphorylation by viral kinases for activation.
- It is not the first-line treatment for HSV, and the **phosphotransferase mutation** would likely confer resistance to ganciclovir as well.
Question 39: A 10-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with his parents. The boy complains of fever, neck stiffness, and drowsiness for the last several days. His past medical history is noncontributory. The boy was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is up to date on all vaccines and is meeting all developmental milestones. There were no sick contacts at home or at school. The family did not travel out of the area recently. His heart rate is 100/min, respiratory rate is 22/min, blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg, and temperature is 40.5ºC (104.9°F). On physical examination, he appears unwell and confused. His heart rate is elevated with a regular rhythm and his lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. During the examination, he experiences a right-sided focal seizure, which is controlled with lorazepam. A head CT reveals bilateral asymmetrical hypodensities of the temporal region. A lumbar puncture is performed and reveals the following:
WBC count 25/mm3
Cell predominance lymphocytes
Protein elevated
The patient is started on a medication to treat the underlying cause of his symptoms. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
A. Fusion inhibition
B. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibition
C. Inhibition of DNA polymerase (Correct Answer)
D. Binding with ergosterol in the cell membrane
E. Cell wall synthesis inhibition
Explanation: ***Inhibition of DNA polymerase***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, neck stiffness, drowsiness, focal seizure, temporal lobe hypodensities) and CSF findings (lymphocytic pleocytosis, elevated protein) are highly suggestive of **herpes simplex encephalitis (HSE)**.
- The primary treatment for HSE is **acyclovir**, which works by inhibiting **viral DNA polymerase**.
*Fusion inhibition*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **antiviral drugs used for HIV**, such as enfuvirtide, which block the entry of the virus into host cells by preventing fusion of the viral and cellular membranes.
- This mechanism is not relevant to the treatment of herpes simplex virus.
*Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibition*
- This mechanism is also primarily associated with **antiretroviral drugs for HIV** (e.g., zidovudine).
- These drugs inhibit the enzyme **reverse transcriptase**, which HIV uses to convert its RNA into DNA.
*Binding with ergosterol in the cell membrane*
- This is the mechanism of action for certain **antifungal medications**, such as **amphotericin B** and **nystatin**, which bind to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, leading to cell lysis.
- This mechanism is not applicable to antiviral treatment for HSE.
*Cell wall synthesis inhibition*
- This mechanism describes the action of many **antibacterial agents** (e.g., penicillins, cephalosporins) that interfere with the formation of the bacterial cell wall.
- This is not relevant to viral infections like HSE.
Question 40: A 52-year-old woman comes to the physician because of abdominal discomfort, anorexia, and mild fatigue. She has systemic lupus erythematosus and takes hydroxychloroquine. She does not drink alcohol or use illicit drugs. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Alanine aminotransferase 455 U/L
Aspartate aminotransferase 205 U/L
Hepatitis B surface antigen positive
Hepatitis B surface antibody negative
Hepatitis B envelope antigen positive
Hepatitis B core antigen IgG antibody positive
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A. Acyclovir
B. Tenofovir (Correct Answer)
C. Pegylated interferon-alpha
D. Dolutegravir
E. Sofosbuvir
Explanation: ***Tenofovir***
- This patient has **chronic active hepatitis B infection**, as indicated by **positive HBsAg**, **HBeAg**, and elevated liver enzymes. Antiviral therapy with **tenofovir** is highly effective and appropriate to suppress viral replication.
- The coexistence of **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)** and **hydroxychloroquine** use increases the importance of managing HBV, as immunosuppression can lead to viral reactivation; tenofovir effectively targets the virus without significant interactions.
*Acyclovir*
- **Acyclovir** is an antiviral medication primarily used to treat infections caused by **herpes simplex virus (HSV)** and **varicella-zoster virus (VZV)**.
- It has **no efficacy** against hepatitis B virus (HBV) and therefore would not be appropriate for this patient's condition.
*Pegylated interferon-alpha*
- **Pegylated interferon-alpha** is an immunomodulatory agent used to treat chronic hepatitis B and C; however, it has a **less favorable side effect profile** and is often reserved for patients who cannot tolerate or respond to nucleoside/nucleotide analogs.
- The patient's underlying **SLE** could be **exacerbated by interferon**, making tenofovir a safer and more appropriate first-line choice given its better tolerability and potent antiviral effect.
*Dolutegravir*
- **Dolutegravir** is an **integrase inhibitor** used in the treatment of **HIV infection**.
- It has **no antiviral activity** against the hepatitis B virus and is therefore not indicated for this patient's condition.
*Sofosbuvir*
- **Sofosbuvir** is a direct-acting antiviral agent primarily used to treat **chronic hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection**.
- It is **not effective** against hepatitis B virus (HBV) and would not be the correct treatment for this patient.