A 71-year-old man with colorectal cancer comes to the physician for follow-up examination after undergoing a sigmoid colectomy. The physician recommends adjuvant chemotherapy with an agent that results in single-stranded DNA breaks. This chemotherapeutic agent most likely has an effect on which of the following enzymes?
Q142
A 31-year-old woman presents to your office with one week of recurrent fevers. The highest temperature she recorded was 101°F (38.3°C). She recently returned from a trip to Nigeria to visit family and recalls a painful bite on her right forearm at that time. Her medical history is significant for two malarial infections as a child. She is not taking any medications. On physical examination, her temperature is 102.2°F (39°C), blood pressure is 122/80 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 18/min, and pulse oximetry is 99% on room air. She has bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy and a visible, enlarged, mobile posterior cervical node. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. She has an erythematous induration on her right forearm. The most likely cause of this patient's symptoms can be treated with which of the following medications?
Q143
A drug that inhibits mRNA synthesis has the well-documented side effect of red-orange body fluids. For which of the following is this drug used as monotherapy?
Q144
A 52-year-old man presents to his physician with a chief concern of not feeling well. The patient states that since yesterday he has experienced nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, general muscle cramps, a runny nose, and aches and pains in his muscles and joints. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, chronic pulmonary disease, lower back pain, and fibromyalgia. His current medications include varenicline, oxycodone, and an albuterol inhaler. The patient is requesting antibiotics and a refill on his current medications at this visit. He works at a local public school and presented with a similar chief complaint a week ago, at which time he had his prescriptions refilled. You have also seen several of his coworkers this past week and sent them home with conservative measures. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q145
A 21-year-old girl with a history of bipolar disorder, now in a depressive episode, presents to the emergency in distress. She reports that she wanted to "end it all" and swallowed a full bottle of acetaminophen. However, regretting what it would do to her parents, and she decided that she wants to live. She appears in no acute distress and clearly states she swallowed the pills one hour ago. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q146
A 25-year-old woman with a psychiatric history of bipolar disorder is brought into the emergency department by emergency medical services. The patient is unconscious, but the mother states that she walked into the patient's room with the patient lying on the floor and an empty bottle of unknown pills next to her. The patient has previously tried to commit suicide 2 years ago. Upon presentation, the patient's vitals are HR 110, BP 105/60, T 99.5, RR 22. The patient soon has 5 episodes non-bilious non-bloody vomiting. Upon physical exam, she has pain in the right upper quadrant and her liver function tests are AST 1050 U/L, ALT 2050 U/L, ALP 55 U/L, Total Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL, Direct Bilirubin 0.2 mg/dL. You are awaiting her toxicology screen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q147
A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Two years ago, she was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Three weeks ago, she was admitted and treated for right lower leg weakness with high-dose methylprednisone for 5 days. She has had 4 exacerbations over the past 6 months. Current medications include interferon beta and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 116/74 mm Hg. Examination shows pallor of the right optic disk. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. She is anxious about the number of exacerbations and repeated hospitalizations. She is counseled about the second-line treatment options available to her. She consents to treatment with natalizumab. However, she has read online about its adverse effects and is concerned. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
Q148
A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room lapsing in and out of consciousness. The mother reports that 30 minutes ago, the young boy was found exiting the garage severely confused. A container of freshly spilled antifreeze was found on the garage floor. The next appropriate step would be to administer:
Q149
An experimental infusable drug, X729, is currently being studied to determine its pharmacokinetics. The drug was found to have a half life of 1.5 hours and is eliminated by first order kinetics. What is the minimum number of hours required to reach a steady state concentration of >90%?
Q150
A 2-year-old boy is brought to the physician for generalized fatigue and multiple episodes of abdominal pain and vomiting for the past week. His last bowel movement was 4 days ago. He has been having behavioral problems at home for the past few weeks as well. He can walk up stairs with support and build a tower of 3 blocks. He cannot use a fork. He does not follow simple instructions and speaks in single words. His family emigrated from Bangladesh 6 months ago. He is at the 40th percentile for height and weight. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 115/min, and blood pressure is 84/45 mm Hg. Examination shows pale conjunctivae and gingival hyperpigmentation. His hemoglobin concentration is 10.1 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume is 68 μm3, and mean corpuscular hemoglobin is 24.5 pg/cell. The patient is most likely going to benefit from administration of which of the following?
