A 38-year-old woman is diagnosed with a stage IIIa infiltrating ductal carcinoma involving the left breast. The tumor is ER/PR positive, HER-2 negative, poorly differentiated Bloom-Richardson grade 3. 4/20 regional nodes are positive. The patient undergoes a lumpectomy with axillary lymph node dissection, followed by chemotherapy and radiation therapy to the left breast and axilla. Her chemotherapy regimen involves doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, and paclitaxel. Following completion of the intensive phase, she is started on tamoxifen as an adjuvant therapy. 6 months later, she presents with increasing fatigue, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Physical examination reveals the presence of an S3 gallop, jugular venous distension (JVD), pedal edema, and ascites. She is diagnosed with congestive cardiac failure and admitted for further management. An echocardiogram confirms the diagnosis of dilated cardiomyopathy with severe systolic dysfunction and an ejection fraction of 10%. Her medical history prior to the diagnosis of breast cancer is negative for any cardiac conditions. The baseline echocardiogram prior to starting chemotherapy and a 12-lead electrocardiogram were normal. Which of the following is most likely responsible for her current cardiac condition?
Q102
A 23-year-old man college student visits the Health Services Office complaining of an intense and painful rash involving his axillae, waist, periumbilical skin, and inner thighs. The pruritus is worse at night. He noticed the rash and onset of symptoms after a recent fraternity party 4 weeks ago. The physical examination is unremarkable, except for multiple excoriated small papules with burrows distributed in a serpiginous pattern. An image of the lesions is shown below. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the first-line agent for this patient’s condition?
Q103
A 56-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Two weeks ago, he was treated for an acute gout attack of the metatarsophalangeal joints of his right big toe. His symptoms improved with naproxen. He has had three other similar episodes of joint pain in his toes and ankles during the last year that improved with over-the-counter analgesics. He does not currently take any medications. He used to drink 3–5 beers daily but has recently cut down. He is a chef at a steakhouse. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse is 76/min, and blood pressure is 147/83 mm Hg. Examination of his right big toe shows minimal tenderness; there is no warmth or apparent deformity. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. His serum creatinine concentration is 0.9 mg/dL. Long-term treatment with which of the following drugs is most appropriate to prevent future gout attacks?
Q104
A 7-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his parents for concern of general fatigue and recurrent abdominal pain. You learn that his medical history is otherwise unremarkable and that these symptoms started about 3 months ago after they moved to a different house. Based on clinical suspicion labs are obtained that reveal a microcytic anemia with high-normal levels of ferritin. Examination of a peripheral blood smear shows findings that are demonstrated in the figure provided. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism responsible for the anemia in this patient?
Q105
A 67-year-old woman who was recently diagnosed with Crohn disease comes to the physician for evaluation of her immunosuppressive therapy. She has had recurrent flares since her diagnosis. Physical examination shows two shallow ulcers on her oral mucosa. The physician considers adding azathioprine to her medication regimen. A deficiency of which of the following enzymes would diminish the therapeutic effect of this drug?
Q106
A 75 year-old gentleman presents to the primary care physician with a 2 week history of right sided achilles tendon pain. He states that the pain has had a gradual onset and continues to worsen, now affecting the left side for the past 2 days. He denies any inciting event. Of note the patient performs self-catheterization for episodes of urinary retention and has been treated on multiple occasions for recurrent urinary tract infections. What is the most important next step in management for this patient's achilles tendon pain?
Q107
A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 20 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She feels well. Her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and the child was delivered vaginally. Medications include folic acid and an iron supplement. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 98/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 108/76 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows a uterus that is consistent with a 20-week gestation. The second-trimester scan shows no abnormalities. The patient intends to travel next month to Mozambique to visit her grandmother. Which of the following drugs is most suitable for pre-exposure prophylaxis against malaria?
Q108
A 54-year-old woman presents for follow-up care for her type 2 diabetes mellitus. She was diagnosed approximately 2 years ago and was treated with dietary modifications, an exercise regimen, metformin, and glipizide. She reports that her increased thirst and urinary frequency has not improved with her current treatment regimen. Her hemoglobin A1c is 8.5% at this visit. She is started on a medication that will result in weight loss but places her at increased risk of developing urinary tract infections and vulvovaginal candidiasis. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the prescribed medication?
