A 57-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with complaints of severe headache, vomiting, neck stiffness, and chest pain that have developed over the last several hours. Her past medical history is notable for diabetes, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. Her temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 197/124 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical examination is significant for papilledema. Urinalysis reveals gross hematuria and proteinuria. Which of the following is the next best step in management for this patient?
Q82
A 78-year-old Caucasian male actor presents to your office complaining of a dry, non-productive cough. He has a history of hypertension, diabetes, and coronary artery disease and he follows a complicated regimen of medications to treat his multiple co-morbidities. Which of the following medications is most likely to be associated with his chief complaint?
Q83
A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a headache, blurry vision, and abdominal pain. He states that his symptoms started several hours ago and have been gradually worsening. His temperature is 99.3°F (37.4°C), blood pressure is 222/128 mmHg, pulse is 87/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an uncomfortable and distressed man. The patient is started on an esmolol and a nitroprusside drip thus lowering his blood pressure to 200/118 mmHg. The patient states that he feels better, but complains of feeling warm and flushed. An hour later, the patient seems confused and states his headache has resurfaced. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Serum:
Na+: 138 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 17 mEq/L
BUN: 31 mg/dL
Glucose: 199 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.4 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
Q84
A 59-year-old female is brought to the emergency department with an acute onset of weakness in her left hand that started 3 hours ago. She has not had numbness or tingling of the hand. Other than recent episodes of blurry vision and headaches, her medical history is unremarkable. She has one daughter who was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis at age 23. Her temperature is 36.7°C (98°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg. Examination shows facial erythema. There are mild scratch marks on her arms and torso. Left hand strength is slightly decreased and there is mild dysmetria of the left hand finger-to-nose testing. The remainder of the neurological examination shows no abnormalities. Her laboratory studies shows:
Hematocrit 55%
Leukocyte count 14,500/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 61%
Eosinophils 3%
Lymphocytes 29%
Monocytes 7%
Platelet count 690,000/mm3
Her erythropoietin levels are decreased. CT scan of the head without contrast shows two focal areas of hypo-attenuation in the right parietal lobe. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to prevent complications of this patient's underlying condition?
Q85
A 44-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a severe headache and blurry vision for the past 3 hours. He has hypertension treated with hydrochlorothiazide. He has missed taking his medication for the past week as he was traveling. He is only oriented to time and person. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 92/min and regular, and blood pressure is 245/115 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Fundoscopy shows bilateral retinal hemorrhages and exudates. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes, glucose, and creatinine are within the reference range. A CT scan of the brain shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Q86
A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain. He was at home watching television when he suddenly felt chest pain that traveled to his back. The patient has a past medical history of alcoholism, obesity, hypertension, diabetes, and depression. His temperature is 98.4°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 177/118 mmHg, pulse is 123/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Physical exam reveals a S4 on cardiac exam and chest pain that seems to worsen with palpation. The patient smells of alcohol. The patient is started on 100% oxygen and morphine. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q87
A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 32 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital for the management of elevated blood pressures. On admission, her pulse is 81/min, and blood pressure is 165/89 mm Hg. Treatment with an intravenous drug is initiated. Two days after admission, she has a headache and palpitations. Her pulse is 116/min and regular, and blood pressure is 124/80 mm Hg. Physical examination shows pitting edema of both lower extremities that was not present on admission. This patient most likely was given a drug that predominantly acts by which of the following mechanisms?
