A 21-year-old man presents to the physician with complaint of fever and non-bloody diarrhea for the past 3 days, after a week of constipation. He and his family recently returned from a summer spent in New Delhi, India visiting relatives. Physical examination reveals abdominal tenderness and a pink macular rash extending from his trunk to his upper arms. His vital signs are as follows: temperature is 99.7°F (37.6°C), blood pressure is 120/72 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 16/min. Which of the following drugs would be most effective in treating this patient’s condition?
Q242
A 59-year-old man comes to the physician because of a painful, burning red rash on his face and hands, which developed 30 minutes after going outside to do garden work. He wore a long-sleeved shirt and was exposed to direct sunlight for about 10 minutes. The patient is light-skinned and has a history of occasional sunburns when he does not apply sunscreen. The patient was diagnosed with small cell lung carcinoma 2 months ago and is currently undergoing chemotherapy. He is currently taking demeclocycline for malignancy-associated hyponatremia and amoxicillin for sinusitis. He has also had occasional back pain. He takes zolpidem and drinks 1–2 glasses of brandy before going to sleep every night. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years. His pulse is 72/min and his blood pressure is 120/75 mm Hg. Physical examination shows prominent erythema on his forehead, cheeks, and neck. Erythema and papular eruptions are seen on the dorsum of both hands. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q243
A 48-year-old woman with a history of osteoarthritis and hypertension presents to the office complaining of persistent abdominal pain for the last 2 months. She describes the pain as 'burning and achy' that is worse when she eats, which has lead to a weight loss of 4.5 kg (10.0 lb). The patient is currently taking lisinopril and atenolol for her blood pressure and ibuprofen as needed for her osteoarthritis. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.7°F), heart rate is 75/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. An endoscopy is performed and a gastric ulcer is visualized and biopsied. The biopsy reveals H. pylori infection. Which of the following is the most likely predisposing factor to this patient’s diagnosis?
Q244
A 64-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with complaints of severe, whole-body itching. She states that she first noticed her symptoms while in the bathtub at home. She has never had symptoms like this before. However, over the previous several months she has had episodes of severe joint swelling and pain in her hands as well as redness, burning pain, and swelling of her hands and feet. Her past medical history is significant for type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and osteoporosis for which she takes metformin, enalapril, and alendronate, respectively. In addition, she was found to have a deep vein thrombosis of her left leg three months prior to presentation. The patient’s temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), pulse is 80/min, blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg, and respirations are 13/min. Physical exam is notable for a woman in discomfort with excoriations over the skin on her forearms. The patient’s laboratory tests are shown below.
Serum:
Na+: 135 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 5.0 mEq/L
HCO3-: 22 mEq/L
BUN: 19 mg/dL
Glucose: 130 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Hematocrit: 64%
Leukocyte count: 19,000 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 900,000/mm^3
What is the best next step in treatment of this patient's underlying condition?
Q245
A 32-year-old man presents with a 1-week history of progressive diplopia followed by numbness and tingling in his hands and feet, some weakness in his extremities, and occasional difficulty swallowing. He was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma and started on a chemotherapeutic regimen that included bleomycin, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, vincristine, and prednisone. He denies fever, recent viral illness, or vaccination. On neurological examination, he has bilateral ptosis. His bilateral pupils are 5 mm in diameter and poorly responsive to light and accommodation. He has a bilateral facial weakness and his gag reflex is reduced. Motor examination using the Medical Research Council scale reveals a muscle strength of 4/5 in the proximal muscles of upper extremities bilaterally and 2/5 in distal muscles. In his lower extremities, hip muscles are mildly weak bilaterally, and he has bilateral foot drop. Deep tendon reflexes are absent. Sensory examination reveals a stocking-pattern loss to all sensory modalities in the lower extremities up to the middle of his shins. A brain MRI is normal. Lumbar puncture is unremarkable. His condition can be explained by a common adverse effect of which of the following drugs?