Q109
A 68-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of diminished vision for several months. Twenty-eight years ago, she was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus, which has been well controlled with hydroxychloroquine. Fundoscopic examination shows concentric rings of hypopigmentation and hyperpigmentation surrounding the fovea bilaterally. Visual field examination of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q110
A 55-year-old woman presents to the physician because of a fever 4 days after discharge from the hospital following induction chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia (AML). She has no other complaints and feels well otherwise. Other than the recent diagnosis of AML, she has no history of a serious illness. The temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), the blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, the pulse is 82/min, and the respirations are 14/min. Examination of the catheter site, skin, head and neck, heart, lungs, abdomen, and perirectal area shows no abnormalities. The results of the laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9 g/dL
Leukocyte count 800/mm3
Percent segmented neutrophils 40%
Platelet count 85,000/mm3
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy at this time?
Antimicrobials US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 101: A 38-year-old woman is diagnosed with a stage IIIa infiltrating ductal carcinoma involving the left breast. The tumor is ER/PR positive, HER-2 negative, poorly differentiated Bloom-Richardson grade 3. 4/20 regional nodes are positive. The patient undergoes a lumpectomy with axillary lymph node dissection, followed by chemotherapy and radiation therapy to the left breast and axilla. Her chemotherapy regimen involves doxorubicin, cyclophosphamide, and paclitaxel. Following completion of the intensive phase, she is started on tamoxifen as an adjuvant therapy. 6 months later, she presents with increasing fatigue, orthopnea, and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. Physical examination reveals the presence of an S3 gallop, jugular venous distension (JVD), pedal edema, and ascites. She is diagnosed with congestive cardiac failure and admitted for further management. An echocardiogram confirms the diagnosis of dilated cardiomyopathy with severe systolic dysfunction and an ejection fraction of 10%. Her medical history prior to the diagnosis of breast cancer is negative for any cardiac conditions. The baseline echocardiogram prior to starting chemotherapy and a 12-lead electrocardiogram were normal. Which of the following is most likely responsible for her current cardiac condition?
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Radiation therapy
C. Myocarditis
D. Doxorubicin (Correct Answer)
E. Tamoxifen
Explanation: ***Doxorubicin***
- **Doxorubicin** is a well-known anthracycline chemotherapy agent with a dose-dependent and cumulative cardiotoxic effect, often leading to **dilated cardiomyopathy** and congestive heart failure.
- The patient's presentation with **severe heart failure** symptoms and a dramatic drop in ejection fraction after chemotherapy strongly implicates doxorubicin as the cause.
*Cyclophosphamide*
- While **cyclophosphamide** can cause cardiac toxicity, particularly at high doses, it more commonly manifests as **myocarditis** or pericarditis rather than chronic dilated cardiomyopathy with severe systolic dysfunction as described.
- The cardiotoxicity of cyclophosphamide is generally less common and less severe than that of doxorubicin in typical breast cancer chemotherapy regimens.
*Radiation therapy*
- **Radiation therapy** to the chest can cause cardiac damage, including **pericarditis**, accelerated atherosclerosis, and restrictive cardiomyopathy.
- However, the timeframe for significant radiation-induced cardiomyopathy leading to such severe dilated heart failure is typically much longer, often years after treatment, not 6 months.
*Myocarditis*
- **Myocarditis** can cause heart failure, but it is typically an **inflammatory process** of the myocardium, often triggered by viral infections, and is usually an acute rather than a cumulative, treatment-induced effect in this context.
- While some chemotherapies can cause myocarditis, the clinical picture of a delayed, progressive cardiomyopathy with significantly reduced ejection fraction after specific cardiotoxic drugs points away from acute myocarditis as the primary cause.
*Tamoxifen*
- **Tamoxifen**, an antiestrogen used in ER/PR positive breast cancer, is generally not associated with significant **cardiotoxicity** or dilated cardiomyopathy.
- Its main cardiovascular side effects are usually related to an increased risk of **thromboembolic events**, not direct myocardial damage leading to heart failure.
Question 102: A 23-year-old man college student visits the Health Services Office complaining of an intense and painful rash involving his axillae, waist, periumbilical skin, and inner thighs. The pruritus is worse at night. He noticed the rash and onset of symptoms after a recent fraternity party 4 weeks ago. The physical examination is unremarkable, except for multiple excoriated small papules with burrows distributed in a serpiginous pattern. An image of the lesions is shown below. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the first-line agent for this patient’s condition?
A. Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
B. Formation of pores in membranes
C. Blockade of GABA-A receptors
D. Formation of free radicals
E. Blockade of voltage-gated Na+ channels (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Blockade of voltage-gated Na+ channels***
- This mechanism of action describes **permethrin**, which is the **first-line agent** for **scabies**.
- Permethrin acts as a **neurotoxin** by disrupting the normal function of **voltage-gated sodium channels** in the parasite, leading to paralysis and death.
*Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase*
- This is the mechanism of action for **organophosphates** and **carbamates**, which are used as insecticides but are not the primary treatment for scabies due to toxicity.
- These agents lead to an accumulation of **acetylcholine** at synapses, causing overstimulation of the parasitic nervous system.
*Formation of pores in membranes*
- This mechanism is characteristic of some **antifungal agents** (e.g., polyenes like amphotericin B) or certain **antibiotics** (e.g., polymyxins), but not the first-line treatment for scabies.
- Pore formation disrupts the **integrity of cell membranes**, leading to leakage and cell death.
*Blockade of GABA-A receptors*
- While this option is listed, **ivermectin** (an alternative treatment for scabies) primarily works by **activating glutamate-gated chloride channels (GluCl)** in invertebrate nerve and muscle cells, causing hyperpolarization, paralysis, and death of the parasite.
- Ivermectin is typically used for **crusted scabies** or cases resistant to permethrin, but it is **not the first-line topical agent**.
- This mechanism does not accurately describe ivermectin's primary action.
*Formation of free radicals*
- This mechanism is less specific and can be exhibited by various compounds, including some anticancer drugs or certain antimicrobial agents that damage DNA or proteins through **oxidative stress**.
- It does not describe the primary action of first-line anti-scabies treatment.
Question 103: A 56-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. Two weeks ago, he was treated for an acute gout attack of the metatarsophalangeal joints of his right big toe. His symptoms improved with naproxen. He has had three other similar episodes of joint pain in his toes and ankles during the last year that improved with over-the-counter analgesics. He does not currently take any medications. He used to drink 3–5 beers daily but has recently cut down. He is a chef at a steakhouse. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse is 76/min, and blood pressure is 147/83 mm Hg. Examination of his right big toe shows minimal tenderness; there is no warmth or apparent deformity. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. His serum creatinine concentration is 0.9 mg/dL. Long-term treatment with which of the following drugs is most appropriate to prevent future gout attacks?
A. Pegloticase
B. Aspirin
C. Allopurinol (Correct Answer)
D. Colchicine
E. Probenecid
Explanation: ***Allopurinol***
- This patient has a history of recurrent gout attacks (four episodes in the last year), indicating the need for **long-term urate-lowering therapy**.
- **Allopurinol** is a **xanthine oxidase inhibitor** that reduces uric acid production, making it the first-line urate-lowering agent for preventing future gout attacks.
*Pegloticase*
- This drug is reserved for patients with **severe, refractory chronic gout** who have failed other urate-lowering therapies or have significant tophi.
- Its mechanism involves converting uric acid to allantoin, which is then excreted, but it carries risks of **infusion reactions** and **anaphylaxis**.
*Aspirin*
- **Low-dose aspirin** can actually **elevate uric acid levels** by inhibiting tubular uric acid secretion, potentially worsening gout.
- While it has anti-inflammatory properties at higher doses, it is not used for chronic gout prevention due to its hyperuricemic effect and risk of GI side effects.
*Colchicine*
- **Colchicine** is effective for the **acute treatment of gout flares** and as a prophylactic agent to prevent flares during the initiation of urate-lowering therapy.
- However, it does not lower uric acid levels and is not a long-term monotherapy for preventing gout attacks in patients with recurrent episodes.
*Probenecid*
- **Probenecid** is a **uricosuric agent** that increases renal excretion of uric acid.
- It is typically used as a second-line agent in patients with underexcretion of uric acid and normal renal function, or as an add-on to allopurinol if target uric acid levels are not met. This patient's creatinine is normal, but allopurinol is preferred as first line.
Question 104: A 7-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his parents for concern of general fatigue and recurrent abdominal pain. You learn that his medical history is otherwise unremarkable and that these symptoms started about 3 months ago after they moved to a different house. Based on clinical suspicion labs are obtained that reveal a microcytic anemia with high-normal levels of ferritin. Examination of a peripheral blood smear shows findings that are demonstrated in the figure provided. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism responsible for the anemia in this patient?