Antimicrobials US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 141: A 71-year-old man with colorectal cancer comes to the physician for follow-up examination after undergoing a sigmoid colectomy. The physician recommends adjuvant chemotherapy with an agent that results in single-stranded DNA breaks. This chemotherapeutic agent most likely has an effect on which of the following enzymes?
A. DNA polymerase III
B. Topoisomerase I (Correct Answer)
C. Helicase
D. Telomerase
E. Topoisomerase II
Explanation: ***Topoisomerase I***
- **Topoisomerase I** creates **single-stranded DNA (ssDNA) breaks** to relieve torsional stress during DNA replication and transcription.
- Many chemotherapeutic agents, such as camptothecin and its derivatives (e.g., irinotecan, topotecan), target topoisomerase I, leading to DNA damage and apoptosis in cancer cells.
*DNA polymerase III*
- **DNA polymerase III** is primarily involved in bacterial DNA replication, synthesizing new DNA strands in a 5' to 3' direction.
- While essential for bacterial survival, it is not the target of chemotherapeutic agents that induce single-stranded DNA breaks in human cells.
*Helicase*
- **Helicase** is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix during replication and transcription, separating the two strands.
- While its function is critical for DNA processes, it does not directly create DNA breaks as its primary mechanism of action.
*Telomerase*
- **Telomerase** is an enzyme that maintains telomere length at the ends of chromosomes, particularly active in cancer cells.
- Inhibitors of telomerase aim to shorten telomeres, leading to cellular senescence or apoptosis, but they do not primarily cause single-stranded DNA breaks.
*Topoisomerase II*
- **Topoisomerase II** creates **double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) breaks** to untangle and decatenate DNA.
- Though also a target for chemotherapy (e.g., etoposide, doxorubicin), its mechanism involves double-stranded breaks, not single-stranded breaks as specified in the question.
Question 142: A 31-year-old woman presents to your office with one week of recurrent fevers. The highest temperature she recorded was 101°F (38.3°C). She recently returned from a trip to Nigeria to visit family and recalls a painful bite on her right forearm at that time. Her medical history is significant for two malarial infections as a child. She is not taking any medications. On physical examination, her temperature is 102.2°F (39°C), blood pressure is 122/80 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 18/min, and pulse oximetry is 99% on room air. She has bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy and a visible, enlarged, mobile posterior cervical node. Cardiopulmonary and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. She has an erythematous induration on her right forearm. The most likely cause of this patient's symptoms can be treated with which of the following medications?
A. Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
B. Atovaquone and azithromycin
C. Primaquine
D. Chloroquine
E. Fexinidazole (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fexinidazole***
- This patient's symptoms (recurrent fevers, cervical lymphadenopathy, erythematous induration after a trip to Nigeria with a painful bite) are highly suggestive of **African trypanosomiasis (sleeping sickness)**.
- **Fexinidazole** is an oral nitroimidazole derivative approved for treating both first and second-stage human African trypanosomiasis (HAT) caused by *Trypanosoma brucei gambiense*.
*Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine*
- This combination is primarily used to treat **toxoplasmosis**, an infection caused by the parasite *Toxoplasma gondii*.
- While it can cause fever and lymphadenopathy, the travel history to Nigeria and a "painful bite" are not typical for toxoplasmosis transmission.
*Atovaquone and azithromycin*
- This combination is utilized for treating **Babesiosis**, a tick-borne parasitic infection.
- While Babesiosis can cause fever and fatigue, the characteristic erythematous induration and prominent lymphadenopathy point away from this diagnosis.
*Primaquine*
- **Primaquine** is an antimalarial drug specifically used for the **radical cure of *Plasmodium vivax*** and ***Plasmodium ovale*** malaria, targeting the hypnozoite liver stages.
- Although the patient has a history of malaria and a travel history to an endemic area, the current presentation with distinct lymphadenopathy and skin lesion points away from a straightforward malarial relapse or new infection primarily requiring primaquine as the sole treatment.
*Chloroquine*
- **Chloroquine** is an antimalarial drug, but its use is limited primarily to areas where **chloroquine-sensitive *Plasmodium falciparum*** strains are prevalent.
- While the patient traveled to Nigeria, a region where malaria is endemic, the specific constellation of symptoms, including the bite and lymphadenopathy, is less characteristic of typical malaria than of trypanosomiasis.
Question 143: A drug that inhibits mRNA synthesis has the well-documented side effect of red-orange body fluids. For which of the following is this drug used as monotherapy?