Q88
A 73-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-day history of skin lesions. Initially, she experienced pain in the affected areas, followed by discoloration of the skin and formation of blisters. Four days ago, the patient was started on a new medication by her physician after failed cardioversion for intermittent atrial fibrillation. She lives alone and does not recall any recent falls or trauma. She has hypertension treated with metoprolol and diabetes mellitus treated with insulin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 108/min and irregularly irregular, and blood pressure is 145/85 mm Hg. Examination of her skin shows well-circumscribed purple maculae, hemorrhagic blisters, and areas of skin ulceration over the breast, lower abdomen, and gluteal region. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
Q89
A 37-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He is being evaluated for high blood pressure readings that were incidentally recorded at a routine health maintenance examination 1 month ago. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. His pulse is 88/min and blood pressure is 165/98 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show:
Na+ 146 mEq/L
K+ 3.0 mEq/L
Cl- 98 mEq/L
Glucose 77 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
His plasma aldosterone concentration (PAC) to plasma renin activity (PRA) ratio is 36 (N = < 10). A saline infusion test fails to suppress aldosterone secretion. A CT scan of the adrenal glands shows bilateral adrenal abnormalities. An adrenal venous sampling shows elevated PACs from bilateral adrenal veins. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q90
A 64-year-old female presents with acute right wrist pain after she lost her balance while reaching overhead and fell from standing height. Her right wrist radiographs show a fracture of her right distal radius. A follow-up DEXA bone density scan is performed and demonstrates a T-score of -3.5 at the femoral neck and spine. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, for which she is not currently taking any medication. She has not had a previous fracture. Which of the following antihypertensive agents would be preferred in this patient?
Antihypertensives US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: A 57-year-old woman presents to the emergency room with complaints of severe headache, vomiting, neck stiffness, and chest pain that have developed over the last several hours. Her past medical history is notable for diabetes, hypertension, and dyslipidemia. Her temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 197/124 mm Hg, pulse is 120/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical examination is significant for papilledema. Urinalysis reveals gross hematuria and proteinuria. Which of the following is the next best step in management for this patient?
A. Hydralazine
B. Esmolol
C. Lisinopril
D. Propranolol
E. Nitroprusside (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Nitroprusside***
- This patient presents with **malignant hypertension** (BP 197/124 mm Hg) with **hypertensive encephalopathy** (severe headache, vomiting, papilledema, neck stiffness) and **acute kidney injury** (gross hematuria, proteinuria), constituting a hypertensive emergency requiring immediate IV therapy.
- **Nitroprusside** is a potent **arterial and venous vasodilator** with immediate onset (seconds) and short half-life (2 minutes), allowing rapid and titratable blood pressure reduction in hypertensive emergencies.
- Among the options provided, nitroprusside offers the most **rapid and precise BP control** necessary for this life-threatening situation with end-organ damage.
- Note: While newer agents like nicardipine or clevidipine are often preferred in modern practice due to better side effect profiles, nitroprusside remains effective when these alternatives are unavailable.
*Esmolol*
- Esmolol is a **short-acting IV beta-blocker** particularly useful in hypertensive emergencies associated with **aortic dissection**, myocardial ischemia, or postoperative hypertension where heart rate control is critical.
- While it could help with this patient's tachycardia, it provides less potent vasodilation and BP reduction compared to nitroprusside in hypertensive encephalopathy.
- Beta-blockade alone may be insufficient for the degree of BP reduction needed in this emergency.
*Hydralazine*
- Hydralazine is a direct arterial vasodilator primarily used for **hypertensive emergencies in pregnancy** (pre-eclampsia/eclampsia).
- Its **unpredictable BP response**, slower onset (10-20 minutes IV), and tendency to cause **reflex tachycardia** make it less ideal for precise BP control in this critical situation.
- The patient already has tachycardia (120/min), which would be worsened by hydralazine.
*Lisinopril*
- Lisinopril is an oral **ACE inhibitor** used for chronic hypertension management and renal protection.
- It is **inappropriate for hypertensive emergencies** because: (1) oral route has delayed, unpredictable absorption; (2) onset of action is hours, not minutes; (3) cannot be rapidly titrated.
- Hypertensive emergencies require immediate IV therapy with titratable agents.
*Propranolol*
- Propranolol is an oral **non-selective beta-blocker** used for chronic hypertension, angina, and certain arrhythmias.
- Like lisinopril, it is unsuitable for acute management due to **slow onset** (oral formulation), lack of titratability, and insufficient vasodilatory effect for severe hypertension.
- Beta-blockade without vasodilation is inadequate for hypertensive encephalopathy.
Question 82: A 78-year-old Caucasian male actor presents to your office complaining of a dry, non-productive cough. He has a history of hypertension, diabetes, and coronary artery disease and he follows a complicated regimen of medications to treat his multiple co-morbidities. Which of the following medications is most likely to be associated with his chief complaint?