Q246
A 26-year-old student arrives to student health for persistent diarrhea. She states that for the past 2 months she has had foul-smelling diarrhea and abdominal cramping. She also reports increased bloating, flatulence, and an unintentional 4 lb weight loss. Prior to 2 months ago, she had never felt these symptoms before. She denies other extra-gastrointestinal symptoms. The patient is an avid hiker and says her symptoms have caused her to miss recent camping trips. The patient has tried to add more fiber to her diet without relief. She feels her symptoms worsen with milk or cheese. Her medical history is insignificant and she takes no medications. She drinks whiskey socially, but denies smoking tobacco or using any illicit drugs. She is sexually active with her boyfriend of 2 years. She went to Mexico 6 months ago and her last multi-day backpacking trek was about 3 months ago in Vermont. Physical examination is unremarkable. A stool sample is negative for fecal occult blood. Which of the following is an associated adverse effect of the most likely treatment given to manage the patient’s symptoms?
Q247
A 29-year-old man presents to the primary care clinic in June for post-discharge follow-up. The patient was recently admitted to the hospital after a motor vehicle collision. At that time he arrived at the emergency department unconscious, hypotensive, and tachycardic. Abdominal CT revealed a hemoperitoneum due to a large splenic laceration; he was taken to the operating room for emergency splenectomy. Since that time he has recovered well without complications. Prior to the accident, he was up-to-date on all of his vaccinations. Which of the following vaccinations should be administered at this time?
Q248
A 55-year-old woman presents with diarrhea and a rash. She reports having some painful reddish nodules on her legs that she noticed a week ago. She also has been having loose stools associated with cramping lower abdominal pain for the past month. This is associated with an urgency to defecate, and defecation helps relieve the abdominal pain. The stool is occasionally blood-tinged and has some mucus. She feels fatigued but denies fever, weight loss, exposure to any sick people, or history of travel recently. No significant past medical history. Her family history is significant for osteoporosis in her mother, aunt, and older sister. On physical examination, the patient has generalized pallor. There are multiple erythematous tender nodules over the extensor surface of the legs bilaterally below the level of the knee. Abdominal examination reveals mild tenderness to palpation in the left lower quadrant. A DEXA scan is performed and reveals a T-score of -1.5 at the hips and spine. Laboratory findings are significant for microcytic anemia and an elevated ESR. A colonoscopy is performed and reveals patchy inflammation of the colon with rectal sparing. The lesions are present in patches with intermittent normal colonic mucosa. The patient is started on sulfasalazine and shows a good response. However, 6 months later, she returns with a recurrence of her symptoms. A repeat colonoscopy reveals more extensive involvement of the colon and the small bowel. A second drug is added to her treatment regimen. Which of the following is the most common adverse effect associated with the use of this second drug?
Q249
A laboratory physician investigates the chromosomes of a fetus with a suspected chromosomal anomaly. She processes a cell culture obtained by amniocentesis. Prior to staining and microscopic examination of the fetal chromosomes, a drug that blocks cell division is added to the cell culture. In order to arrest chromosomes in metaphase, the physician most likely added a drug that is also used for the treatment of which of the following conditions?
Q250
A 30-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of the sudden onset of back pain beginning 2 hours ago. Beginning yesterday, he noticed that his eyes started appearing yellowish and his urine was darker than normal. Two months ago, he returned from a trip to Greece, where he lived before immigrating to the US 10 years ago. Three days ago, he was diagnosed with latent tuberculosis and started on isoniazid. He has worked as a plumber the last 5 years. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Examination shows back tenderness and scleral icterus. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit 29%
Leukocyte count 8000/mm3
Platelet count 280,000/mm3
Serum
Bilirubin
Total 4 mg/dL
Direct 0.7 mg/dL
Haptoglobin 15 mg/dL (N=41–165 mg/dL)
Lactate dehydrogenase 180 U/L
Urine
Blood 3+
Protein 1+
RBC 2–3/hpf
WBC 2–3/hpf
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's anemia?
Antimicrobials US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 241: A 21-year-old man presents to the physician with complaint of fever and non-bloody diarrhea for the past 3 days, after a week of constipation. He and his family recently returned from a summer spent in New Delhi, India visiting relatives. Physical examination reveals abdominal tenderness and a pink macular rash extending from his trunk to his upper arms. His vital signs are as follows: temperature is 99.7°F (37.6°C), blood pressure is 120/72 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 16/min. Which of the following drugs would be most effective in treating this patient’s condition?
A. Oral rehydration solution
B. Penicillin
C. Ciprofloxacin (Correct Answer)
D. Oral vancomycin
E. Metronidazole
Explanation: ***Ciprofloxacin***
- The patient's symptoms (fever, initial constipation followed by diarrhea, abdominal tenderness, **rose spots** or pink macular rash on trunk and upper arms, and recent travel to an endemic area like New Delhi) are highly suggestive of **Typhoid fever** caused by *Salmonella Typhi*.
