A 60-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of blood in his urine, lower abdominal pain, and a burning sensation while micturating. Five months ago, he was diagnosed with high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma and a deep vein thrombosis of his right popliteal vein. His medications include polychemotherapy every 3 weeks and a daily subcutaneous dose of low molecular weight heparin. The last cycle of chemotherapy was 2 weeks ago. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 94/min, and blood pressure is 110/76 mm Hg. Examination shows bilateral axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and mild suprapubic tenderness. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
Leukocytes 4,300/mm3
Platelet count 145,000/mm3
Partial thromboplastin time 55 seconds
Prothrombin time 11 seconds (INR=1)
Urine
RBCs 50–55/hpf
RBC casts negative
WBCs 7/hpf
Epithelial cells 5/hpf
Bacteria occasional
Administration of which of the following is most likely to have prevented this patient's current condition?
Q232
A 45-year-old woman presents to the office complaining of fatigue and unintentional weight loss. On examination, there is a palpable firm lymph node in the cervical area. Biopsy of the lymph node reveals Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The patient agrees to start the standard chemotherapy regimen. A few months later, after the completion of 3 successful courses, the patient presents with a dry cough and progressively worsening shortness of breath. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), the blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, the pulse is 72/min, and the respirations are 16/min. Pulse oximetry shows an O2 saturation of 94% on room air. On spirometry, the patient's FEV1/FVC ratio is normal. Chest CT reveals bilateral diffuse cystic airspaces in middle and lower lung fields. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s current symptoms?
Q233
A 65-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He feels well. His most recent examination 2 years ago included purified protein derivative (PPD) skin testing and showed no abnormalities. He is a retired physician and recently came back from rural China where he completed a voluntary service at a local healthcare center. A PPD skin test is performed. Three days later, an induration of 12 mm is noted. An x-ray of the chest shows no abnormalities. He is started on a drug that inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acid. This patient is at greatest risk of developing which of the following adverse effects?
Q234
A 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-day history of lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. A urine pregnancy test is positive. A pelvic ultrasound shows a normal appearing uterus with an empty intrauterine cavity and a minimal amount of free pelvic fluid. Treatment with a drug is begun. Which of the following is the most likely effect of this drug?
Q235
A 34-year-old male comes to his family physician with complaints of joint pain that has been present for over 7 weeks. Prior to the onset of his arthritis, he recalls having a gastrointestinal infection which caused mild diarrhea and abdominal cramps. He recovered well and had no issues until his joint pain started. A prescription for naproxen was previously prescribed but he still does not feel well. He has no significant past medical or family history. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg, respirations are 17/min, pulse is 64/min, and temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). Which of the following therapies is likely to be most beneficial in treating this patient’s condition?
Q236
A 35-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of intermittent headaches. They have been getting progressively worse and no longer respond to ibuprofen. He also complains of weight gain and excessive sweating. Physical examination shows prominent supraorbital ridges, prognathism, macroglossia with thick lips, and disproportionately broad hands and feet. There is decreased peripheral vision bilaterally on visual field testing. An MRI of the brain shows a mass in the sella turcica. Genetic analysis of a biopsy specimen from the mass shows cells that overexpress adenylyl cyclase. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this condition?