A. Aspirin
B. Lisinopril (Correct Answer)
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Metoprolol
E. Nifedipine
Explanation: ***Lisinopril***
- **Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors** like lisinopril are well-known to cause a **persistent dry, non-productive cough** in approximately 5-20% of patients.
- This cough is thought to be due to the accumulation of **bradykinin** and **substance P** in the airways.
*Aspirin*
- While aspirin can cause respiratory symptoms in some individuals, it is typically associated with **aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD)**, which involves **bronchospasm** and nasal polyps, not a persistent dry cough as a primary side effect.
- Aspirin's common side effects are usually gastrointestinal, such as **gastric irritation** or bleeding.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- Hydrochlorothiazide is a **thiazide diuretic** primarily used for hypertension.
- It works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and is not typically associated with **chronic dry cough** as a side effect.
*Metoprolol*
- Metoprolol is a **beta-blocker** used for hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias.
- While beta-blockers can cause **bronchospasm** in susceptible individuals (especially those with asthma), they are not commonly linked to a persistent **dry, non-productive cough** in the general population.
*Nifedipine*
- Nifedipine is a **calcium channel blocker** (dihydropyridine type) used for hypertension and angina.
- Common side effects include **peripheral edema**, headache, and flushing, but it is not known to cause a **dry cough**.
Question 83: A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a headache, blurry vision, and abdominal pain. He states that his symptoms started several hours ago and have been gradually worsening. His temperature is 99.3°F (37.4°C), blood pressure is 222/128 mmHg, pulse is 87/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an uncomfortable and distressed man. The patient is started on an esmolol and a nitroprusside drip thus lowering his blood pressure to 200/118 mmHg. The patient states that he feels better, but complains of feeling warm and flushed. An hour later, the patient seems confused and states his headache has resurfaced. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Serum:
Na+: 138 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 4.4 mEq/L
HCO3-: 17 mEq/L
BUN: 31 mg/dL
Glucose: 199 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.4 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient?
A. Labetalol
B. Insulin
C. Hydroxocobalamin (Correct Answer)
D. IV fluids
E. Amyl nitrite
Explanation: ***Hydroxocobalamin***
- The patient's worsening confusion, headache, and metabolic acidosis (HCO3- of 17 mEq/L) despite some improvement in blood pressure, coupled with the use of **nitroprusside**, strongly suggest **cyanide toxicity**.
- **Hydroxocobalamin** is the preferred antidote for cyanide toxicity as it directly binds to **cyanide** to form cyanocobalamin, which is then safely excreted in the urine.
*Labetalol*
- While **labetalol** is an effective antihypertensive, it does not address the underlying **cyanide toxicity** caused by the nitroprusside drip.
- Continuing to optimize blood pressure without addressing the toxicity will not resolve the patient's neurological symptoms and metabolic derangements.
*Insulin*
- The patient has a slightly elevated **glucose** (199 mg/dL), but this is likely a stress response and not the primary cause of his acute neurological decline and **metabolic acidosis**.
- Administering **insulin** without addressing the cyanide toxicity would be inappropriate and could lead to other complications like hypoglycemia.
*IV fluids*
- **IV fluids** might be supportive in a critically ill patient, but they do not treat **cyanide toxicity** or reverse the metabolic acidosis.
- The primary issue is systemic poisoning, not dehydration or volume depletion.
*Amyl nitrite*
- **Amyl nitrite** is an older antidote for cyanide poisoning that works by inducing **methemoglobinemia** to bind cyanide.
- It is less effective and has more side effects than hydroxocobalamin, especially given the patient's existing hemodynamic instability.
Question 84: A 59-year-old female is brought to the emergency department with an acute onset of weakness in her left hand that started 3 hours ago. She has not had numbness or tingling of the hand. Other than recent episodes of blurry vision and headaches, her medical history is unremarkable. She has one daughter who was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis at age 23. Her temperature is 36.7°C (98°F), pulse is 80/min, and blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg. Examination shows facial erythema. There are mild scratch marks on her arms and torso. Left hand strength is slightly decreased and there is mild dysmetria of the left hand finger-to-nose testing. The remainder of the neurological examination shows no abnormalities. Her laboratory studies shows:
Hematocrit 55%
Leukocyte count 14,500/mm3
Segmented neutrophils 61%
Eosinophils 3%
Lymphocytes 29%
Monocytes 7%
Platelet count 690,000/mm3
Her erythropoietin levels are decreased. CT scan of the head without contrast shows two focal areas of hypo-attenuation in the right parietal lobe. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment to prevent complications of this patient's underlying condition?
