A 31-year-old male traveler in Thailand experiences fever, headache, and excessive sweating every 48 hours. Peripheral blood smear shows trophozoites and schizonts indicative of Plasmodia infection. The patient is given chloroquine and primaquine. Primaquine targets which of the following Plasmodia forms:
Q112
A 71-year-old man with colon cancer presents to his oncologist because he has been experiencing photosensitivity with his current chemotherapeutic regimen. During the conversation, they decide that his symptoms are most likely a side effect of the 5-fluorouracil he is currently taking and decide to replace it with another agent. The patient is curious why some organs appear to be especially resistant to chemotherapy whereas others are particularly susceptible to chemotherapy. Which of the following cell types would be most resistant to chemotherapeutic agents?
Q113
A 20-year-old man presents with a tremor involving his upper limbs for the past 3 weeks. He says his symptoms have been progressively worsening. Past medical history is significant for 2 episodes of undiagnosed jaundice over the last year. No significant family history. His temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), the pulse is 82/min, the blood pressure is 116/78 mm Hg, and the respiratory rate is 12/min. On physical examination, there is excessive salivation, and he has an expressionless face. He has an ataxic gait accompanied by asymmetric resting and kinetic tremors. Hepatomegaly is evident. There is a greenish-gold limbal ring in both corneas. After laboratory findings confirm the diagnosis, the patient is prescribed a medication that he is warned may worsen his tremors. The patient is also instructed to return in a week for a complete blood count and urinalysis. Which of the following additional adverse effects may be expected in this patient while taking this medication?
Q114
A 55-year-old man, who was recently diagnosed with tuberculosis, presents to his primary care provider as part of his routine follow-up visit every month. He is currently in the initial phase of anti-tubercular therapy. His personal and medical histories are relevant for multiple trips to Southeast Asia as part of volunteer activities and diabetes of 5 years duration, respectively. A physical examination is unremarkable except for a visual abnormality on a color chart; he is unable to differentiate red from green. The physician suspects the visual irregularity as a sign of toxicity due to one of the drugs in the treatment regimen. Which of the following is the mechanism by which this medication acts in the treatment of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
Q115
A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with fever, dyspnea, and impaired consciousness. His wife reports that he has also had an episode of dark urine today. Two weeks ago, he returned from a trip to the Republic of Congo. His temperature is 39.4°C (103°F), pulse is 114/min, and blood pressure is 82/51 mm Hg. Physical examination shows scleral icterus. Decreased breath sounds and expiratory crackles are heard on auscultation of the lungs bilaterally. His hemoglobin concentration is 6.3 g/dL. A blood smear shows red blood cells with normal morphology and ring-shaped inclusions. Further laboratory testing shows normal rates of NADPH production. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
Q116
A 55-year-old male with a 60 pack-year smoking history presents to his oncologist for ongoing management of his recently diagnosed small cell lung cancer. His oncologist discusses several options and decides to start the chemotherapeutic medication, etoposide. The patient is warned that one side effect of this drug is myelosuppression so he should be vigilant for development of any infectious symptoms. The beneficial effect of this drug in treating cancer is most likely due to which of the following effects?
Q117
A 23-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after stepping on a piece of broken glass. Physical examination shows a 3-cm, ragged laceration on the plantar aspect of the left foot. The physician uses hydrogen peroxide to clean the wound. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of action of this disinfectant?
Q118
A 19-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and diarrhea for the last week. She has missed 3 days of school and is extremely stressed about the effect of this absence on her academic performance. She has had a couple of similar though less intense episodes in the past. She says that the diarrhea alternates with constipation and is associated with bloating and flatus. She describes the abdominal pain as spasmodic and episodic, sometimes radiating to the legs, with each episode lasting for 10–15 minutes and relieved by defecation. The patient denies any change in the color of her feces, increased frequency of urination or burning during micturition, loss of appetite or weight loss. No significant past medical history. No significant family history. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory investigations are normal. Which of the following would the best choice to manage the diarrheal symptoms in this patient?