- **Important note**: While ciprofloxacin and other fluoroquinolones were historically first-line agents for typhoid fever, there is now **widespread fluoroquinolone resistance** in South Asia, particularly in India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh.
- Among the options listed, ciprofloxacin remains the most appropriate choice, though **azithromycin or ceftriaxone** would be preferred first-line agents in current clinical practice for typhoid acquired in South Asia.
- Ciprofloxacin may still have some efficacy and is the best option available from this list.
*Oral rehydration solution*
- This is a supportive treatment for **dehydration** caused by diarrhea, and while important for symptom management, it does not treat the underlying bacterial infection.
- It is crucial for preventing severe dehydration but is not curative for typhoid fever.
*Penicillin*
- Penicillin is a **beta-lactam antibiotic** that is generally ineffective against *Salmonella Typhi*.
- *Salmonella Typhi* are typically resistant to penicillin and other similar narrow-spectrum antibiotics.
*Oral vancomycin*
- **Oral vancomycin** is primarily used to treat **Clostridioides difficile infection** (CDI) due to its poor systemic absorption.
- It has no significant activity against *Salmonella Typhi* and would be ineffective for typhoid fever.
*Metronidazole*
- Metronidazole is an antibiotic primarily effective against **anaerobic bacteria** and **parasites** (e.g., *Giardia*, *Entamoeba histolytica*).
Question 242: A 59-year-old man comes to the physician because of a painful, burning red rash on his face and hands, which developed 30 minutes after going outside to do garden work. He wore a long-sleeved shirt and was exposed to direct sunlight for about 10 minutes. The patient is light-skinned and has a history of occasional sunburns when he does not apply sunscreen. The patient was diagnosed with small cell lung carcinoma 2 months ago and is currently undergoing chemotherapy. He is currently taking demeclocycline for malignancy-associated hyponatremia and amoxicillin for sinusitis. He has also had occasional back pain. He takes zolpidem and drinks 1–2 glasses of brandy before going to sleep every night. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years. His pulse is 72/min and his blood pressure is 120/75 mm Hg. Physical examination shows prominent erythema on his forehead, cheeks, and neck. Erythema and papular eruptions are seen on the dorsum of both hands. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Normal sunburn reaction
B. Adverse reaction to amoxicillin
C. Systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Use of demeclocycline (Correct Answer)
E. Uroporphyrin accumulation
Explanation: ***Use of demeclocycline***
- The patient's acute, burning erythematous rash on sun-exposed areas (face, hands) after brief sun exposure is highly suggestive of **photosensitivity**.
- **Demeclocycline**, a tetracycline antibiotic, is a known cause of **phototoxic reactions**, making it the most likely culprit given his current medications.
*Normal sunburn reaction*
- A normal sunburn, while possible with brief exposure in a light-skinned individual, would typically take longer than **30 minutes** to develop a prominent, burning rash.
- The severity and rapid onset of symptoms are more indicative of a **phototoxic reaction** rather than a typical sunburn.
*Adverse reaction to amoxicillin*
- While amoxicillin can cause drug eruptions, they typically manifest as a **morbilliform rash** or **urticaria (hives)**, not a localized, burning rash primarily in sun-exposed areas.
- Amoxicillin is **not commonly associated** with photosensitivity.
*Systemic lupus erythematosus*
- SLE can cause photosensitive rashes (e.g., **malar rash**, discoid lesions), but these tend to be **chronic** or recurrent, and the acute, rapid onset of a burning sensation after brief exposure is less typical.
- Other systemic symptoms of SLE, such as **arthralgias, kidney involvement, or serositis**, are not described as the primary complaint.
*Uroporphyrin accumulation*
- **Porphyrias**, such as **porphyria cutanea tarda**, involve the accumulation of porphyrins (like uroporphyrin) leading to photosensitivity, blistering, and skin fragility.
- While it causes photosensitivity, the classic presentation often includes **blisters, hyperpigmentation, increased skin fragility, and hirsutism**, which are not described in this patient's acute presentation of a purely erythematous, burning rash.