A. Busulfan
B. Repeated phlebotomies (Correct Answer)
C. Glucocorticoid therapy
D. Radiation therapy
E. Imatinib therapy
Explanation: ***Repeated phlebotomies***
* This patient's symptoms (headaches, blurry vision, facial erythema, weakness, elevated hematocrit, and platelet count, and decreased erythropoietin) are highly suggestive of **polycythemia vera**. Repeated phlebotomies are the first-line treatment to reduce the **hematocrit** to less than 45%, thereby reducing the risk of **thrombotic events** (like stroke or transient ischemic attacks, which the patient has experienced).
* The goal of phlebotomy is to alleviate symptoms by decreasing **blood viscosity** and preventing further complications such as **thrombosis** and **hemorrhage**, which are common in polycythemia vera.
*Busulfan*
* **Busulfan** is an **alkylating agent** used in specific hematological malignancies, often in cases resistant to conventional therapies or in older patients with very high risk. It is not the first-line treatment for polycythemia vera given the availability of less toxic options.
* While it can suppress marrow production, its use is typically reserved for patients who do not tolerate phlebotomy or **hydroxyurea**, or who have severe symptoms unresponsive to these treatments.
*Glucocorticoid therapy*
* **Glucocorticoids** are primarily used for their **anti-inflammatory** and **immunosuppressive** effects. They are not effective in treating the underlying **myeloproliferative disorder** of polycythemia vera.
* They might be used in certain hematological conditions, such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia or specific lymphomas, but are not indicated for management of **polycythemia vera**.
*Radiation therapy*
* **Radiation therapy** (e.g., phosphorus-32) has been used historically for polycythemia vera but is now rarely used due to its **leukemogenic potential** and the availability of safer alternatives.
* It is not a standard or appropriate first-line treatment given the risks associated with increasing the potential for **secondary malignancies.**
*Imatinib therapy*
* **Imatinib mesylate** is a **tyrosine kinase inhibitor** specifically targeting the **BCR-ABL fusion protein** in **chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)** and other **KIT-positive** tumors.
* Polycythemia vera is driven by the **JAK2 V617F mutation** (or less commonly other **JAK2 mutations**), not BCR-ABL, making imatinib ineffective for this condition.
Question 85: A 44-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a severe headache and blurry vision for the past 3 hours. He has hypertension treated with hydrochlorothiazide. He has missed taking his medication for the past week as he was traveling. He is only oriented to time and person. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 92/min and regular, and blood pressure is 245/115 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Fundoscopy shows bilateral retinal hemorrhages and exudates. Neurologic examination shows no focal findings. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes, glucose, and creatinine are within the reference range. A CT scan of the brain shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Sublingual nifedipine
B. Oral captopril
C. Intravenous nitroprusside (Correct Answer)
D. Oral clonidine
E. Intravenous mannitol
Explanation: ***Intravenous nitroprusside***
- The patient presents with **hypertensive emergency**, characterized by **severe hypertension** (245/115 mmHg) with **acute end-organ damage**, including altered mental status and retinal hemorrhages/exudates.
- **Intravenous nitroprusside** is a potent, rapidly acting vasodilator making it an excellent choice for immediate and controlled reduction of blood pressure in such critical situations.
*Sublingual nifedipine*
- **Sublingual nifedipine** can cause a sudden and uncontrolled drop in blood pressure, leading to **ischemia** due to inadequate perfusion of vital organs.
- It also has a less predictable and slower onset of action compared to intravenous agents, making it unsuitable for acute hypertensive emergencies.
*Oral captopril*
- **Oral captopril** has a slower onset of action and is less suitable for the acute management of a **hypertensive emergency** where immediate and precise blood pressure control is crucial.
- While an ACE inhibitor, its oral administration does not provide the rapid titratability needed to safely lower dangerously high blood pressures.
*Oral clonidine*
- **Oral clonidine** also has a relatively slow onset of action and its effects can be variable, making it less ideal for the acute, emergent management of **severe hypertension** with end-organ damage.