Q119
A 27-year-old male presents to urgent care complaining of pain with urination. He reports that the pain started 3 days ago. He has never experienced these symptoms before. He denies gross hematuria or pelvic pain. He is sexually active with his girlfriend, and they consistently use condoms. When asked about recent travel, he admits to recently returning from a “boys' trip" in Cancun where he had unprotected sex 1 night with a girl he met at a bar. The patient’s medical history includes type I diabetes that is controlled with an insulin pump. His mother has rheumatoid arthritis. The patient’s temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 112/74 mmHg, and pulse is 81/min. On physical examination, there are no lesions of the penis or other body rashes. No costovertebral tenderness is appreciated. A urinalysis reveals no blood, glucose, ketones, or proteins but is positive for leukocyte esterase. A urine microscopic evaluation shows a moderate number of white blood cells but no casts or crystals. A urine culture is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the patient’s symptoms?
Q120
A 23-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a diffuse, itchy rash and swollen face for 6 hours. That morning, she was diagnosed with an abscess of the lower leg. She underwent treatment with incision and drainage as well as oral antibiotics. She has no history of serious illness. She is not in acute distress. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 78/min, and blood pressure is 128/84 mm Hg. Physical examination shows mild swelling of the eyelids and lips. There are multiple erythematous patches and wheals over her upper extremities, back, and abdomen. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows no abnormalities. After discontinuing all recently administered drugs and beginning continuous vital sign monitoring, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Antimicrobials US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 111: A 31-year-old male traveler in Thailand experiences fever, headache, and excessive sweating every 48 hours. Peripheral blood smear shows trophozoites and schizonts indicative of Plasmodia infection. The patient is given chloroquine and primaquine. Primaquine targets which of the following Plasmodia forms:
A. Schizont
B. Hypnozoite (Correct Answer)
C. Trophozoite
D. Merozoite
E. Sporozoite
Explanation: ***Hypnozoite***
- **Primaquine** is a **radical cure** for malaria caused by *Plasmodium vivax* and *Plasmodium ovale* because it targets the dormant **hypnozoite** forms in the liver.
- The presence of **hypnozoites** leads to relapses, as they can reactivate and re-initiate the erythrocytic cycle.
*Schizont*
- **Schizonts** are merozoite-producing forms in red blood cells (**erythrocytic schizonts**) or liver cells (**hepatic schizonts**).
- While chloroquine targets **erythrocytic schizonts**, primaquine's primary unique action is against the dormant liver stages.
*Trophozoite*
- **Trophozoites** are the feeding and growing stages of the parasite within red blood cells, which mature into schizonts.
- **Chloroquine** is highly effective against **erythrocytic trophozoites** and schizonts, resolving acute malarial symptoms.
*Merozoite*
- **Merozoites** are released from ruptured schizonts and infect new red blood cells during the erythrocytic cycle.
- No specific antimalarial drug solely targets **merozoites** as a primary form; they are an infective stage for red blood cells.
*Sporozoite*
- **Sporozoites** are the forms injected by infected mosquitoes, which then travel to the liver and infect hepatocytes.
- While some drugs like atovaquone have activity against sporozoites, primaquine is specifically indicated for destroying the **hypnozoite** stage, preventing relapses.
Question 112: A 71-year-old man with colon cancer presents to his oncologist because he has been experiencing photosensitivity with his current chemotherapeutic regimen. During the conversation, they decide that his symptoms are most likely a side effect of the 5-fluorouracil he is currently taking and decide to replace it with another agent. The patient is curious why some organs appear to be especially resistant to chemotherapy whereas others are particularly susceptible to chemotherapy. Which of the following cell types would be most resistant to chemotherapeutic agents?
A. Cardiac myocytes (Correct Answer)
B. Hematopoietic cells
C. Liver hepatocytes
D. Enterocytes
E. Hair follicle cells
Explanation: ***Cardiac myocytes***
- **Cardiac myocytes** are highly differentiated, **terminally differentiated cells** that rarely divide, making them inherently resistant to chemotherapeutic agents which primarily target rapidly dividing cells.
- Their **low mitotic activity** means they are less susceptible to agents that interfere with DNA replication, cell division, or other cell cycle-dependent processes.