Q237
A 32-year-old man presents to the clinic for follow up for treatment of latent tuberculosis. He is a healthcare worker and began isoniazid 3 months ago after a routine PPD yielded a 12-mm induration. He feels otherwise well and attributes this to his vegetarian diet that he has been following for the past 4 years. His past medical history is unremarkable, but his family history is significant for a "liver disease," the specifics of which are unknown. Physical exam shows mildly reduced sensation to pinprick over the distal lower extremities. The abdomen is soft, nontender, and without hepatosplenomegaly. Laboratory studies demonstrate the following:
Serum:
Hemoglobin: 9.6 g/dL
Hematocrit: 34%
Leukocyte count: 9,200/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelets: 270,000/mm^3
Mean corpuscular volume: 77 µm^3
AST: 92 U/L
ALT: 84 U/L
Ferritin: 302 ng/mL (normal 15-200 ng/mL)
Total iron: 273 µg/dL (normal 50-170 µg/dL)
TIBC: 150 µg/dL (normal 250–370 µg/dL)
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q238
A 25-year-old college student is diagnosed with acute myelogenous leukemia after presenting with a 3-week history of fever, malaise, and fatigue. He has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus, multiple middle ear infections as a child, and infectious mononucleosis in high school. He currently smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day, drinks a glass of wine per day, and denies any illicit drug use. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 87/min, and respiratory rate 17/min. On physical examination, his pulses are bounding; his complexion is pale, but breath sounds remain clear. A rapidly progressive form of leukemia is identified, and the patient is scheduled to start intravenous chemotherapy. Which of the following treatments should be given to this patient to prevent or decrease the likelihood of developing acute renal failure during treatment?
Q239
A 9-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents after a 2-day history of fever, productive cough, and severe dyspnea. The parents report that the boy had no health problems at birth but developed respiratory problems as an infant that have continued throughout his life, including recurrent pulmonary infections. Vital signs include: temperature of 37.5ºC (99.5ºF), pulse of 105/min, respiratory rate of 34/min, and SpO2 of 87%. Physical examination shows digital clubbing and cyanosis. Chest X-rays show hyperinflation of the lungs and chronic interstitial changes. The boy’s FEV1/FVC ratio is decreased, and his FRC is increased. The resident reviewing his case is studying new gene therapies for this boy’s condition that will reintroduce the gene for which this boy is defective. An important component of this therapy is identifying a vector for the selective introduction of the replacement gene into the human body. Which of the following would be the best vector to provide gene therapy for this boy’s respiratory symptoms?
Q240
A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 20 minutes after being rescued from a fire in his apartment complex. He thinks he might have briefly lost consciousness while he was trapped in a smoke-filled room before firefighters were able to free him 20 minutes later. He reports headache, dizziness, and occasional cough. He has no difficulty breathing, speaking, or swallowing. He appears mildly uncomfortable and agitated. His temperature is 36.4°C (97.5°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 155/68 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 92%. Breath sounds are coarse. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows :
pH 7.30
PCO2 38 mm Hg
PO2 70 mm Hg
HCO3- 18 mEq/L
COHb 2% (N < 3)
In addition to oxygen supplementation with a non-rebreather mask, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Antimicrobials US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 231: A 60-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-day history of blood in his urine, lower abdominal pain, and a burning sensation while micturating. Five months ago, he was diagnosed with high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma and a deep vein thrombosis of his right popliteal vein. His medications include polychemotherapy every 3 weeks and a daily subcutaneous dose of low molecular weight heparin. The last cycle of chemotherapy was 2 weeks ago. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 94/min, and blood pressure is 110/76 mm Hg. Examination shows bilateral axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, and mild suprapubic tenderness. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.2 g/dL
Leukocytes 4,300/mm3
Platelet count 145,000/mm3
Partial thromboplastin time 55 seconds
Prothrombin time 11 seconds (INR=1)
Urine
RBCs 50–55/hpf
RBC casts negative
WBCs 7/hpf
Epithelial cells 5/hpf
Bacteria occasional
Administration of which of the following is most likely to have prevented this patient's current condition?
A. Ciprofloxacin
B. Palifermin
C. Mercaptoethane sulfonate (Correct Answer)
D. Protamine sulfate
E. Dexrazoxane
Explanation: ***Mercaptoethane sulfonate***
- The patient's symptoms of **hematuria**, **lower abdominal pain**, and **dysuria** in the context of recent chemotherapy strongly suggest **hemorrhagic cystitis**. This is a known side effect of cyclophosphamide (or ifosfamide), which is often part of polychemotherapy for lymphoma.