A. Deletion of beta hemoglobin gene
B. Chronic loss of blood through GI tract
C. Inhibition of ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase (Correct Answer)
D. Inflammation due to occult abdominal malignancy
E. X-linked mutation of ALA synthetase
Explanation: ***Inhibition of ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase***
- The patient's symptoms (fatigue, abdominal pain), microcytic anemia with high-normal ferritin, and the presence of **basophilic stippling** in the peripheral blood smear (visible in the provided image as small, dark blue granules within red blood cells) are highly suggestive of **lead poisoning**.
- **Lead toxicity** primarily inhibits two key enzymes in heme synthesis: **aminolevulinate dehydratase (ALA dehydratase)** and **ferrochelatase**. This inhibition leads to impaired heme production, resulting in microcytic anemia, and accumulation of heme precursors, contributing to symptoms. The **high-normal ferritin** despite microcytic anemia is crucial as it rules out iron deficiency and points towards a heme synthesis disorder. The move to a new house 3 months ago suggests a new exposure to lead.
*Deletion of beta hemoglobin gene*
- This describes **beta-thalassemia**, which also causes microcytic anemia. However, beta-thalassemia is a genetic disorder usually presenting earlier in life or with a family history, and typically does not present with **abdominal pain** or **basophilic stippling** as its primary distinguishing feature in this context. Ferritin levels would also vary.
- While beta-thalassemia can cause microcytic anemia, a positive family history and specific hemoglobin electrophoresis findings would be expected, rather than recent onset symptoms linked to a new environment and prominent basophilic stippling.
*Chronic loss of blood through GI tract*
- **Chronic GI blood loss** would lead to **iron deficiency anemia**. While this would cause microcytic anemia, it would be characterized by **low ferritin levels** (as iron stores are depleted), not high-normal ferritin.
- The presence of basophilic stippling is not a typical finding in simple iron deficiency anemia.
*Inflammation due to occult abdominal malignancy*
- **Anemia of chronic disease** due to inflammation (e.g., from malignancy) can be microcytic or normocytic, but it is typically associated with **elevated ferritin** as ferritin is an acute phase reactant. However, this diagnosis would not explain the prominent **basophilic stippling** seen in the peripheral smear.
- Occult malignancy would likely present with other constitutional symptoms and the mechanism of anemia is related to a functional iron deficiency, not a direct inhibition of heme synthesis enzymes like in lead poisoning.
*X-linked mutation of ALA synthetase*
- An **X-linked mutation of ALA synthetase** (the rate-limiting enzyme in heme synthesis) is characteristic of **X-linked sideroblastic anemia**. This condition leads to ring sideroblasts in the bone marrow and typically presents with a microcytic or normocytic anemia.
- While it involves heme synthesis dysfunction, it's a genetic disorder, often congenital, and the sudden onset of symptoms linked to a new environment, along with the distinct feature of basophilic stippling, makes lead poisoning a more likely diagnosis in this specific clinical scenario. Furthermore, in sideroblastic anemia, iron accumulates in mitochondria, but the primary clinical picture and direct enzyme inhibition mechanism differ from lead poisoning.
Question 105: A 67-year-old woman who was recently diagnosed with Crohn disease comes to the physician for evaluation of her immunosuppressive therapy. She has had recurrent flares since her diagnosis. Physical examination shows two shallow ulcers on her oral mucosa. The physician considers adding azathioprine to her medication regimen. A deficiency of which of the following enzymes would diminish the therapeutic effect of this drug?
A. Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate synthetase
B. Dihydrofolate reductase
C. Thymidylate synthase
D. Xanthine oxidase
E. Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase***
- **Azathioprine** is a prodrug converted to **6-mercaptopurine (6-MP)**, which is then activated to **thioguanine nucleotides** (active metabolites) via the purine salvage pathway.
- **Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRT)** is essential for converting 6-MP into its active thiopurine metabolites that inhibit purine synthesis and suppress the immune system.
- A deficiency in **HGPRT** (as seen in **Lesch-Nyhan syndrome**) would lead to reduced formation of active drug metabolites, thereby **diminishing therapeutic efficacy** in treating Crohn disease.
*Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate synthetase*
- This enzyme synthesizes **phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate (PRPP)**, a precursor for de novo **purine and pyrimidine synthesis**.
- While important for nucleotide metabolism, a deficiency would not directly reduce the activation of azathioprine through the salvage pathway.
*Dihydrofolate reductase*
- **Dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR)** is the target of **methotrexate**, which blocks the reduction of dihydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate, inhibiting DNA synthesis.
- It is not involved in the metabolism or activation of azathioprine.
*Thymidylate synthase*
- **Thymidylate synthase** converts deoxyuridylate to deoxythymidylate, a critical step in DNA synthesis.
- This enzyme is targeted by drugs like **5-fluorouracil (5-FU)** but is not related to azathioprine's mechanism of action.
*Xanthine oxidase*
- **Xanthine oxidase** catabolizes azathioprine and 6-MP into **inactive metabolites**, thereby **reducing drug levels and toxicity**.
- **Inhibition** of xanthine oxidase (e.g., by **allopurinol**) increases active thiopurine metabolites, enhancing both therapeutic effect and toxicity risk.
- Xanthine oxidase deficiency would **increase** rather than diminish therapeutic effect.
Question 106: A 75 year-old gentleman presents to the primary care physician with a 2 week history of right sided achilles tendon pain. He states that the pain has had a gradual onset and continues to worsen, now affecting the left side for the past 2 days. He denies any inciting event. Of note the patient performs self-catheterization for episodes of urinary retention and has been treated on multiple occasions for recurrent urinary tract infections. What is the most important next step in management for this patient's achilles tendon pain?
A. Switch medication and avoid exercise (Correct Answer)
B. Perform MRI
C. Refer patient to an orthopedic surgeon
D. Place permanent urinary catheter
E. Perform CT scan
Explanation: ***Switch medication and avoid exercise***
- This patient is likely experiencing **fluoroquinolone-induced tendinopathy**, a known side effect of this class of antibiotics. Given his history of recurrent UTIs and self-catheterization, he is likely on or has recently been on fluoroquinolones.
- The most crucial step is to **discontinue the offending drug** (fluoroquinolone) and advise **rest/avoidance of exercise** to prevent tendon rupture, especially of the Achilles tendon.
*Perform MRI*
- While an MRI could confirm tendinopathy, it is **not the most important *initial* step in management**. The clinical picture strongly suggests drug-induced tendinopathy, making medication cessation more urgent.
- Delaying medication change to await imaging results could **increase the risk of tendon rupture**.
*Refer patient to an orthopedic surgeon*
- Referral to an orthopedic surgeon might be necessary if the tendinopathy progresses to a **rupture** or if conservative measures fail.
- However, the immediate and most critical action is to **address the likely cause** by discontinuing the suspected medication, not immediately involving surgery.
*Place permanent urinary catheter*
- While appropriate management of urinary retention is important, placing a permanent catheter is **not directly related to the acute management of Achilles tendon pain** and does not address the likely drug-induced cause.
- This is a long-term management decision for his urological condition and **not the priority** for his tendon issue.
*Perform CT scan*
- A CT scan has **limited utility** for diagnosing tendon pathology, as it is less effective than MRI for soft tissue visualization.
- It would expose the patient to **unnecessary radiation** without providing significant diagnostic benefit for tendinopathy.
Question 107: A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 20 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She feels well. Her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and the child was delivered vaginally. Medications include folic acid and an iron supplement. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 98/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 108/76 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows a uterus that is consistent with a 20-week gestation. The second-trimester scan shows no abnormalities. The patient intends to travel next month to Mozambique to visit her grandmother. Which of the following drugs is most suitable for pre-exposure prophylaxis against malaria?
A. Mefloquine (Correct Answer)
B. Primaquine
C. Chloroquine
D. Doxycycline
E. Proguanil
Explanation: ***Mefloquine***
- **Mefloquine** is the **most appropriate antimalarial prophylaxis** for pregnant women traveling to **chloroquine-resistant areas** such as Mozambique, particularly after the first trimester.
- Mozambique has **widespread chloroquine-resistant *P. falciparum* malaria**, making mefloquine the preferred choice according to CDC and WHO guidelines.
- While mefloquine is avoided in the first trimester due to limited safety data, it is considered **safe in the second and third trimesters** of pregnancy.