*Hematopoietic cells*
- **Hematopoietic cells** in the bone marrow are among the most **rapidly dividing cells** in the body, making them extremely susceptible to chemotherapy.
- Damage to these cells leads to **myelosuppression**, a common and serious side effect of chemotherapy.
*Liver hepatocytes*
- **Hepatocytes** have a **moderate proliferative capacity**, allowing for regeneration, but they are still more susceptible to chemotherapy than terminally differentiated cells.
- While they can regenerate, they are particularly vulnerable to hepatotoxic chemotherapy agents due to their role in **drug metabolism** and detoxification.
*Enterocytes*
- **Enterocytes** of the small intestine lining have a **very high turnover rate**, making them highly sensitive to chemotherapeutic agents.
- This sensitivity explains common side effects like **mucositis**, diarrhea, and nausea due to damage to the intestinal lining.
*Hair follicle cells*
- **Hair follicle cells** are also characterized by their rapid division and high metabolic activity, which makes them very vulnerable to chemotherapy.
- Damage to these cells leads to **alopecia** (hair loss), a well-known side effect of many chemotherapeutic regimens.
Question 113: A 20-year-old man presents with a tremor involving his upper limbs for the past 3 weeks. He says his symptoms have been progressively worsening. Past medical history is significant for 2 episodes of undiagnosed jaundice over the last year. No significant family history. His temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), the pulse is 82/min, the blood pressure is 116/78 mm Hg, and the respiratory rate is 12/min. On physical examination, there is excessive salivation, and he has an expressionless face. He has an ataxic gait accompanied by asymmetric resting and kinetic tremors. Hepatomegaly is evident. There is a greenish-gold limbal ring in both corneas. After laboratory findings confirm the diagnosis, the patient is prescribed a medication that he is warned may worsen his tremors. The patient is also instructed to return in a week for a complete blood count and urinalysis. Which of the following additional adverse effects may be expected in this patient while taking this medication?
A. Weight gain
B. Pulmonary fibrosis
C. Myasthenia gravis (Correct Answer)
D. Constipation
E. Sensorineural deafness
Explanation: ***Myasthenia gravis***
- This patient's symptoms (tremor, excessive salivation, expressionless face, ataxic gait, hepatomegaly, greenish-gold limbal rings) are highly suggestive of **Wilson's disease**, a disorder of copper metabolism. The described medication is likely **D-penicillamine**, a copper-chelating agent used to treat Wilson's Disease.
- **D-penicillamine** is associated with various adverse effects, including autoimmune conditions such as drug-induced **myasthenia gravis**, characterized by muscle weakness.
*Weight gain*
- **Weight gain** is not a typical adverse effect of D-penicillamine.
- While D-penicillamine can cause gastrointestinal issues, it is not commonly linked to significant changes in weight.
*Pulmonary fibrosis*
- **Pulmonary fibrosis** is a rare but serious adverse effect associated with D-penicillamine, but it is less common than autoimmune reactions.
- Other medications, such as amiodarone or methotrexate, are more commonly associated with drug-induced pulmonary fibrosis.
*Constipation*
- **Constipation** is not a commonly reported adverse effect of D-penicillamine.
- Gastrointestinal side effects like nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea are more typical.
*Sensorineural deafness*
- **Sensorineural deafness** is not a known adverse effect of D-penicillamine.
- Ototoxicity leading to hearing loss is more commonly associated with medications like aminoglycoside antibiotics or platinum-based chemotherapeutics.
Question 114: A 55-year-old man, who was recently diagnosed with tuberculosis, presents to his primary care provider as part of his routine follow-up visit every month. He is currently in the initial phase of anti-tubercular therapy. His personal and medical histories are relevant for multiple trips to Southeast Asia as part of volunteer activities and diabetes of 5 years duration, respectively. A physical examination is unremarkable except for a visual abnormality on a color chart; he is unable to differentiate red from green. The physician suspects the visual irregularity as a sign of toxicity due to one of the drugs in the treatment regimen. Which of the following is the mechanism by which this medication acts in the treatment of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A. Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
B. Inhibition of arabinosyltransferase (Correct Answer)
C. Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit
D. Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis
E. Induction of free radical metabolites
Explanation: ***Inhibition of arabinosyltransferase***
- The patient's inability to differentiate red from green is a classic symptom of **optic neuritis** (specifically retrobulbar neuritis), a known side effect of **ethambutol**.