- **Mercaptoethane sulfonate (MESNA)** is a chemoprotectant specifically used to detoxify the urotoxic metabolites (acrolein) of cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide, thereby preventing hemorrhagic cystitis.
*Ciprofloxacin*
- **Ciprofloxacin** is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, particularly urinary tract infections. While the patient has some WBCs and occasional bacteria in his urine, his primary condition is most likely drug-induced hemorrhagic cystitis, not a bacterial UTI that would be prevented by ciprofloxacin.
- The context of recent chemotherapy points away from a primary bacterial infection as the cause of hematuria.
*Palifermin*
- **Palifermin** is a recombinant human keratinocyte growth factor used to prevent and treat **oral mucositis**, a common side effect of chemotherapy and radiation.
- It does not have any protective effect against hemorrhagic cystitis.
*Protamine sulfate*
- **Protamine sulfate** is used to reverse the anticoagulant effects of **heparin** and **low molecular weight heparin (LMWH)**. While the patient is on LMWH, the hematuria is more likely due to chemotherapy-induced cystitis rather than LMWH overdose, as his platelet count is reasonable and he has no other signs of widespread bleeding attributable to LMWH.
- Administering protamine sulfate would not prevent hemorrhagic cystitis.
*Dexrazoxane*
- **Dexrazoxane** is a cardioprotective agent used to reduce the incidence and severity of **anthracycline-induced cardiotoxicity** (e.g., from doxorubicin).
- It does not prevent or treat hemorrhagic cystitis caused by cyclophosphamide or ifosfamide.
Question 232: A 45-year-old woman presents to the office complaining of fatigue and unintentional weight loss. On examination, there is a palpable firm lymph node in the cervical area. Biopsy of the lymph node reveals Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The patient agrees to start the standard chemotherapy regimen. A few months later, after the completion of 3 successful courses, the patient presents with a dry cough and progressively worsening shortness of breath. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), the blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, the pulse is 72/min, and the respirations are 16/min. Pulse oximetry shows an O2 saturation of 94% on room air. On spirometry, the patient's FEV1/FVC ratio is normal. Chest CT reveals bilateral diffuse cystic airspaces in middle and lower lung fields. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s current symptoms?
A. Transfusion-related acute lung injury
B. Metastatic spread to the lungs
C. Development of bacterial pneumonia due to immunocompromised state
D. Drug-induced interstitial lung disease (Correct Answer)
E. Development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Explanation: ***Drug-induced interstitial lung disease***
- The patient's symptoms of **dry cough**, **dyspnea**, and **hypoxemia** after chemotherapy for Hodgkin's lymphoma, along with CT findings of **diffuse cystic airspaces**, are highly suggestive of **drug-induced interstitial lung disease**. Chemotherapeutic agents like **bleomycin** are well-known causes of such pulmonary fibrosis.
- **Normal FEV1/FVC ratio** with worsening shortness of breath and hypoxemia points towards a **restrictive lung disease** pattern, which is characteristic of interstitial lung diseases.
*Transfusion-related acute lung injury*
- **TRALI** typically presents acutely, within 6 hours of a blood transfusion, with severe hypoxemia and bilateral pulmonary infiltrates.
- The patient’s symptoms developed over "a few months" and are not directly linked to a recent transfusion.
*Metastatic spread to the lungs*
- While Hodgkin's lymphoma can metastasize to the lungs, it typically presents with nodules or masses on CT scan, not diffuse cystic changes.
- The primary concern here is not recurrence, especially given the history of successful chemotherapy courses.
*Development of bacterial pneumonia due to immunocompromised state*
- Bacterial pneumonia usually presents with fever, productive cough, and lobar or patchy consolidations on CT, often with an elevated white blood cell count.
- The patient's temperature is normal, and CT findings are not typical for bacterial pneumonia but rather for chronic interstitial changes.
*Development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease*
- COPD is characterized by a **reduced FEV1/FVC ratio** and usually a history of smoking or chronic exposure to irritants, and predominantly causes emphysema or chronic bronchitis.