- It is more appropriate for urgent but non-emergent hypertension or chronic management, not for situations requiring immediate and controlled blood pressure reduction.
*Intravenous mannitol*
- **Intravenous mannitol** is an osmotic diuretic primarily used to reduce **intracranial pressure** or to promote diuresis.
- It does not directly lower blood pressure effectively in a hypertensive emergency and is not a primary antihypertensive agent.
Question 86: A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department with chest pain. He was at home watching television when he suddenly felt chest pain that traveled to his back. The patient has a past medical history of alcoholism, obesity, hypertension, diabetes, and depression. His temperature is 98.4°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 177/118 mmHg, pulse is 123/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 97% on room air. Physical exam reveals a S4 on cardiac exam and chest pain that seems to worsen with palpation. The patient smells of alcohol. The patient is started on 100% oxygen and morphine. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. NPO, IV fluids, serum lipase
B. Nitroprusside
C. Labetalol (Correct Answer)
D. Aspirin
E. CT scan
Explanation: ***Labetalol***
- This patient's presentation with **sudden-onset chest pain radiating to the back**, **hypertension**, **tachycardia**, and a history of uncontrolled hypertension strongly suggests **aortic dissection**.
- **Labetalol** is an ideal initial step to rapidly reduce both heart rate and blood pressure, which is crucial in preventing further extension of the dissection.
*NPO, IV fluids, serum lipase*
- While **alcoholism** is a risk factor for **pancreatitis**, the classic presentation of **sudden-onset chest pain radiating to the back** with **severe hypertension** is not typical for pancreatitis.
- Although ruling out pancreatitis might be considered later, it's not the immediate priority over stabilizing a suspected dissection.
*Nitroprusside*
- **Nitroprusside** is a powerful vasodilator that lowers blood pressure but does not adequately control the **heart rate**.
- In **aortic dissection**, isolated blood pressure reduction without concomitant heart rate control can increase **shear stress** on the aortic wall, potentially worsening the dissection.
*Aspirin*
- **Aspirin** is used in the management of **acute coronary syndromes** to prevent platelet aggregation.
- In a suspected **aortic dissection**, aspirin is **contraindicated** as it can increase the risk of bleeding if surgical intervention is required.
*CT scan*
- A **CT scan** of the chest is the diagnostic test of choice for **aortic dissection** and would be performed soon.
- However, the **initial management priority** is to stabilize the patient hemodynamically by reducing heart rate and blood pressure *before* proceeding with imaging to prevent further aortic injury.
Question 87: A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 32 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital for the management of elevated blood pressures. On admission, her pulse is 81/min, and blood pressure is 165/89 mm Hg. Treatment with an intravenous drug is initiated. Two days after admission, she has a headache and palpitations. Her pulse is 116/min and regular, and blood pressure is 124/80 mm Hg. Physical examination shows pitting edema of both lower extremities that was not present on admission. This patient most likely was given a drug that predominantly acts by which of the following mechanisms?
A. Inhibition of β1, β2, and α1 receptors
B. Inhibition of angiotensin II production
C. Activation of α2 adrenergic receptors
D. Inhibition of sodium reabsorption
E. Direct dilation of the arterioles (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Direct dilation of the arterioles***
- The development of **headache**, **palpitations**, and **tachycardia** (pulse 116), along with a reduction in blood pressure (124/80 mm Hg) and new-onset **pitting edema**, suggests a direct arterial vasodilator like **hydralazine**.
- **Hydralazine reduces peripheral vascular resistance** by directly relaxing vascular smooth muscle, primarily in arterioles, leading to reflex tachycardia and fluid retention as compensatory mechanisms.
*Inhibition of β1, β2, and α1 receptors*
- Labetaolol, which is commonly used in pre-eclampsia and acts by inhibiting β1, β2, and α1 receptors, would typically lead to a **decrease in heart rate and sympathetic compensation**, not palpitations and increased pulse.
- While it lowers blood pressure, it would not typically cause **reflex tachycardia and new-onset edema** to this extent unless there is an underlying cardiac issue or overdose.
*Inhibition of angiotensin II production*
- Inhibitors of angiotensin II production (like ACE inhibitors or ARBs) are **contraindicated in pregnancy** due to their teratogenic effects, especially in the second and third trimesters.