- **Ethambutol** works by inhibiting **arabinosyltransferase**, an enzyme essential for the synthesis of the mycobacterial cell wall component **arabinogalactan**.
*Inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase*
- This is the mechanism of action for **rifampin**, another first-line anti-TB drug.
- While rifampin has various side effects (e.g., **hepatotoxicity**, **red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids**), **optic neuritis** is not its primary or common adverse effect.
*Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **aminoglycosides** (e.g., streptomycin, amikacin) and **tetracyclines**, which are used in certain TB regimens, especially for **drug-resistant cases**.
- Common side effects include **ototoxicity** and **nephrotoxicity**, not optic neuritis.
*Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis*
- This describes the mechanism of action of **isoniazid**, a cornerstone anti-TB drug.
- Isoniazid's main side effects are **hepatotoxicity** and **peripheral neuropathy**, which is often prevented by **pyridoxine (vitamin B6) supplementation**.
*Induction of free radical metabolites*
- This is the mechanism by which **pyrazinamide** is thought to act, although its precise mechanism is not fully understood.
- Pyrazinamide is primarily associated with **hepatotoxicity** and **hyperuricemia** leading to **gout**, not optic neuritis.
Question 115: A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with fever, dyspnea, and impaired consciousness. His wife reports that he has also had an episode of dark urine today. Two weeks ago, he returned from a trip to the Republic of Congo. His temperature is 39.4°C (103°F), pulse is 114/min, and blood pressure is 82/51 mm Hg. Physical examination shows scleral icterus. Decreased breath sounds and expiratory crackles are heard on auscultation of the lungs bilaterally. His hemoglobin concentration is 6.3 g/dL. A blood smear shows red blood cells with normal morphology and ring-shaped inclusions. Further laboratory testing shows normal rates of NADPH production. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A. Proguanil
B. Dapsone
C. Chloroquine
D. Artesunate (Correct Answer)
E. Atovaquone
Explanation: ***Artesunate***
- This patient presents with **severe malaria**, indicated by fever, impaired consciousness, hypotension, dyspnea, dark urine (hemoglobinuria), scleral icterus (hemolysis), and anemia, following travel to an endemic area (Republic of Congo). The blood smear finding of **ring-shaped inclusions** with normal red cell morphology is characteristic of **Plasmodium falciparum** infection.
- **Artesunate** is the drug of choice for **severe malaria** due to its rapid parasitic clearance and superior efficacy compared to other antimalarials, especially in regions with high chloroquine resistance, as is typical in the Republic of Congo for *P. falciparum*.
*Proguanil*
- Proguanil is primarily used in **malaria prophylaxis** or in combination with other drugs (e.g., atovaquone-proguanil) for uncomplicated malaria.
- It is not indicated as monotherapy for **severe *P. falciparum* malaria**, nor is it suitable for emergency treatment of life-threatening infections.
*Dapsone*
- Dapsone is an **antibiotic** primarily used in the treatment of **leprosy** and prevention of *Pneumocystis jirovecii* pneumonia or toxoplasmosis in immunocompromised patients.
- It has **no significant role** in the treatment of malaria, especially severe *P. falciparum* infection.
*Chloroquine*
- Chloroquine was historically a first-line treatment for malaria but is largely ineffective against **chloroquine-resistant *P. falciparum***, which is widely prevalent in the Republic of Congo and contributes to severe disease.
- Administering chloroquine in this context would likely lead to **treatment failure** and worsening of the patient's severe condition.
*Atovaquone*
- Atovaquone, usually combined with proguanil (Malarone), is effective for **uncomplicated malaria** and prophylaxis.
- However, it is **not the preferred agent for severe malaria** due to slower action and lack of intravenous formulation for initial critical management.