- The patient has a normal FEV1/FVC ratio and CT findings of cystic airspaces rather than typical emphysema.
Question 233: A 65-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He feels well. His most recent examination 2 years ago included purified protein derivative (PPD) skin testing and showed no abnormalities. He is a retired physician and recently came back from rural China where he completed a voluntary service at a local healthcare center. A PPD skin test is performed. Three days later, an induration of 12 mm is noted. An x-ray of the chest shows no abnormalities. He is started on a drug that inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acid. This patient is at greatest risk of developing which of the following adverse effects?
A. Cytochrome P-450 induction
B. Hyperuricemia
C. Liver injury (Correct Answer)
D. Optic neuropathy
E. Nephrotoxicity
Explanation: ***Liver injury***
- The drug described is **isoniazid**, which inhibits **mycolic acid synthesis** and is first-line treatment for **latent tuberculosis infection**.
- **Isoniazid-induced hepatotoxicity** is the most significant adverse effect, with risk increasing dramatically in patients **>35 years old** (this patient is 65).
- Additional risk factors include alcohol use, pre-existing liver disease, and concurrent hepatotoxic medications.
- Patients should be monitored with baseline and periodic liver function tests.
*Cytochrome P-450 induction*
- **Rifampin**, not isoniazid, is a potent **CYP450 inducer** that decreases levels of many co-administered drugs.
- Isoniazid is actually a **CYP450 inhibitor** (inhibits CYP2C19, CYP3A4), which can increase levels of other drugs like phenytoin and warfarin.
*Hyperuricemia*
- **Pyrazinamide** is the anti-tuberculosis drug that causes **hyperuricemia** by inhibiting renal tubular secretion of uric acid.
- This can precipitate acute gout attacks in susceptible patients.
- Isoniazid does not affect uric acid metabolism.
*Optic neuropathy*
- **Ethambutol** causes dose-dependent **optic neuropathy**, presenting with decreased visual acuity and **red-green color blindness**.
- Patients on ethambutol require baseline and monthly visual assessments.
- Isoniazid is not associated with optic toxicity.
*Nephrotoxicity*
- **Aminoglycosides** (e.g., streptomycin) and some other antibiotics cause **nephrotoxicity** through tubular damage.
- Isoniazid is not significantly nephrotoxic and does not require renal dose adjustment.
Question 234: A 25-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-day history of lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago. A urine pregnancy test is positive. A pelvic ultrasound shows a normal appearing uterus with an empty intrauterine cavity and a minimal amount of free pelvic fluid. Treatment with a drug is begun. Which of the following is the most likely effect of this drug?
A. Increase in thymidine monophosphate
B. Decrease in guanylate
C. Increase in deoxyuridine monophosphate (Correct Answer)
D. Increase in tetrahydrofolate polyglutamate
E. Decrease in phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate
Explanation: ***Increase in deoxyuridine monophosphate***
- The patient's presentation of lower abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, a positive pregnancy test, and an empty uterus on ultrasound (with minimal free fluid) strongly suggests an **ectopic pregnancy**.
- The drug used for medical management of ectopic pregnancy is typically **methotrexate**, which is a **folate analog** that inhibits **dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)**, leading to an increase in **deoxyuridine monophosphate (dUMP)**.
*Increase in thymidine monophosphate*
- Methotrexate ultimately leads to a **decrease** in **thymidine monophosphate (TMP)** synthesis by inhibiting the conversion of dUMP to dTMP.
- This inhibition of TMP synthesis interferes with **DNA synthesis** and cell proliferation of rapidly dividing cells, like those in an ectopic pregnancy.
*Decrease in guanylate*
- Methotrexate does not primarily affect the synthesis of guanylate (GMP).
- Guanylate synthesis is part of the **purine biosynthesis pathway**, whereas methotrexate's main action is on the **pyrimidine synthesis pathway** (specifically, thymidylate synthesis).