A. Brucellosis
B. Tuberculosis
C. Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus infection
D. Mycobacterium avium intracellulare infection
E. Neisseria meningitidis prophylaxis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Neisseria meningitidis prophylaxis***
- The drug described is **rifampin**, which inhibits bacterial **DNA-dependent RNA polymerase**, thereby blocking **mRNA synthesis** and causes characteristic **red-orange discoloration of body fluids** (tears, urine, sweat).
- Rifampin is used as **monotherapy** for **prophylaxis** against **Neisseria meningitidis** infection in close contacts of infected patients.
- This is the **only indication** where rifampin monotherapy is appropriate, as prophylaxis requires short-term use where resistance development is not a concern.
*Tuberculosis*
- Rifampin is a **first-line agent** for tuberculosis treatment and a cornerstone of all TB regimens.
- However, it is **never used as monotherapy** for TB due to rapid development of resistance.
- Standard TB treatment requires **multidrug therapy** with rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol (RIPE) for initial phase.
*Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus infection*
- Rifampin is sometimes used in **combination** with other antibiotics (e.g., vancomycin, daptomycin) to treat **MRSA infections**, especially those involving **prosthetic devices** or **biofilms**.
- It is **not used as monotherapy** for active MRSA infections due to extremely high rates of spontaneous resistance.
*Mycobacterium avium intracellulare infection*
- **Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC)** infections require a multidrug regimen, typically including **macrolides (azithromycin or clarithromycin)**, **ethambutol**, and sometimes **rifabutin** (a rifamycin derivative preferred over rifampin).
- **Monotherapy is never appropriate** for MAC infections due to resistance concerns and treatment failure.
*Brucellosis*
- **Brucellosis** treatment requires **combination therapy**, typically **doxycycline plus rifampin** for 6 weeks or longer.
- **Rifampin monotherapy** is inadequate for eradicating Brucella infection and leads to treatment failure and resistance development.
Question 144: A 52-year-old man presents to his physician with a chief concern of not feeling well. The patient states that since yesterday he has experienced nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, general muscle cramps, a runny nose, and aches and pains in his muscles and joints. The patient has a past medical history of obesity, chronic pulmonary disease, lower back pain, and fibromyalgia. His current medications include varenicline, oxycodone, and an albuterol inhaler. The patient is requesting antibiotics and a refill on his current medications at this visit. He works at a local public school and presented with a similar chief complaint a week ago, at which time he had his prescriptions refilled. You have also seen several of his coworkers this past week and sent them home with conservative measures. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Oseltamivir
B. Azithromycin
C. Metronidazole
D. Methadone
E. Supportive therapy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Supportive therapy***
- The patient's symptoms (nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, myalgias, flu-like symptoms) are highly suggestive of a **viral illness**, given the recent similar presentations in his coworkers where conservative measures were sufficient.
- Antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections, and the patient has no signs or symptoms indicating a bacterial infection, making **supportive care** (hydration, rest, symptomatic relief) the most appropriate management.
*Oseltamivir*
- This antiviral medication is primarily used for the treatment of **influenza**, typically within 48 hours of symptom onset.
- While the patient's symptoms are flu-like, the timing (symptoms began yesterday, and he presented a week ago with similar complaints) and the general viral presentation among coworkers make targeted antiviral therapy less indicated without a confirmed influenza diagnosis.
*Azithromycin*
- **Azithromycin is an antibiotic** used to treat bacterial infections, particularly respiratory tract infections, skin infections, and some sexually transmitted infections.
- There is no indication of a bacterial infection in this patient; therefore, administering an antibiotic would be inappropriate and contribute to **antibiotic resistance**.
*Metronidazole*
- **Metronidazole is an antibiotic** primarily used for anaerobic bacterial infections and parasitic infections (e.g., *Clostridium difficile*, *Giardia*).
- The patient's symptoms do not suggest these specific types of infections, making its use unwarranted.
*Methadone*
- **Methadone is an opioid analgesic** and is also used in medication-assisted treatment for opioid use disorder.
- Prescribing methadone for the patient's current symptoms or for **opioid pain management** without further assessment, considering his current oxycodone prescription and potential for drug-seeking behavior given his request for refills, is inappropriate and potentially harmful.