Question 243: A 48-year-old woman with a history of osteoarthritis and hypertension presents to the office complaining of persistent abdominal pain for the last 2 months. She describes the pain as 'burning and achy' that is worse when she eats, which has lead to a weight loss of 4.5 kg (10.0 lb). The patient is currently taking lisinopril and atenolol for her blood pressure and ibuprofen as needed for her osteoarthritis. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.7°F), heart rate is 75/min, and blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg. An endoscopy is performed and a gastric ulcer is visualized and biopsied. The biopsy reveals H. pylori infection. Which of the following is the most likely predisposing factor to this patient’s diagnosis?
A. Chronic NSAID use (Correct Answer)
B. Longstanding GERD
C. Age and gender
D. Adverse effect of beta-blockers
E. A congenital diverticulum
Explanation: ***Chronic NSAID use***
- The patient's use of **ibuprofen** for osteoarthritis is a significant risk factor for peptic ulcer disease, especially when combined with *H. pylori* infection. NSAIDs inhibit **prostaglandin synthesis**, impairing the stomach's protective mucous layer.
- The abdominal pain worsening with food and subsequent weight loss are classic symptoms of a **gastric ulcer**, which is confirmed by endoscopy and *H. pylori* biopsy.
*Longstanding GERD*
- While GERD can cause upper abdominal pain, it typically manifests as **heartburn** or **regurgitation**, not usually "burning and achy" pain made worse by eating in a way that leads to significant weight loss due to a gastric ulcer.
- GERD primarily causes esophageal damage, whereas a gastric ulcer involves the stomach lining; although there can be overlap, it's not the primary predisposing factor for a biopsy-confirmed *H. pylori* gastric ulcer.
*Age and gender*
- While peptic ulcer disease can occur at any age, the patient's age and gender are not direct predisposing factors for a **gastric ulcer** in the same way that NSAID use or *H. pylori* infection are.
- These factors do not explain the specific mechanism of ulcer formation in her case as directly as her medication history.
*Adverse effect of beta-blockers*
- **Beta-blockers** (like atenolol) are not known to cause peptic ulcers as a common or significant adverse effect.
- Their primary cardiovascular effects do not directly impact gastric mucosal integrity.
*A congenital diverticulum*
- A congenital diverticulum, such as a **Meckel's diverticulum**, is typically found in the small intestine and is more associated with complications like inflammation, bleeding, or obstruction, not gastric ulcers.
- This condition is also present from birth and not related to the patient's current medications or *H. pylori* infection.
Question 244: A 64-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with complaints of severe, whole-body itching. She states that she first noticed her symptoms while in the bathtub at home. She has never had symptoms like this before. However, over the previous several months she has had episodes of severe joint swelling and pain in her hands as well as redness, burning pain, and swelling of her hands and feet. Her past medical history is significant for type II diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and osteoporosis for which she takes metformin, enalapril, and alendronate, respectively. In addition, she was found to have a deep vein thrombosis of her left leg three months prior to presentation. The patient’s temperature is 98.6°F (37.0°C), pulse is 80/min, blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg, and respirations are 13/min. Physical exam is notable for a woman in discomfort with excoriations over the skin on her forearms. The patient’s laboratory tests are shown below.
Serum:
Na+: 135 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 5.0 mEq/L
HCO3-: 22 mEq/L
BUN: 19 mg/dL
Glucose: 130 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Hematocrit: 64%
Leukocyte count: 19,000 cells/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 900,000/mm^3
What is the best next step in treatment of this patient's underlying condition?
A. Febuxostat
B. Hydroxyurea (Correct Answer)
C. Prednisone
D. Cyclophosphamide
E. Diphenhydramine
Explanation: ***Hydroxyurea***
* The patient's clinical picture, including whole-body itching, severe joint pain and swelling (gout), redness and burning pain in hands and feet (**erythromelalgia**), a history of DVT, elevated hematocrit (**64%**), very high leukocyte count (**19,000/mm³**) with normal differential, and extremely elevated platelet count (**900,000/mm³**), strongly suggests **polycythemia vera**.
* **Hydroxyurea** is a first-line cytoreductive agent used to control myelosuppression and reduce the risk of thrombotic events in high-risk patients with polycythemia vera.
*Febuxostat*
* **Febuxostat** is a **xanthine oxidase inhibitor** used to treat **gout** by lowering uric acid levels. While the patient has symptoms suggestive of gout, this addresses only one complication and not the underlying myeloproliferative disorder.