*Increase in tetrahydrofolate polyglutamate*
- Methotrexate (a folic acid analog) inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which reduces **dihydrofolate (DHF)** to **tetrahydrofolate (THF)**.
- Therefore, it leads to a **decrease**, not an increase, in the active form of folate, **tetrahydrofolate polyglutamate**.
*Decrease in phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate*
- **Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP)** is a key precursor for both **purine and pyrimidine synthesis**.
- Methotrexate's primary mechanism of action is upstream of PRPP in the metabolic pathways, and it does not directly decrease PRPP levels.
Question 235: A 34-year-old male comes to his family physician with complaints of joint pain that has been present for over 7 weeks. Prior to the onset of his arthritis, he recalls having a gastrointestinal infection which caused mild diarrhea and abdominal cramps. He recovered well and had no issues until his joint pain started. A prescription for naproxen was previously prescribed but he still does not feel well. He has no significant past medical or family history. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg, respirations are 17/min, pulse is 64/min, and temperature is 36.7°C (98.0°F). Which of the following therapies is likely to be most beneficial in treating this patient’s condition?
A. Ketoprofen
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Sulfasalazine (Correct Answer)
D. Methotrexate
E. Diclofenac
Explanation: ***Sulfasalazine***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **reactive arthritis**, characterized by **post-infectious arthritis** (following gastrointestinal infection and inadequate response to NSAIDs like naproxen).
- **Sulfasalazine** is an effective **disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)** often used in reactive arthritis, particularly when NSAIDs are insufficient.
*Ketoprofen*
- Ketoprofen is another **NSAID**, similar to the naproxen that the patient has already tried and found ineffective.
- While NSAIDs are first-line for symptomatic relief, continuing with another NSAID when the first one failed is unlikely to provide sustained benefit, indicating the need for a **DMARD**.
*Ceftriaxone*
- Ceftriaxone is an **antibiotic** used to treat active bacterial infections.
- Reactive arthritis is a **sterile arthritis** that occurs *after* an infection has resolved, so antibiotics are not indicated and will not treat the joint inflammation.
*Methotrexate*
- Methotrexate is a potent **DMARD** used for various inflammatory arthritides.
- While effective, **sulfasalazine** is generally preferred as an initial DMARD for reactive arthritis, especially in cases where peripheral arthritis predominates, before escalating to more potent agents like methotrexate.
*Diclofenac*
- Diclofenac is also an **NSAID**, falling into the same class of medication as naproxen and ketoprofen.
- As the patient's symptoms persisted despite a trial of naproxen, another NSAID is unlikely to be a more beneficial long-term solution.
Question 236: A 35-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of intermittent headaches. They have been getting progressively worse and no longer respond to ibuprofen. He also complains of weight gain and excessive sweating. Physical examination shows prominent supraorbital ridges, prognathism, macroglossia with thick lips, and disproportionately broad hands and feet. There is decreased peripheral vision bilaterally on visual field testing. An MRI of the brain shows a mass in the sella turcica. Genetic analysis of a biopsy specimen from the mass shows cells that overexpress adenylyl cyclase. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this condition?
A. Octreotide (Correct Answer)
B. Leuprolide
C. Metyrapone
D. Methimazole
E. Risperidone
Explanation: ***Octreotide***
- This patient presents with **acromegaly**, characterized by progressive headaches, weight gain, excessive sweating, and distinctive physical features such as **prominent supraorbital ridges (frontal bossing)**, **prognathism**, **macroglossia**, and **broad hands and feet**. The visual field defects (**bitemporal hemianopsia** as suggested by decreased peripheral vision) and a mass in the **sella turcica** indicate a **pituitary adenoma**.
- **Overexpression of adenylyl cyclase** is consistent with a somatotroph adenoma that secretes **growth hormone (GH)**. **Octreotide** is a **somatostatin analog** that suppresses GH secretion from these tumors, making it the most appropriate pharmacotherapy.
*Leuprolide*
- **Leuprolide** is a **GnRH agonist** primarily used in conditions like **prostate cancer**, **endometriosis**, and **precocious puberty** by downregulating GnRH receptors, leading to reduced LH and FSH.