- Though neuropsychiatric side effects can occur, the benefits outweigh risks when traveling to high-risk malaria areas during pregnancy.
*Primaquine*
- **Primaquine** is *contraindicated* in pregnancy because it can cause **hemolytic anemia** in the fetus if the fetus has **glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency**.
- It is used primarily for the **radical cure** of *P. vivax* and *P. ovale* malaria (to eradicate liver hypnozoites), not as a primary prophylactic agent.
*Chloroquine*
- While **chloroquine** is safe in pregnancy and preferred for **chloroquine-sensitive malaria** areas, it is *not appropriate for Mozambique*.
- Mozambique has **high rates of chloroquine-resistant *P. falciparum* malaria**, making chloroquine ineffective for prophylaxis in this region.
- Chloroquine would only be suitable for travel to areas with confirmed chloroquine-sensitive malaria (e.g., Central America west of Panama Canal, parts of the Middle East).
*Doxycycline*
- **Doxycycline** is *contraindicated* in pregnancy and in children under eight years old due to its potential to cause **permanent dental discoloration**, **enamel hypoplasia**, and inhibition of **bone growth** in the developing fetus.
*Proguanil*
- **Atovaquone-proguanil** (Malarone) has limited safety data in pregnancy and is generally not recommended as a first-line option when other proven alternatives are available.
- While some data suggest it may be safe, **mefloquine** is preferred for chloroquine-resistant areas during pregnancy due to more extensive safety documentation in the second and third trimesters.
Question 108: A 54-year-old woman presents for follow-up care for her type 2 diabetes mellitus. She was diagnosed approximately 2 years ago and was treated with dietary modifications, an exercise regimen, metformin, and glipizide. She reports that her increased thirst and urinary frequency has not improved with her current treatment regimen. Her hemoglobin A1c is 8.5% at this visit. She is started on a medication that will result in weight loss but places her at increased risk of developing urinary tract infections and vulvovaginal candidiasis. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the prescribed medication?
A. Peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor activator
B. Glucagon-like protein-1 receptor agonist
C. Sodium-glucose co-transporter-2 inhibitor (Correct Answer)
D. Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor
E. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor
Explanation: ***Sodium-glucose co-transporter-2 inhibitor***
- The patient's **HbA1c of 8.5%** indicates uncontrolled diabetes, and the mention of weight loss and increased risk of **urinary tract infections (UTIs)** and **vulvovaginal candidiasis** strongly points to an SGLT2 inhibitor.
- SGLT2 inhibitors work by **blocking glucose reabsorption in the renal tubules**, leading to increased glucose excretion in urine, which can cause candidiasis and UTIs, and also contributes to weight loss.
*Peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor activator*
- This refers to **thiazolidinediones (TZDs)**, which reduce insulin resistance by increasing glucose uptake in peripheral tissues, but are not associated with increased UTIs or vulvovaginal candidiasis.
- TZDs can cause **weight gain** and fluid retention, which is contrary to the weight loss mentioned in the stem.
*Glucagon-like protein-1 receptor agonist*
- GLP-1 receptor agonists like liraglutide and semaglutide encourage **weight loss** and improve glycemic control by increasing insulin secretion and decreasing glucagon secretion, but they are not primarily associated with increased risk of UTIs or candidiasis.
- Their common side effects include **gastrointestinal issues** such as nausea and vomiting.
*Alpha-glucosidase inhibitor*
- These medications (e.g., acarbose) work by **delaying carbohydrate absorption** in the gut, which primarily helps reduce postprandial glucose levels.
- They commonly cause **gastrointestinal side effects** such as flatulence and diarrhea, and are not associated with UTIs, candidiasis, or significant weight loss.
*Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 inhibitor*
- DPP-4 inhibitors (e.g., sitagliptin, saxagliptin) enhance the effects of incretin hormones by **preventing their breakdown**, leading to increased insulin secretion and decreased glucagon.
- They are generally **weight-neutral** and do not cause the specific adverse effects (UTIs, candidiasis) mentioned in the clinical scenario.