* It would not address the thrombotic risk associated with polycythemia vera or control the high blood counts.
*Prednisone*
* **Prednisone** is a corticosteroid used to treat inflammatory and autoimmune conditions.
* While it might temporarily alleviate symptoms like pain or itching, it is not a definitive treatment for a myeloproliferative neoplasm like polycythemia vera and could worsen glucose control.
*Cyclophosphamide*
* **Cyclophosphamide** is an **alkylating agent** used primarily in chemotherapy for various cancers and autoimmune diseases.
* It is generally reserved for more aggressive conditions or in cases when hydroxyurea or other first-line agents are ineffective or contraindicated. It is not the initial best step for polycythemia vera.
*Diphenhydramine*
* **Diphenhydramine** is an **antihistamine** used to relieve itching.
* While it could acutely help with the pruritus, it only addresses a symptom and does not treat the underlying cause of the severe itching, which is related to the myeloproliferative disorder.
Question 245: A 32-year-old man presents with a 1-week history of progressive diplopia followed by numbness and tingling in his hands and feet, some weakness in his extremities, and occasional difficulty swallowing. He was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's lymphoma and started on a chemotherapeutic regimen that included bleomycin, doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, vincristine, and prednisone. He denies fever, recent viral illness, or vaccination. On neurological examination, he has bilateral ptosis. His bilateral pupils are 5 mm in diameter and poorly responsive to light and accommodation. He has a bilateral facial weakness and his gag reflex is reduced. Motor examination using the Medical Research Council scale reveals a muscle strength of 4/5 in the proximal muscles of upper extremities bilaterally and 2/5 in distal muscles. In his lower extremities, hip muscles are mildly weak bilaterally, and he has bilateral foot drop. Deep tendon reflexes are absent. Sensory examination reveals a stocking-pattern loss to all sensory modalities in the lower extremities up to the middle of his shins. A brain MRI is normal. Lumbar puncture is unremarkable. His condition can be explained by a common adverse effect of which of the following drugs?
A. Doxorubicin
B. Bleomycin
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Prednisone
E. Vincristine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Vincristine***
- The patient's symptoms of **progressive diplopia**, **numbness and tingling**, **weakness (especially distal foot drop)**, **cranial nerve palsies (ptosis, facial weakness, reduced gag reflex)**, and **absent deep tendon reflexes (areflexia)**, along with a **stocking-glove sensory loss**, are highly indicative of **vincristine-induced peripheral neuropathy**.
- **Vincristine** is a vinca alkaloid commonly used in Hodgkin's lymphoma treatment known for its **neurotoxicity**, primarily affecting **sensory and motor peripheral nerves** and **cranial nerves**.
*Doxorubicin*
- **Doxorubicin** is an anthracycline known for its **cardiotoxicity**, which can lead to **dilated cardiomyopathy** and **congestive heart failure**.
- It does not typically cause the prominent **peripheral neuropathy** and **cranial nerve deficits** observed in this patient.
*Bleomycin*
- **Bleomycin** is an antitumor antibiotic primarily associated with **pulmonary toxicity**, including **fibrosis and pneumonitis**.
- It does not cause significant **neurological side effects** like polyneuropathy.
*Cyclophosphamide*
- **Cyclophosphamide** is an alkylating agent known for its side effects such as **hemorrhagic cystitis**, **bone marrow suppression**, and **gonadal dysfunction**.
- It generally does not cause **peripheral neuropathy** or **cranial nerve palsies** as its primary toxicity.
*Prednisone*
- **Prednisone** is a corticosteroid that can cause a wide range of side effects including **hyperglycemia**, **immunosuppression**, **osteoporosis**, and **myopathy (proximal weakness)** with prolonged use.
- While it can cause some muscle weakness, it does not typically present with the **distal nerve involvement**, **sensory loss**, **diplopia**, and **areflexia** seen in this patient.