- It is not indicated for the treatment of **acromegaly**, as it does not directly affect growth hormone secretion.
*Metyrapone*
- **Metyrapone** is an **inhibitor of 11β-hydroxylase**, an enzyme involved in cortisol synthesis. It is used in the diagnosis and treatment of conditions involving **cortisol excess**, such as **Cushing's syndrome**.
- This patient's symptoms are suggestive of **growth hormone excess**, not **cortisol excess**, making metyrapone an inappropriate treatment.
*Methimazole*
- **Methimazole** is an **antithyroid drug** that inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis and is used to treat **hyperthyroidism**, such as in **Graves' disease**.
- The clinical presentation clearly points to **acromegaly** due to a pituitary adenoma, not a thyroid disorder.
*Risperidone*
- **Risperidone** is an **atypical antipsychotic medication** used primarily to treat conditions like **schizophrenia** and **bipolar disorder**.
- It has no role in the direct management of a **growth hormone-secreting pituitary adenoma** or the symptoms of acromegaly.
Question 237: A 32-year-old man presents to the clinic for follow up for treatment of latent tuberculosis. He is a healthcare worker and began isoniazid 3 months ago after a routine PPD yielded a 12-mm induration. He feels otherwise well and attributes this to his vegetarian diet that he has been following for the past 4 years. His past medical history is unremarkable, but his family history is significant for a "liver disease," the specifics of which are unknown. Physical exam shows mildly reduced sensation to pinprick over the distal lower extremities. The abdomen is soft, nontender, and without hepatosplenomegaly. Laboratory studies demonstrate the following:
Serum:
Hemoglobin: 9.6 g/dL
Hematocrit: 34%
Leukocyte count: 9,200/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelets: 270,000/mm^3
Mean corpuscular volume: 77 µm^3
AST: 92 U/L
ALT: 84 U/L
Ferritin: 302 ng/mL (normal 15-200 ng/mL)
Total iron: 273 µg/dL (normal 50-170 µg/dL)
TIBC: 150 µg/dL (normal 250–370 µg/dL)
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Blood lead levels
B. Cobalamin supplementation
C. Stop isoniazid treatment
D. Pyridoxine supplementation (Correct Answer)
E. Serial phlebotomy
Explanation: ***Pyridoxine supplementation***
- This patient is experiencing **peripheral neuropathy** (reduced sensation to pinprick over the distal lower extremities) and **microcytic anemia**, which are common side effects of **isoniazid** due to its interference with **pyridoxine (vitamin B6) metabolism**.
- **Pyridoxine supplementation** is the appropriate next step to manage these side effects, as it can alleviate neuropathy and improve anemia without stopping crucial latent TB treatment.
*Blood lead levels*
- While **lead poisoning** can cause microcytic anemia and neuropathy, the patient's elevated **ferritin** and **total iron**, along with low **TIBC**, are not typical for lead poisoning.
- The direct association with **isoniazid treatment** makes pyridoxine deficiency a more likely cause for the observed symptoms.
*Stop isoniazid treatment*
- Although isoniazid is causing side effects, his **elevated liver enzymes (AST 92, ALT 84)** are less than 5 times the upper limit of normal, and he has no symptoms of **hepatotoxicity** (like jaundice, severe fatigue).
- Stopping treatment for latent TB without significant adverse effects would be premature, especially given the availability of effective countermeasures like pyridoxine.
*Cobalamin supplementation*
- **Cobalamin (vitamin B12) deficiency** typically causes **macrocytic anemia** and neuropathy.
- This patient has **microcytic anemia** (MCV 77 µm^3), making cobalamin deficiency an unlikely cause of his symptoms.
*Serial phlebotomy*
- **Serial phlebotomy** is used to treat **iron overload (hemochromatosis)**, and while this patient has elevated ferritin and total iron, his presentation is primarily driven by **isoniazid side effects**.