- They typically do not cause **reflex tachycardia and palpitations** as primary side effects, but rather dry cough (ACE inhibitors) or hyperkalemia.
*Activation of α2 adrenergic receptors*
- **Alpha-2 adrenergic agonists** (e.g., methyldopa, clonidine) reduce sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system, leading to a **decrease in heart rate and blood pressure**.
- While effective for hypertension in pregnancy, they are more associated with **sedation and dry mouth** rather than palpitations and reflex tachycardia, and they do not typically cause significant peripheral edema.
*Inhibition of sodium reabsorption*
- Medications that inhibit sodium reabsorption are **diuretics**. While diuretics can help manage edema, they primarily lower blood pressure by reducing blood volume, and are not typically the immediate go-to for acute severe hypertension in pregnancy.
- Diuretics would **reduce edema**, not cause new-onset pitting edema, and would not typically cause reflex tachycardia as seen in this patient unless there is profound hypovolemia leading to a compensatory increase in heart rate.
Question 88: A 73-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-day history of skin lesions. Initially, she experienced pain in the affected areas, followed by discoloration of the skin and formation of blisters. Four days ago, the patient was started on a new medication by her physician after failed cardioversion for intermittent atrial fibrillation. She lives alone and does not recall any recent falls or trauma. She has hypertension treated with metoprolol and diabetes mellitus treated with insulin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 108/min and irregularly irregular, and blood pressure is 145/85 mm Hg. Examination of her skin shows well-circumscribed purple maculae, hemorrhagic blisters, and areas of skin ulceration over the breast, lower abdomen, and gluteal region. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
A. Deficiency of a natural anticoagulant (Correct Answer)
B. Major neurocognitive disorder
C. Formation of antibodies against a platelet antigen
D. Mutation in clotting factor V
E. Damaged aortic valve
Explanation: ***Deficiency of a natural anticoagulant***
- The sudden onset of **painful skin lesions**, followed by **purpuric maculae**, **hemorrhagic blisters**, and **skin necrosis**, particularly after commencing a new medication for atrial fibrillation suggests **warfarin-induced skin necrosis**.
- This condition is classically triggered when **warfarin** is initiated in patients with a pre-existing **deficiency of protein C** or protein S, leading to a transient hypercoagulable state due to rapid depletion of these natural anticoagulants.
*Major neurocognitive disorder*
- While neurocognitive disorders can affect medication adherence and overall health management, they do not directly predispose to **warfarin-induced skin necrosis**.
- There is no information in the vignette to suggest the patient has a significant neurocognitive disorder, and her ability to recall medical history seems intact.
*Formation of antibodies against a platelet antigen*
- This scenario describes **heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)**, where antibodies bind to **platelet factor 4 (PF4)** complexed with heparin, leading to platelet activation and thrombosis.
- The patient was not on heparin, and the clinical presentation of painful skin lesions with necrosis is more consistent with paradoxical thrombosis from warfarin.
*Mutation in clotting factor V*
- A mutation in clotting factor V, specifically **Factor V Leiden**, leads to **resistance to activated protein C (APC)**, increasing the risk of venous thromboembolism.
- While it is a **thrombophilic state**, it typically causes deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism and does not directly cause warfarin-induced skin necrosis in the absence of warfarin therapy.
*Damaged aortic valve*
- A damaged aortic valve, such as in **aortic stenosis** or **aortic regurgitation**, can lead to **turbulent blood flow**, which may predispose to thrombosis or hemolysis or be a source of emboli.
- However, valve damage itself does not directly cause the specific syndrome of **warfarin-induced skin necrosis** with its characteristic rapid onset and dermatological findings.