Question 246: A 26-year-old student arrives to student health for persistent diarrhea. She states that for the past 2 months she has had foul-smelling diarrhea and abdominal cramping. She also reports increased bloating, flatulence, and an unintentional 4 lb weight loss. Prior to 2 months ago, she had never felt these symptoms before. She denies other extra-gastrointestinal symptoms. The patient is an avid hiker and says her symptoms have caused her to miss recent camping trips. The patient has tried to add more fiber to her diet without relief. She feels her symptoms worsen with milk or cheese. Her medical history is insignificant and she takes no medications. She drinks whiskey socially, but denies smoking tobacco or using any illicit drugs. She is sexually active with her boyfriend of 2 years. She went to Mexico 6 months ago and her last multi-day backpacking trek was about 3 months ago in Vermont. Physical examination is unremarkable. A stool sample is negative for fecal occult blood. Which of the following is an associated adverse effect of the most likely treatment given to manage the patient’s symptoms?
A. Tendon rupture
B. QT prolongation
C. Photosensitivity
D. Disulfiram-like reaction (Correct Answer)
E. Osteoporosis
Explanation: ***Disulfiram-like reaction***
- The patient's symptoms (foul-smelling diarrhea, bloating, flatulence, weight loss after hiking) are highly suggestive of **Giardiasis**, which is commonly treated with **metronidazole**.
- **Metronidazole** is known to cause a **disulfiram-like reaction** when consumed with alcohol, as it inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase, leading to an accumulation of acetaldehyde.
*Tendon rupture*
- **Tendon rupture** is a well-known adverse effect associated with **fluoroquinolone antibiotics** (e.g., ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin).
- Fluoroquinolones are not the first-line treatment for Giardiasis, and there is no indication for their use in this patient's presentation.
*QT prolongation*
- **QT prolongation** is a potential adverse effect of several medications, including some **macrolide antibiotics** (e.g., azithromycin), certain **antifungals**, and **antiarrhythmics**.
- While some medications used for parasitic infections might rarely cause this, it's not a primary or common side effect of metronidazole.
*Photosensitivity*
- **Photosensitivity** reactions are commonly associated with certain **antibiotics** (e.g., tetracyclines, sulfonamides), **diuretics**, and **NSAIDs**.
- This adverse effect is not typically linked to metronidazole.
*Osteoporosis*
- **Osteoporosis** is a long-term skeletal condition often linked to chronic corticosteroid use, hormonal imbalances, or certain chronic diseases.
- It is not an acute or common adverse effect of anti-parasitic medications like metronidazole.
Question 247: A 29-year-old man presents to the primary care clinic in June for post-discharge follow-up. The patient was recently admitted to the hospital after a motor vehicle collision. At that time he arrived at the emergency department unconscious, hypotensive, and tachycardic. Abdominal CT revealed a hemoperitoneum due to a large splenic laceration; he was taken to the operating room for emergency splenectomy. Since that time he has recovered well without complications. Prior to the accident, he was up-to-date on all of his vaccinations. Which of the following vaccinations should be administered at this time?
A. Inactivated (intramuscular) influenza vaccine
B. Live attenuated (intranasal) influenza vaccine
C. Tetanus booster vaccine
D. Measles-mumps-rubella vaccine
E. 13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine***
- Patients who have undergone a **splenectomy** are at increased risk for **overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI)**, particularly from encapsulated bacteria like *Streptococcus pneumoniae*.
- The **13-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV13)** and the **23-valent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPSV23)** are crucial for protection, with PCV13 typically given first.
*Inactivated (intramuscular) influenza vaccine*
- While recommended annually for most individuals, especially those with chronic conditions, influenza vaccination is generally given in the **fall** (September-October) to cover the typical flu season.
- Administering it in June is **premature** and not the most urgent vaccination for this patient in a post-splenectomy state.
*Live attenuated (intranasal) influenza vaccine*
- This vaccine is also administered annually in the fall for seasonal influenza and is **contraindicated** in immunocompromised individuals.
- Patients who have undergone splenectomy are considered **immunocompromised**, making this vaccine unsuitable.
*Tetanus booster vaccine*
- This patient would have likely received a **tetanus vaccine** at the time of the motor vehicle collision if their vaccination status was unknown or incomplete, as it's indicated for traumatic wounds.
- There is no indication for an additional tetanus booster based on his current presentation or recent hospital stay.
*Measles-mumps-rubella vaccine*
- The patient was noted to be **up-to-date on all vaccinations** prior to the accident, implying he has likely already received the MMR vaccine.
- There is no specific indication for an additional MMR vaccine due to splenectomy, unlike for encapsulated bacteria.