- Addressing the **pyridoxine deficiency** is the immediate priority for the neuropathy and anemia, and the iron levels may normalize once the underlying issues are managed.
Question 238: A 25-year-old college student is diagnosed with acute myelogenous leukemia after presenting with a 3-week history of fever, malaise, and fatigue. He has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus, multiple middle ear infections as a child, and infectious mononucleosis in high school. He currently smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day, drinks a glass of wine per day, and denies any illicit drug use. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 87/min, and respiratory rate 17/min. On physical examination, his pulses are bounding; his complexion is pale, but breath sounds remain clear. A rapidly progressive form of leukemia is identified, and the patient is scheduled to start intravenous chemotherapy. Which of the following treatments should be given to this patient to prevent or decrease the likelihood of developing acute renal failure during treatment?
A. Sulfinpyrazone
B. Indomethacin
C. Probenecid
D. Colchicine
E. Allopurinol (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Allopurinol***
- **Allopurinol** inhibits **xanthine oxidase**, preventing the conversion of xanthine and hypoxanthine to uric acid.
- This is crucial in **tumor lysis syndrome** (TLS), a common complication of chemotherapy for rapidly proliferating cancers like AML, where massive cell death releases intracellular contents, including **purines**, which are metabolized to uric acid and can cause **acute renal failure**.
*Sulfinpyrazone*
- **Sulfinpyrazone** is a uricosuric agent, meaning it increases the excretion of uric acid in the urine.
- It is generally contraindicated in TLS because the increased uric acid load in the renal tubules can **aggravate crystal formation** and worsen renal damage, rather than prevent it.
*Indomethacin*
- **Indomethacin** is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) primarily used for pain and inflammation management.
- While it can be used to treat the inflammation associated with **gouty arthritis**, it does not prevent the formation of uric acid during TLS and can even cause direct **renal toxicity**, which would be detrimental in a patient at risk of acute renal failure.
*Probenecid*
- **Probenecid** is another uricosuric agent, similar to sulfinpyrazone, that works by inhibiting the reabsorption of uric acid in the renal tubules.
- Like other uricosurics, it is generally **contraindicated in TLS** due to the risk of exacerbating uric acid nephropathy and acute renal failure by increasing uric acid concentrations in the kidneys.
*Colchicine*
- **Colchicine** is an anti-inflammatory drug mainly used for the treatment of **acute gout attacks** and familial Mediterranean fever.
- It does not lower serum uric acid levels and therefore offers no protection against the **hyperuricemia** and potential renal damage associated with tumor lysis syndrome.
Question 239: A 9-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents after a 2-day history of fever, productive cough, and severe dyspnea. The parents report that the boy had no health problems at birth but developed respiratory problems as an infant that have continued throughout his life, including recurrent pulmonary infections. Vital signs include: temperature of 37.5ºC (99.5ºF), pulse of 105/min, respiratory rate of 34/min, and SpO2 of 87%. Physical examination shows digital clubbing and cyanosis. Chest X-rays show hyperinflation of the lungs and chronic interstitial changes. The boy’s FEV1/FVC ratio is decreased, and his FRC is increased. The resident reviewing his case is studying new gene therapies for this boy’s condition that will reintroduce the gene for which this boy is defective. An important component of this therapy is identifying a vector for the selective introduction of the replacement gene into the human body. Which of the following would be the best vector to provide gene therapy for this boy’s respiratory symptoms?
A. Human immunodeficiency virus-1
B. Adenovirus (Correct Answer)
C. Rabies virus
D. Rhinovirus
E. Coxsackie A virus
Explanation: ***Adenovirus***
- Adenoviruses are the **most suitable vector for respiratory gene therapy** due to their high efficiency in gene delivery to respiratory epithelial cells and their ability to infect both dividing and non-dividing cells.
- The clinical presentation (recurrent pulmonary infections, dyspnea, hyperinflation, digital clubbing, and cyanosis) is characteristic of **cystic fibrosis**, which results from a defect in the *CFTR* gene—a prime target for gene therapy via respiratory delivery.