Question 116: A 55-year-old male with a 60 pack-year smoking history presents to his oncologist for ongoing management of his recently diagnosed small cell lung cancer. His oncologist discusses several options and decides to start the chemotherapeutic medication, etoposide. The patient is warned that one side effect of this drug is myelosuppression so he should be vigilant for development of any infectious symptoms. The beneficial effect of this drug in treating cancer is most likely due to which of the following effects?
A. DNA intercalation
B. Crosslinking of DNA
C. Stabilization of microtubules
D. Alkylation of DNA
E. Inhibition of supercoil relaxation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Inhibition of supercoil relaxation***
- **Etoposide** is a **topoisomerase II inhibitor**, preventing DNA uncoiling and replication, thus causing DNA strand breaks and **apoptosis** in rapidly dividing cancer cells.
- This mechanism specifically targets the enzyme responsible for managing the topological state of DNA, a crucial process during cell division.
*DNA intercalation*
- **DNA intercalation** involves drugs inserting themselves between the base pairs of DNA, distorting its structure and inhibiting replication and transcription (e.g., **doxorubicin**).
- This is not the primary mechanism of action for **etoposide**, which directly interferes with topoisomerase II enzymes.
*Crosslinking of DNA*
- **Crosslinking of DNA** involves forming covalent bonds within or between DNA strands, preventing DNA replication and transcription (e.g., **cisplatin**, **cyclophosphamide**).
- While effective in chemotherapy, this mechanism is characteristic of **alkylating agents** and is distinct from how etoposide operates.
*Stabilization of microtubules*
- **Stabilization of microtubules** (e.g., **paclitaxel**, **docetaxel**) or destabilization (e.g., **vincristine**, **vinblastine**) are mechanisms of **microtubule-targeting agents** that disrupt cell division.
- **Etoposide** does not primarily affect microtubules but rather targets **DNA topoisomerases**.
*Alkylation of DNA*
- **Alkylation of DNA** involves the addition of an alkyl group to DNA bases, leading to DNA damage, miscoding, and ultimately cell death.
- This mechanism is typical of **alkylating agents** like **cyclophosphamide** and **busulfan**, but it is not the primary mode of action for **etoposide**.
Question 117: A 23-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after stepping on a piece of broken glass. Physical examination shows a 3-cm, ragged laceration on the plantar aspect of the left foot. The physician uses hydrogen peroxide to clean the wound. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of action of this disinfectant?
A. Formation of free radicals (Correct Answer)
B. Intercalation of DNA
C. Crosslinking of proteins
D. Halogenation of nucleic acids
E. Congealing of cytoplasm
Explanation: ***Formation of free radicals***
- **Hydrogen peroxide** acts as an **oxidizing agent**, generating highly reactive **oxygen-free radicals** (e.g., superoxide, hydroxyl radicals) that damage microbial cellular components.
- This **oxidative damage** disrupts proteins, lipids, and nucleic acids, leading to bacterial and viral cell death.
*Intercalation of DNA*
- This mechanism is characteristic of certain **chemotherapeutic agents** (e.g., doxorubicin, ethidium bromide) and some **antimicrobials**, which insert themselves between DNA base pairs, disrupting replication and transcription.
- Hydrogen peroxide does not typically target DNA in this manner for its disinfectant action.
*Crosslinking of proteins*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **aldehydes** like **formaldehyde** and **glutaraldehyde**, which form covalent bonds between amino groups of proteins, denaturing them and disrupting cellular function.
- While hydrogen peroxide can modify proteins, its primary disinfectant action is not through widespread protein crosslinking.
*Halogenation of nucleic acids*
- This mechanism is primarily associated with **halogens** such as **chlorine** and **iodine**, which react with nucleic acids to form halogenated compounds, thereby inactivating them.
- Hydrogen peroxide, while an oxidizer, does not lead to halogenation as its primary mode of action.
*Congealing of cytoplasm*
- This mechanism, which refers to the coagulation or solidification of cellular contents, is typical of **alcohols** (e.g., ethanol, isopropanol) and some **heavy metal salts** that denature proteins and lipids, leading to cell lysis.