Question 248: A 55-year-old woman presents with diarrhea and a rash. She reports having some painful reddish nodules on her legs that she noticed a week ago. She also has been having loose stools associated with cramping lower abdominal pain for the past month. This is associated with an urgency to defecate, and defecation helps relieve the abdominal pain. The stool is occasionally blood-tinged and has some mucus. She feels fatigued but denies fever, weight loss, exposure to any sick people, or history of travel recently. No significant past medical history. Her family history is significant for osteoporosis in her mother, aunt, and older sister. On physical examination, the patient has generalized pallor. There are multiple erythematous tender nodules over the extensor surface of the legs bilaterally below the level of the knee. Abdominal examination reveals mild tenderness to palpation in the left lower quadrant. A DEXA scan is performed and reveals a T-score of -1.5 at the hips and spine. Laboratory findings are significant for microcytic anemia and an elevated ESR. A colonoscopy is performed and reveals patchy inflammation of the colon with rectal sparing. The lesions are present in patches with intermittent normal colonic mucosa. The patient is started on sulfasalazine and shows a good response. However, 6 months later, she returns with a recurrence of her symptoms. A repeat colonoscopy reveals more extensive involvement of the colon and the small bowel. A second drug is added to her treatment regimen. Which of the following is the most common adverse effect associated with the use of this second drug?
A. Hepatotoxicity
B. Infection (Correct Answer)
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Worsening of osteoporosis
E. Rash
Explanation: ***Infection***
- The patient's presentation with **patchy inflammation** of the colon, rectal sparing, and later small bowel involvement, along with **erythema nodosum** and **microcytic anemia**, is highly suggestive of **Crohn's disease**.
- Given the recurrence and more extensive involvement, it's likely a **biologic agent** (e.g., TNF-alpha inhibitor) or an **immunomodulator** (e.g., methotrexate, azathioprine) was added. These drugs **suppress the immune system**, making **infection** the most common and serious adverse effect.
*Hepatotoxicity*
- While some drugs used in Crohn's disease, such as **methotrexate** or **azathioprine**, can cause hepatotoxicity, it is generally monitored and is less common than infection.
- **Biologics**, which are frequently used for refractory Crohn's, pose a lower risk of hepatotoxicity compared to their immunomodulatory effects.
*Megaloblastic anemia*
- **Megaloblastic anemia** is typically associated with **folate deficiency** (which can be caused by sulfasalazine or methotrexate) or **B12 deficiency** (which can occur in Crohn's affecting the terminal ileum).
- While possible, it is not the most common adverse effect of the second-line agents used to treat Crohn's disease.
*Worsening of osteoporosis*
- **Osteoporosis** is a common comorbidity in Crohn's disease due to chronic inflammation, malabsorption, and corticosteroid use, but it is not a direct adverse effect of most second-line medications.
- While **corticosteroids** can worsen osteoporosis, they are typically used for acute flares, and the newer biologic or immunomodulatory agents do not directly cause bone loss.
*Rash*
- **Rash** can be an adverse effect of many medications, including some used for Crohn's disease like **sulfasalazine** or **biologics**.
- However, **infection** due to immunosuppression is a far more pervasive and common risk across a broader range of the second-line therapies used in Crohn's disease management.
Question 249: A laboratory physician investigates the chromosomes of a fetus with a suspected chromosomal anomaly. She processes a cell culture obtained by amniocentesis. Prior to staining and microscopic examination of the fetal chromosomes, a drug that blocks cell division is added to the cell culture. In order to arrest chromosomes in metaphase, the physician most likely added a drug that is also used for the treatment of which of the following conditions?
A. Trichomonas vaginitis
B. Testicular cancer
C. Herpes zoster
D. Polycythemia vera
E. Acute gouty arthritis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Acute gouty arthritis***
- The drug used to arrest chromosomes in metaphase is likely **colchicine**, which inhibits **microtubule polymerization** and spindle formation, thus arresting cells in metaphase.
- **Colchicine** is a well-established treatment for **acute gouty arthritis** due to its anti-inflammatory properties, primarily through disrupting neutrophil functions.
*Trichomonas vaginitis*
- This condition is typically treated with **metronidazole** or **tinidazole**, which are antibiotics targeting protozoa and anaerobic bacteria.
- These drugs do not inhibit microtubule assembly or arrest cells in metaphase.