Question 145: A 21-year-old girl with a history of bipolar disorder, now in a depressive episode, presents to the emergency in distress. She reports that she wanted to "end it all" and swallowed a full bottle of acetaminophen. However, regretting what it would do to her parents, and she decided that she wants to live. She appears in no acute distress and clearly states she swallowed the pills one hour ago. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Give activated charcoal and test the urine for an acetaminophen level
B. Draw a serum acetaminophen level now
C. Give activated charcoal and draw a serum acetaminophen level now
D. Give activated charcoal and draw a serum acetaminophen in two hours
E. Give activated charcoal and draw a serum acetaminophen level in three hours (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Give activated charcoal and draw a serum acetaminophen level in three hours***
- **Activated charcoal** is crucial within 1-2 hours of ingestion to prevent absorption of the drug from the gastrointestinal tract. Since the patient presented 1 hour post-ingestion, this is still within the therapeutic window.
- Drawing the serum acetaminophen level **in three hours from presentation** (i.e., 4 hours post-ingestion) allows for accurate plotting against the **Rumack-Matthew nomogram**, which requires levels drawn at least 4 hours after ingestion to reflect peak concentrations and guide antidote (N-acetylcysteine) administration.
*Give activated charcoal and test the urine for an acetaminophen level*
- While activated charcoal is indicated, a **urine test for acetaminophen level is not standard practice** for overdose management.
- Acetaminophen levels are measured in **serum**, not urine, to determine toxicity and guide treatment.
*Draw a serum acetaminophen level now*
- Drawing a serum acetaminophen level *now* (one hour post-ingestion) is **too early** as the drug has not reached peak concentration.
- An early level will be misleadingly low and cannot be reliably interpreted using the Rumack-Matthew nomogram, potentially leading to undertreatment of a serious overdose.
*Give activated charcoal and draw a serum acetaminophen level now*
- Giving activated charcoal is appropriate, but drawing a **serum level now (one hour post-ingestion) is too early** for accurate assessment of toxicity.
- The level would not reflect the true peak concentration and could lead to inappropriate management decisions.
*Give activated charcoal and draw a serum acetaminophen in two hours*
- Giving activated charcoal is appropriate, but drawing the serum level **in two hours (3 hours post-ingestion) is still too early** for reliable interpretation using the Rumack-Matthew nomogram.
- The standard is to draw levels **at or after 4 hours post-ingestion** to ensure adequate absorption and distribution.
Question 146: A 25-year-old woman with a psychiatric history of bipolar disorder is brought into the emergency department by emergency medical services. The patient is unconscious, but the mother states that she walked into the patient's room with the patient lying on the floor and an empty bottle of unknown pills next to her. The patient has previously tried to commit suicide 2 years ago. Upon presentation, the patient's vitals are HR 110, BP 105/60, T 99.5, RR 22. The patient soon has 5 episodes non-bilious non-bloody vomiting. Upon physical exam, she has pain in the right upper quadrant and her liver function tests are AST 1050 U/L, ALT 2050 U/L, ALP 55 U/L, Total Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL, Direct Bilirubin 0.2 mg/dL. You are awaiting her toxicology screen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Beta-blocker ingestion
B. Tricyclic antidepressant ingestion
C. Opiate ingestion
D. Acetaminophen ingestion (Correct Answer)
E. Salicylate ingestion
Explanation: ***Acetaminophen ingestion***
- The combination of a history of a **suicide attempt**, an **unknown pill overdose**, and profoundly elevated **AST and ALT** levels (in the thousands) points strongly to **acetaminophen toxicity**, which causes severe hepatotoxicity.
- Initial symptoms like **nausea and vomiting** followed by signs of **liver damage** (RUQ pain, high liver enzymes) are classic for acetaminophen overdose.
*Beta-blocker ingestion*
- Manifests primarily with **cardiovascular effects** such as **bradycardia, hypotension, and AV block**, which are not consistently seen here (HR 110).
- While it can cause some gastrointestinal upset, it does **not typically lead to such severe transaminitis**.
*Tricyclic antidepressant ingestion*
- Characterized by **anticholinergic effects** (e.g., dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention), **cardiac arrhythmias** (wide QRS), and **CNS depression/seizures**.
- It does **not cause the massive elevation in liver enzymes** noted in this patient.
*Opiate ingestion*
- Presents with a classic triad of **CNS depression, respiratory depression**, and **miosis (pinpoint pupils)**.
- Liver enzyme derangements are **not a primary feature** of opiate overdose.
*Salicylate ingestion*
- Causes a complex acid-base disturbance, typically a **respiratory alkalosis** followed by a **metabolic acidosis**, and symptoms like **tinnitus** and **hyperthermia**.