- Hydrogen peroxide's action is more specific to oxidative damage rather than general cytoplasmic congealing.
Question 118: A 19-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain and diarrhea for the last week. She has missed 3 days of school and is extremely stressed about the effect of this absence on her academic performance. She has had a couple of similar though less intense episodes in the past. She says that the diarrhea alternates with constipation and is associated with bloating and flatus. She describes the abdominal pain as spasmodic and episodic, sometimes radiating to the legs, with each episode lasting for 10–15 minutes and relieved by defecation. The patient denies any change in the color of her feces, increased frequency of urination or burning during micturition, loss of appetite or weight loss. No significant past medical history. No significant family history. Physical examination is unremarkable. Laboratory investigations are normal. Which of the following would the best choice to manage the diarrheal symptoms in this patient?
A. Dicyclomine
B. Sulfasalazine
C. Loperamide (Correct Answer)
D. Norfloxacin + metronidazole
E. Metronidazole
Explanation: ***Loperamide***
- This patient presents with symptoms consistent with **Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)**, characterized by chronic abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits (diarrhea alternating with constipation), exacerbated by stress.
- **Loperamide** is an **opioid receptor agonist** that decreases gut motility and fluid secretion, effectively treating the **diarrheal component** of IBS without causing central nervous system effects.
*Dicyclomine*
- **Dicyclomine** is an **anticholinergic/antispasmodic** agent used to reduce **abdominal pain and cramping** in IBS by relaxing smooth muscle in the gut.
- While it can help with the spasmodic pain described, it is not the best choice for managing the *diarrheal symptoms* specifically, which is what the question asks for.
*Sulfasalazine*
- **Sulfasalazine** is an **anti-inflammatory drug** primarily used in the treatment of **inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)** like ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease, as well as rheumatoid arthritis.
- The patient's presentation with normal laboratory investigations and absence of red flag symptoms (e.g., weight loss, nocturnal symptoms, blood in stool) makes IBD unlikely.
*Norfloxacin + metronidazole*
- This combination is an antibiotic regimen typically used for treating **bacterial gastroenteritis** or specific parasitic infections.
- The patient's symptoms are chronic and recurrent, not acute infectious, and laboratory investigations are normal, making bacterial infection an unlikely cause.
*Metronidazole*
- **Metronidazole** is an antibiotic effective against certain **anaerobic bacteria and parasites** (e.g., *Giardia*, *Clostridium difficile*).
- Given the chronic nature of the symptoms, normal labs, and absence of specific infectious indicators, metronidazole is not indicated as a primary treatment.
Question 119: A 27-year-old male presents to urgent care complaining of pain with urination. He reports that the pain started 3 days ago. He has never experienced these symptoms before. He denies gross hematuria or pelvic pain. He is sexually active with his girlfriend, and they consistently use condoms. When asked about recent travel, he admits to recently returning from a “boys' trip" in Cancun where he had unprotected sex 1 night with a girl he met at a bar. The patient’s medical history includes type I diabetes that is controlled with an insulin pump. His mother has rheumatoid arthritis. The patient’s temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 112/74 mmHg, and pulse is 81/min. On physical examination, there are no lesions of the penis or other body rashes. No costovertebral tenderness is appreciated. A urinalysis reveals no blood, glucose, ketones, or proteins but is positive for leukocyte esterase. A urine microscopic evaluation shows a moderate number of white blood cells but no casts or crystals. A urine culture is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause for the patient’s symptoms?
A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Chlamydia trachomatis (Correct Answer)
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation: ***Chlamydia trachomatis***
- The patient's symptoms of **dysuria** and **leukocyte esterase** on urinalysis, coupled with a **negative urine culture**, are highly suggestive of a sexually transmitted infection.
- Given his recent unprotected sexual encounter, **Chlamydia trachomatis** is a common cause of **nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)** that fits this clinical picture.
- Chlamydia is an **intracellular organism** that does not grow on routine bacterial culture media, explaining the negative urine culture despite pyuria.
*Herpes simplex virus*
- HSV typically causes **painful vesicular or ulcerative lesions** on the genitalia, which are not described in this patient.