Question 109: A 68-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of diminished vision for several months. Twenty-eight years ago, she was diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus, which has been well controlled with hydroxychloroquine. Fundoscopic examination shows concentric rings of hypopigmentation and hyperpigmentation surrounding the fovea bilaterally. Visual field examination of this patient is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Right monocular blindness
B. Bitemporal hemianopia
C. Paracentral scotoma (Correct Answer)
D. Homonymous hemianopia
E. Binasal hemianopia
Explanation: ***Paracentral scotoma***
- The fundoscopic findings of **concentric rings of hypopigmentation and hyperpigmentation surrounding the fovea** (bull's-eye maculopathy) are characteristic of **hydroxychloroquine toxicity**.
- **Hydroxychloroquine toxicity** typically causes a **paracentral scotoma**, meaning loss of vision in an area adjacent to the central point of vision.
*Right monocular blindness*
- This would indicate a problem with the **right optic nerve** or the right eye itself, affecting all vision in that eye.
- It is not a typical finding for **hydroxychloroquine retinopathy**, which primarily affects the macula.
*Bitemporal hemianopia*
- This visual field defect is characterized by loss of vision in the **outer (temporal) halves of both visual fields**.
- It is typically caused by compression of the **optic chiasm**, often by a **pituitary tumor**, not by retinal toxicity from hydroxychloroquine.
*Homonymous hemianopia*
- This involves loss of vision in the **same half of the visual field in both eyes** (e.g., losing the right half of vision in both eyes).
- This defect indicates a lesion **posterior to the optic chiasm** (e.g., in the optic tract, lateral geniculate nucleus, optic radiations, or visual cortex).
*Binasal hemianopia*
- This involves loss of vision in the **inner (nasal) halves of both visual fields**.
- This rare defect can be caused by lesions compressing the **uncrossed nasal fibers** of both optic nerves, usually due to bilateral internal carotid artery aneurysms.
Question 110: A 55-year-old woman presents to the physician because of a fever 4 days after discharge from the hospital following induction chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukemia (AML). She has no other complaints and feels well otherwise. Other than the recent diagnosis of AML, she has no history of a serious illness. The temperature is 38.8°C (101.8°F), the blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, the pulse is 82/min, and the respirations are 14/min. Examination of the catheter site, skin, head and neck, heart, lungs, abdomen, and perirectal area shows no abnormalities. The results of the laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9 g/dL
Leukocyte count 800/mm3
Percent segmented neutrophils 40%
Platelet count 85,000/mm3
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy at this time?
A. Valacyclovir
B. Vancomycin
C. Imipenem (Correct Answer)
D. Caspofungin
E. Ciprofloxacin
Explanation: ***Imipenem***
- This patient presents with **febrile neutropenia** (fever >38.3°C and absolute neutrophil count <500/mm³ or expected to fall below 500/mm³). This is a **medical emergency** requiring prompt empiric **broad-spectrum antibiotic** therapy covering **Gram-positive** and **Gram-negative** organisms.
- **Imipenem** is a carbapenem antibiotic with broad-spectrum activity, making it an appropriate choice for empiric treatment of febrile neutropenia, especially in high-risk patients like those undergoing induction chemotherapy for AML.
*Valacyclovir*
- **Valacyclovir** is an antiviral medication used primarily for **herpes simplex** and **varicella-zoster virus** infections.
- While immunocompromised patients are susceptible to viral infections, there is no clinical evidence at this time to suggest a viral etiology, and **febrile neutropenia** takes precedence for immediate broad-spectrum antibacterial coverage.
*Vancomycin*
- **Vancomycin** is an antibiotic that specifically targets **Gram-positive bacteria**, particularly **methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)**.
- Empiric vancomycin is not typically recommended as initial sole therapy for febrile neutropenia unless there is strong suspicion of a Gram-positive infection (e.g., catheter-related infection, mucositis, skin and soft tissue infection, or known colonization with MRSA), which is not present here.
*Caspofungin*
- **Caspofungin** is an **antifungal** medication used to treat invasive fungal infections, including candidiasis and aspergillosis.
- Initial management of febrile neutropenia focuses on bacterial infections; empiric antifungal therapy is usually initiated if fever persists despite broad-spectrum antibiotics for several days.
*Ciprofloxacin*
- **Ciprofloxacin** is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic with good activity against many **Gram-negative bacteria** but limited activity against **Gram-positive organisms** and anaerobes.
- While it can be used for prophylaxis or as part of a combination regimen, it is not considered sufficient as a single agent for empiric treatment of **high-risk febrile neutropenia** due to its limited spectrum and increasing resistance patterns.