- While it can cause elevated liver enzymes, they are usually **not as dramatically high** as observed in this case.
Question 147: A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Two years ago, she was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. Three weeks ago, she was admitted and treated for right lower leg weakness with high-dose methylprednisone for 5 days. She has had 4 exacerbations over the past 6 months. Current medications include interferon beta and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 116/74 mm Hg. Examination shows pallor of the right optic disk. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. She is anxious about the number of exacerbations and repeated hospitalizations. She is counseled about the second-line treatment options available to her. She consents to treatment with natalizumab. However, she has read online about its adverse effects and is concerned. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone
C. Parkinsonism
D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (Correct Answer)
E. Aplastic anemia
Explanation: ***Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy***
- **Natalizumab** is a monoclonal antibody that blocks the binding of leukocytes to endothelial cells, preventing their entry into the central nervous system. This immunosuppressive effect increases the risk of **progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)**, especially in patients who are positive for the **JC virus**.
- PML is a serious and often fatal opportunistic infection of the brain caused by the **JC virus**, which demyelinates axons and leads to severe neurological deficits.
*Tuberculosis*
- While some immunosuppressants can reactivate **latent tuberculosis**, natalizumab is not typically associated with an increased risk of TB compared to other immunomodulatory drugs like TNF-alpha inhibitors.
- The mechanism of action of natalizumab (alpha-4 integrin blocker) does not directly impede the immune response responsible for containing mycobacterial infections to the same extent as other treatments.
*Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone*
- **SIADH** is not a known adverse effect of natalizumab.
- SIADH is characterized by excessive secretion of **antidiuretic hormone**, leading to hyponatremia, and is often associated with certain medications (e.g., SSRIs, carbamazepine) or underlying conditions like malignancy or pulmonary disease.
*Parkinsonism*
- Parkinsonism involves symptoms like **bradykinesia**, rigidity, and tremor, and is a neurodegenerative disorder.
- There is **no evidence** suggesting a causal link between natalizumab treatment and the development of Parkinsonism.
*Aplastic anemia*
- **Aplastic anemia** is a rare but severe condition where the bone marrow fails to produce blood cells.
- This adverse effect is not associated with natalizumab; it is more commonly linked to certain **chemotherapeutic agents**, radiation, or specific antimicrobial drugs like chloramphenicol.
Question 148: A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room lapsing in and out of consciousness. The mother reports that 30 minutes ago, the young boy was found exiting the garage severely confused. A container of freshly spilled antifreeze was found on the garage floor. The next appropriate step would be to administer:
A. Fomepizole (Correct Answer)
B. Ammonium chloride
C. Flumazenil
D. Dimercaprol
E. N-acetylcysteine
Explanation: ***Fomepizole***
- The presentation of a child found near spilled **antifreeze** (ethylene glycol) who is lapsing in and out of consciousness strongly suggests **ethylene glycol poisoning**.
- **Fomepizole** acts as a competitive inhibitor of **alcohol dehydrogenase**, preventing the metabolism of ethylene glycol into toxic metabolites like **glycolic acid** and **oxalic acid**, which cause metabolic acidosis and organ damage.
*Ammonium chloride*
- **Ammonium chloride** is an **acidifying agent** that is used in certain metabolic alkalosis cases or for urinary acidification to enhance excretion of basic drugs.
- It is not indicated for **ethylene glycol poisoning** and could worsen the existing metabolic acidosis that typically develops in such cases.
*Flumazenil*
- **Flumazenil** is a **benzodiazepine receptor antagonist** used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose.
- The patient's symptoms are not consistent with **benzodiazepine overdose**, and flumazenil would have no therapeutic effect in **ethylene glycol poisoning**.
*Dimercaprol*
- **Dimercaprol** (BAL) is a **chelating agent** primarily used to treat poisoning by heavy metals such as arsenic, mercury, and lead.
- It has no role in the treatment of **ethylene glycol poisoning**, which involves metabolic disruption rather than heavy metal toxicity.
*N-acetylcysteine*
- **N-acetylcysteine** (NAC) is an antidote primarily used for **acetaminophen overdose**, where it replenishes glutathione stores to detoxify toxic acetaminophen metabolites.
- It is not effective in treating **ethylene glycol poisoning**, as the mechanism of toxicity and the antidote's action are entirely different.