- Adenoviral vectors were extensively studied in CF gene therapy trials due to their **excellent tropism for airway epithelium**.
*Incorrect: Human immunodeficiency virus-1*
- While HIV-1-derived lentiviruses can transduce non-dividing cells and integrate into the host genome, they are **less efficient in delivering genes to respiratory epithelial cells** compared to adenoviruses.
- Concerns regarding **potential insertional mutagenesis** and immune responses make them less ideal for respiratory gene therapy.
*Incorrect: Rabies virus*
- Rabies virus has strong **neurotropism**, meaning it primarily targets the nervous system, making it unsuitable for direct delivery to lung epithelial cells.
- Its use would likely lead to **severe neurological side effects** without effectively treating the underlying lung pathology.
*Incorrect: Rhinovirus*
- Rhinoviruses typically cause **mild, self-limiting infections of the upper respiratory tract** and are not optimized for stable gene transfer to the lower respiratory tract.
- They lack the capacity for **long-term gene expression** required for conditions like cystic fibrosis.
*Incorrect: Coxsackie A virus*
- Coxsackie A viruses are associated with diseases such as **hand, foot, and mouth disease** and cause acute, transient infections.
- They are **not efficient gene delivery vectors** for the respiratory system and could cause unwanted inflammatory responses in the lungs.
Question 240: A 45-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 20 minutes after being rescued from a fire in his apartment complex. He thinks he might have briefly lost consciousness while he was trapped in a smoke-filled room before firefighters were able to free him 20 minutes later. He reports headache, dizziness, and occasional cough. He has no difficulty breathing, speaking, or swallowing. He appears mildly uncomfortable and agitated. His temperature is 36.4°C (97.5°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 155/68 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 92%. Breath sounds are coarse. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air shows :
pH 7.30
PCO2 38 mm Hg
PO2 70 mm Hg
HCO3- 18 mEq/L
COHb 2% (N < 3)
In addition to oxygen supplementation with a non-rebreather mask, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Administration of methylene blue
B. Administration of intravenous hydroxycobalamin (Correct Answer)
C. Administration of intravenous dimercaprol
D. Administration of N-acetylcysteine
E. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
Explanation: ***Administration of intravenous hydroxycobalamin***
- This patient presents with symptoms of **smoke inhalation** (headache, dizziness, agitation, exposure to fire) and **metabolic acidosis** (pH 7.30, HCO3- 18 mEq/L) despite normal carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) levels. These findings are highly suggestive of **cyanide poisoning**, which can occur during fires.
- **Hydroxocobalamin** is a safe and effective first-line antidote for cyanide poisoning; it binds directly to cyanide to form cyanocobalamin, which is then renally excreted.
*Administration of methylene blue*
- **Methylene blue** is used to treat **methemoglobinemia**, a condition where iron in hemoglobin is oxidized, reducing oxygen-carrying capacity.
- This patient's symptoms and lab findings (normal COHb, metabolic acidosis) are not consistent with methemoglobinemia.
*Administration of intravenous dimercaprol*
- **Dimercaprol** (BAL) is a chelating agent primarily used for poisoning with **heavy metals** such as arsenic, lead, or mercury.
- There is no indication of heavy metal poisoning from the patient's history or clinical presentation.
*Administration of N-acetylcysteine*
- **N-acetylcysteine (NAC)** is primarily used as an antidote for **acetaminophen overdose** and as a mucolytic.
- It is not indicated for cyanide poisoning or the symptoms presented by this patient.
*Hyperbaric oxygen therapy*
- **Hyperbaric oxygen therapy (HBO)** is the definitive treatment for severe **carbon monoxide poisoning**, as it rapidly decreases the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin.
- While carbon monoxide exposure is common in fires, this patient's COHb level is normal (2%), making HBO less appropriate than specific cyanide treatment given the strong suspicion of cyanide poisoning.