*Testicular cancer*
- Testicular cancer is primarily treated with **BEP regimen** (bleomycin, etoposide, cisplatin), which does not include microtubule-inhibiting agents.
- While vinca alkaloids (vincristine, vinblastine) do arrest cells in metaphase via microtubule inhibition similar to colchicine, they are not standard first-line agents for testicular cancer.
- The question specifically asks about the primary clinical use of colchicine, which is gout, not cancer chemotherapy.
*Herpes zoster*
- Herpes zoster (shingles) is a viral infection treated with **antiviral medications** like acyclovir, valacyclovir, or famciclovir.
- These antivirals work by interfering with viral DNA replication and do not target microtubule formation or cell division.
*Polycythemia vera*
- Polycythemia vera is a myeloproliferative neoplasm often managed with **phlebotomy**, **hydroxyurea**, or ruxolitinib.
- These treatments aim to reduce blood cell counts or inhibit specific signaling pathways, none of which primarily involve arresting cells in metaphase by disrupting microtubules.
Question 250: A 30-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of the sudden onset of back pain beginning 2 hours ago. Beginning yesterday, he noticed that his eyes started appearing yellowish and his urine was darker than normal. Two months ago, he returned from a trip to Greece, where he lived before immigrating to the US 10 years ago. Three days ago, he was diagnosed with latent tuberculosis and started on isoniazid. He has worked as a plumber the last 5 years. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Examination shows back tenderness and scleral icterus. Laboratory studies show:
Hematocrit 29%
Leukocyte count 8000/mm3
Platelet count 280,000/mm3
Serum
Bilirubin
Total 4 mg/dL
Direct 0.7 mg/dL
Haptoglobin 15 mg/dL (N=41–165 mg/dL)
Lactate dehydrogenase 180 U/L
Urine
Blood 3+
Protein 1+
RBC 2–3/hpf
WBC 2–3/hpf
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's anemia?
A. Absence of reduced glutathione (Correct Answer)
B. Absence of uridine 5'-monophosphate
C. Crescent-shaped erythrocytes
D. Defective ankyrin in the RBC membrane
E. Inhibition of aminolevulinate dehydratase
Explanation: ***Absence of reduced glutathione***
- This patient's presentation with anemia, jaundice, dark urine, and particularly the low **haptoglobin** and elevated **LDH**, points to **hemolysis**. The recent initiation of **isoniazid** (an oxidative stressor) and his Greek ancestry strongly suggest **G6PD deficiency**, where a lack of reduced glutathione leads to oxidative damage and hemolysis.
- **Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency** is an X-linked recessive disorder common in populations of Mediterranean and African descent. It impairs the **hexose monophosphate shunt**, reducing the cell's ability to produce **NADPH**, which is crucial for reducing **oxidative stress** via **reduced glutathione**.
*Absence of uridine 5'-monophosphate*
- Absence of **uridine 5'-monophosphate (UMP)** is associated with **hereditary orotic aciduria**, a rare metabolic disorder.
- This condition typically presents with **megaloblastic anemia** (not hemolytic anemia), growth retardation, and orotic acid crystals in the urine, none of which are consistent with this patient's findings.
*Crescent-shaped erythrocytes*
- **Crescent-shaped erythrocytes** (sickle cells) are characteristic of **sickle cell anemia**, a genetic disorder causing chronic hemolytic anemia, vaso-occlusive crises, and pain.
- While it can cause hemolytic anemia, the triggers and specific laboratory findings (e.g., absence of a specific oxidative stressor like isoniazid causing acute hemolysis, the sudden onset in an adult not previously diagnosed) make it less likely than G6PD deficiency in this context.
*Defective ankyrin in the RBC membrane*
- Defective **ankyrin** in the red blood cell membrane is characteristic of **hereditary spherocytosis**, an inherited disorder causing hemolytic anemia.
- This condition typically presents with **spherocytes** on the blood smear, increased **MCHC**, and a positive **osmotic fragility test**, which are not indicated by the provided lab results.
*Inhibition of aminolevulinate dehydratase*
- Inhibition of **aminolevulinate dehydratase** is associated with **lead poisoning**, which impairs **heme synthesis**.
- This would typically cause a **microcytic or normocytic anemia** with **basophilic stippling** and elevated **protoporphyrin levels**, not an acute hemolytic crisis with jaundice, low haptoglobin, and elevated LDH.