Question 149: An experimental infusable drug, X729, is currently being studied to determine its pharmacokinetics. The drug was found to have a half life of 1.5 hours and is eliminated by first order kinetics. What is the minimum number of hours required to reach a steady state concentration of >90%?
A. 6 (Correct Answer)
B. 3
C. 7.5
D. 1.5
E. 4.5
Explanation: ***6***
- For a drug eliminated by **first-order kinetics**, approximately **4 to 5 half-lives** are required to reach **steady-state concentration**.
- To reach >90% of steady-state, at least **4 half-lives** are needed, where **93.75%** of the steady state is achieved.
- The time taken would be **4 half-lives × 1.5 hours/half-life = 6 hours**, making this the **minimum time** to exceed 90%.
*3*
- This represents only **2 half-lives** (2 × 1.5 hours = 3 hours), which would achieve roughly **75%** of the steady-state concentration.
- This is insufficient to reach >90% of the steady-state concentration.
*7.5*
- This time point represents **5 half-lives** (5 × 1.5 hours = 7.5 hours), which would achieve approximately **97%** of the steady-state concentration.
- While this does exceed 90%, the question asks for the **minimum** number of hours required, and 90% is already exceeded at 6 hours (4 half-lives).
*1.5*
- This is only **1 half-life**, which would achieve approximately **50%** of the steady-state concentration.
- This is far too early to reach a >90% steady-state concentration.
*4.5*
- This represents **3 half-lives** (3 × 1.5 hours = 4.5 hours), achieving approximately **87.5%** of the steady-state concentration.
- While close to 90%, it does not quite reach "greater than 90%".
Question 150: A 2-year-old boy is brought to the physician for generalized fatigue and multiple episodes of abdominal pain and vomiting for the past week. His last bowel movement was 4 days ago. He has been having behavioral problems at home for the past few weeks as well. He can walk up stairs with support and build a tower of 3 blocks. He cannot use a fork. He does not follow simple instructions and speaks in single words. His family emigrated from Bangladesh 6 months ago. He is at the 40th percentile for height and weight. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 115/min, and blood pressure is 84/45 mm Hg. Examination shows pale conjunctivae and gingival hyperpigmentation. His hemoglobin concentration is 10.1 g/dL, mean corpuscular volume is 68 μm3, and mean corpuscular hemoglobin is 24.5 pg/cell. The patient is most likely going to benefit from administration of which of the following?
A. Vitamin B12 and folate
B. Penicillamine
C. Iron
D. Thiosulfate and hydroxocobalamin
E. Succimer and calcium disodium edetate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Succimer and calcium disodium edetate***
- This patient presents with symptoms such as **abdominal pain**, **vomiting**, **constipation**, **generalized fatigue**, and **behavioral problems**, along with **gingival hyperpigmentation** and **microcytic anemia** (Hb 10.1 g/dL, MCV 68 μm3, MCH 24.5 pg/cell). These are classic signs of **lead poisoning**.
- **Succimer (DMSA)** and **calcium disodium edetate (CaNa2EDTA)** are chelation therapies used to treat lead poisoning by binding to lead and promoting its excretion. They are indicated for elevated blood lead levels, especially in symptomatic children.
*Vitamin B12 and folate*
- These are given for **megaloblastic anemia**, characterized by **macrocytic red blood cells** (high MCV), which is not seen here as the MCV is low (68 μm3).
- Symptoms of B12 deficiency (e.g., neurological deficits, glossitis) and folate deficiency (e.g., fatigue, megaloblastic changes) are distinct from the patient's presentation.
*Penicillamine*
- **Penicillamine** is a chelating agent primarily used for **Wilson's disease** (copper overload) or **cystinuria**.
- While it has some chelating properties for heavy metals, it is not the first-line or most effective treatment for lead poisoning and has a different side-effect profile.
*Iron*
- **Iron supplementation** is used to treat **iron deficiency anemia**, a common cause of microcytic anemia. However, the patient's constellation of symptoms, including neurological and gastrointestinal issues, and gingival hyperpigmentation, strongly points away from simple iron deficiency as the primary diagnosis.
- Giving iron in the presence of lead poisoning without addressing lead can mask the underlying issue and not resolve the more systemic effects.
*Thiosulfate and hydroxocobalamin*
- **Sodium thiosulfate** and **hydroxocobalamin** are antidotes used for **cyanide poisoning**.
- The patient's symptoms are inconsistent with cyanide exposure, which typically involves rapid onset of severe metabolic acidosis, cardiovascular collapse, and respiratory arrest.