Question 89: A 37-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. He is being evaluated for high blood pressure readings that were incidentally recorded at a routine health maintenance examination 1 month ago. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. His pulse is 88/min and blood pressure is 165/98 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Serum studies show:
Na+ 146 mEq/L
K+ 3.0 mEq/L
Cl- 98 mEq/L
Glucose 77 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
His plasma aldosterone concentration (PAC) to plasma renin activity (PRA) ratio is 36 (N = < 10). A saline infusion test fails to suppress aldosterone secretion. A CT scan of the adrenal glands shows bilateral adrenal abnormalities. An adrenal venous sampling shows elevated PACs from bilateral adrenal veins. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Propranolol therapy
B. Unilateral adrenalectomy
C. Amiloride therapy
D. Bilateral adrenalectomy
E. Eplerenone therapy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Eplerenone therapy***
- The patient's presentation is consistent with **primary hyperaldosteronism** (resistant hypertension, hypokalemia, elevated PAC/PRA ratio, and non-suppression with saline infusion). The bilateral adrenal abnormalities on CT and elevated PACs from bilateral adrenal veins indicate **bilateral adrenal hyperplasia**.
- **Eplerenone** is a selective **aldosterone antagonist** that blocks the effects of aldosterone, making it the most appropriate medical therapy for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.
*Propranolol therapy*
- **Propranolol** is a **beta-blocker** primarily used for hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias, but it does not specifically address the underlying pathology of primary hyperaldosteronism, which is excessive aldosterone production.
- While it can lower blood pressure, it would not correct the **hypokalemia** or the fundamental hormonal imbalance.
*Unilateral adrenalectomy*
- **Unilateral adrenalectomy** is the treatment of choice for **unilateral adrenal adenoma** (Conn's syndrome) causing primary hyperaldosteronism.
- In this case, the patient has **bilateral adrenal abnormalities** and elevated PACs from **bilateral adrenal veins**, indicating bilateral hyperplasia, which is not amenable to unilateral surgery.
*Amiloride therapy*
- **Amiloride** is a **potassium-sparing diuretic** that directly inhibits sodium channels in the collecting duct, thereby reducing potassium excretion.
- While it can help with **hypokalemia**, it is less effective than aldosterone antagonists like eplerenone in blocking the full spectrum of aldosterone's effects and is not the first-line pharmacologic treatment for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.
*Bilateral adrenalectomy*
- **Bilateral adrenalectomy** would cure the hyperaldosteronism but would lead to **adrenal insufficiency**, requiring lifelong glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement.
- This invasive procedure is generally reserved for cases where medical management fails or specific genetic syndromes, and is not the first-line approach for bilateral adrenal hyperplasia given the availability of effective pharmacotherapy.
Question 90: A 64-year-old female presents with acute right wrist pain after she lost her balance while reaching overhead and fell from standing height. Her right wrist radiographs show a fracture of her right distal radius. A follow-up DEXA bone density scan is performed and demonstrates a T-score of -3.5 at the femoral neck and spine. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, for which she is not currently taking any medication. She has not had a previous fracture. Which of the following antihypertensive agents would be preferred in this patient?
A. Furosemide
B. Propranolol
C. Lisinopril
D. Amlodipine
E. Hydrochlorothiazide (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hydrochlorothiazide***
- This patient has osteoporosis, indicated by a **T-score of -3.5** and a **fragility fracture** (distal radius fracture from a fall from standing height). **Thiazide diuretics** like hydrochlorothiazide reduce urinary calcium excretion and can increase bone mineral density, offering a dual benefit for both hypertension and osteoporosis.
- The **calcium-sparing effect** of thiazide diuretics makes them a preferred choice in hypertensive patients with osteoporosis.
*Furosemide*
- Furosemide is a **loop diuretic** that significantly increases **urinary calcium excretion**, which can worsen osteoporosis.
- It is typically used for conditions requiring more potent diuresis, such as heart failure or severe edema, rather than essential hypertension with osteoporosis.
*Propranolol*
- Propranolol is a **non-selective beta-blocker** that can exacerbate underlying **bronchospasm** in patients with asthma or COPD, though none are mentioned here.
- Beta-blockers do not have a direct beneficial effect on **bone mineral density** or osteoporosis.
*Lisinopril*
- Lisinopril is an **ACE inhibitor** that is effective for hypertension and beneficial in patients with chronic kidney disease or heart failure.
- While effective for hypertension, it does not offer the **calcium-sparing benefits** that are particularly helpful for this patient's concurrent osteoporosis.
*Amlodipine*
- Amlodipine is a **calcium channel blocker** that is effective for hypertension and can be beneficial in patients with angina.
- It does not offer any direct benefits for **bone health** or osteoporosis.