- While it can cause dysuria, it's usually secondary to these visible lesions, and the primary complaint here is isolated dysuria without external lesions.
*Treponema pallidum*
- This causes **syphilis**, which typically presents with a **painless chancre** in its primary stage or a rash in its secondary stage.
- It does not commonly cause isolated dysuria or signs of urethritis like leukocyte esterase without other prominent features.
*Neisseria gonorrhoeae*
- While *N. gonorrhoeae* can also cause urethritis with a negative routine urine culture, it typically presents with **profuse purulent urethral discharge**, which is not described in this patient.
- The absence of significant discharge and the clinical presentation are more consistent with **nongonococcal urethritis (NGU)**, of which Chlamydia is the most common cause.
- Both organisms require nucleic acid amplification tests (NAATs) for definitive diagnosis, as they may not grow on routine bacterial culture.
*Mycobacterium tuberculosis*
- **Genitourinary tuberculosis** is a rare cause of dysuria and often presents with more chronic symptoms, sometimes with sterile pyuria, but would not be the initial suspicion for acute dysuria following a single unprotected sexual encounter.
- It typically involves other systemic symptoms or evidence of TB elsewhere.
Question 120: A 23-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a diffuse, itchy rash and swollen face for 6 hours. That morning, she was diagnosed with an abscess of the lower leg. She underwent treatment with incision and drainage as well as oral antibiotics. She has no history of serious illness. She is not in acute distress. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 78/min, and blood pressure is 128/84 mm Hg. Physical examination shows mild swelling of the eyelids and lips. There are multiple erythematous patches and wheals over her upper extremities, back, and abdomen. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows no abnormalities. After discontinuing all recently administered drugs and beginning continuous vital sign monitoring, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation
B. Intramuscular epinephrine and intravenous hydrocortisone administration
C. Oral diphenhydramine and close monitoring (Correct Answer)
D. Intravenous famotidine administration
E. Watchful waiting and regular reassessments
Explanation: ***Oral diphenhydramine and close monitoring***
- The patient presents with **urticaria** (itchy wheals) and **angioedema** (swelling of eyelids and lips) following antibiotic administration, consistent with a mild-to-moderate allergic reaction.
- **Antihistamines** (H1 blockers like diphenhydramine) are **first-line treatment** for urticaria and angioedema, providing symptomatic relief by blocking histamine receptors.
- With stable vital signs and no signs of anaphylaxis, oral antihistamine therapy combined with close monitoring for potential progression is the most appropriate management.
- Monitoring is essential to detect any worsening symptoms that might require escalation of care.
*Watchful waiting and regular reassessments*
- While monitoring is important after discontinuing the offending agent, **watchful waiting alone is insufficient** when a patient has active allergic symptoms like urticaria and angioedema.
- Active symptoms require symptomatic treatment with antihistamines, not just observation.
- This approach would leave the patient symptomatic without addressing the ongoing histamine-mediated reaction.
*Endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation*
- This aggressive intervention is only indicated for **impending or actual airway compromise**, such as severe laryngeal edema causing stridor or respiratory failure.
- The patient has clear lungs, stable vital signs, and only mild facial swelling without respiratory symptoms, indicating no immediate threat to airway patency.
*Intramuscular epinephrine and intravenous hydrocortisone administration*
- **Epinephrine** is the first-line treatment for **anaphylaxis**, characterized by respiratory compromise (bronchospasm, stridor) and/or cardiovascular instability (hypotension, tachycardia).
- This patient has **stable vital signs** (normal BP, normal pulse), clear lungs, and no signs of systemic compromise, ruling out anaphylaxis.
- **Hydrocortisone** may be used as adjunctive therapy in severe reactions but is not indicated for uncomplicated urticaria and angioedema.
*Intravenous famotidine administration*
- **Famotidine** (H2 blocker) can be used as **adjunctive therapy** with H1 blockers for allergic reactions but is not first-line treatment.
- H1 antihistamines (like diphenhydramine) are more effective for urticaria and angioedema and should be administered first.
- IV administration is unnecessary when oral route is available and the patient is not in distress.