A 65-year-old woman presents with a complaint of a chronic, dry cough of insidious onset since working with her new primary care physician. She has a longstanding history of diabetes mellitus type 2, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. She has a 10 pack-year smoking history, but does not currently smoke. What is the best next step?
Q42
A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. She had a spontaneous abortion 3 months ago. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She reports feeling sad occasionally but has continued working and attending social events. She does not have any suicidal ideation or tendencies. She does not smoke. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination including pelvic examination show no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. She wants to avoid becoming pregnant for the foreseeable future and is started on combined oral contraceptive pills. Which of the following is the patient at risk of developing?
Q43
A 45-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of severe pain in both of her wrist joints and her fingers for the past 24 hours. She has a 6-month history of similar episodes, which are often associated with stiffness for about 90 minutes when she wakes up in the morning. She has hyperlipidemia and hypertension. Two years ago she was diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease, for which she underwent treatment. Current medications include fenofibrate and amlodipine. Vital signs are within normal limits. She is 175 cm (5 ft 9 in) tall and weighs 102 kg (225 lb); BMI is 33 kg/m2. Examination shows swelling and tenderness of the wrists and metacarpophalangeal joints bilaterally. Range of motion is decreased due to pain. There are subcutaneous, nontender, firm, mobile nodules on the extensor surface of the forearm, with the overlying skin appearing normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's current symptoms?
Q44
A previously healthy 45-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He has been having recurrent headaches, especially early in the morning, and sometimes feels dizzy. There is no family history of serious illness. The patient runs 5 miles 3 days a week. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. He is 177 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 72 kg (159 lb); BMI is 23 kg/m2. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 70/min, and blood pressure is 152/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies are within normal limits. Two weeks later, the patient's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg in both arms. He is started on an antihypertensive medication. One month later, physical examination shows 2+ pretibial edema bilaterally. This patient was most likely treated with which of the following medications?
Q45
A 54-year-old African American man presents to the clinic for his first annual well-check. He was unemployed for years but recently received health insurance from a new job. He reports feeling healthy and has no complaints. His blood pressure is 157/90 mmHg, pulse is 86/min, and respirations are 12/min. Routine urinalysis demonstrated a mild increase in albumin and creatinine. What medication is indicated at this time?
Q46
A 27-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to her primary care provider because she has begun to experience color changes in her fingers on both hands in cold temperatures. She reports having had this problem for a few years, but with the weather getting colder this winter she has grown more concerned. She says that when exposed to cold her fingers turn white, blue, and eventually red. When the problem subsides she experiences pain in the affected fingers. She says that wearing gloves helps somewhat, but she continues to experience the problem. Inspection of the digits is negative for ulcerations. Which of the following is the next best step in treatment?
Q47
A 25-year-old woman presents to the psychiatric emergency department in restraints. She was found trying to break into a deli at midnight. The patient claims that she has an idea that will revolutionize the shipping industry. The patient is not violent but seems highly agitated and is speaking very rapidly about her ideas. She is easily distractible and tells you about many of her other ideas. She has a past medical history of depression and hypertension refractory to treatment. Her current medications include captopril, ibuprofen, and melatonin. A neurological exam is deferred due to the patient's current status. Her pulmonary and cardiovascular exams are within normal limits and mild bilateral bruits are heard over her abdomen. The patient is given haloperidol and diphenhydramine and spends the night in the psychiatric inpatient unit. The patient is started on long-term therapy and is discharged 3 days later. At a follow up visit at her primary care physician, the patient is noted to have a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg. She is started on chlorthalidone and instructed to return in 3 days. When the patient returns her blood pressure is 135/90 mmHg. She exhibits a fine tremor, and complains of increased urinary frequency. Her pulse is 47/minute, and she is afebrile. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
Q48
An 11-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother because of teacher complaints regarding his poor performance at school for the past 8 months. He has difficulty sustaining attention when assigned school-related tasks, does not follow the teachers' instructions, and makes careless mistakes in his homework. He often blurts out answers in class and has difficulty adhering to the rules during soccer practice. His mother reports that he is easily distracted when she speaks with him and that he often forgets his books at school. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. The patient is started on the appropriate first-line therapy. This boy is at increased risk for which of the following conditions?
Q49
A patient with a history of hypertension and bipolar disorder is seen in your clinic for new-onset tremor, increased urination, and mild dehydration symptoms. Her bipolar disorder has been well-controlled with her current medication regimen. She recently started a new medication for better management of her hypertension. Which of the following medications did she most likely start?
Q50
Three weeks after starting a new medication for hyperlipidemia, a 54-year-old man comes to the physician because of pain and swelling in his left great toe. Examination shows swelling and erythema over the metatarsophalangeal joint of the toe. Analysis of fluid from the affected joint shows needle-shaped, negatively-birefringent crystals. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the drug he is taking?
Antihypertensives US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: A 65-year-old woman presents with a complaint of a chronic, dry cough of insidious onset since working with her new primary care physician. She has a longstanding history of diabetes mellitus type 2, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. She has a 10 pack-year smoking history, but does not currently smoke. What is the best next step?
A. Spirometry
B. Trial of decongestant and first-generation histamine H1 receptor antagonist
C. Monitor esophageal pH
D. Order chest radiograph
E. Review medication list (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Review medication list***
- A chronic, dry cough of insidious onset in a patient with **hypertension** who recently started seeing a new physician strongly suggests an **ACE inhibitor-induced cough** as the most likely etiology.
- **ACE inhibitors** (e.g., lisinopril, enalapril) cause chronic dry cough in **5-20% of patients** due to accumulation of **bradykinin** and **substance P** in the respiratory tract.
- Reviewing the medication list is the **most appropriate first step** to identify the offending agent before pursuing more invasive or costly workup.
- If an ACE inhibitor is identified, switching to an **angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)** typically resolves the cough within 1-4 weeks.
*Spirometry*
- While spirometry evaluates lung function for conditions like **COPD** or **asthma**, it is less likely to identify the cause of a *new-onset dry cough* in this context without other respiratory symptoms (wheezing, dyspnea).
- The patient's 10 pack-year smoking history is relatively modest, and she is a former smoker.
- This step would be considered after ruling out more common causes like medication side effects.
*Trial of decongestant and first-generation histamine H1 receptor antagonist*
- This treatment targets **post-nasal drip**, which typically presents with a *wet cough* rather than a dry cough.
- There is no mention of rhinorrhea, nasal congestion, or throat clearing to suggest post-nasal drip.
- Using these medications empirically can cause unnecessary **anticholinergic side effects** (confusion, urinary retention, dry mouth) in an elderly patient.
*Monitor esophageal pH*
- **Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)** can cause chronic cough, but this is a *diagnosis of exclusion* after ruling out more common causes.
- GERD-related cough is often accompanied by heartburn, regurgitation, or worse symptoms when lying down.
- Esophageal pH monitoring is **invasive and expensive** and should not be a first-line approach.
*Order chest radiograph*
- A chest X-ray can identify lung pathologies such as **pneumonia**, **masses**, **interstitial lung disease**, or **heart failure**.
- However, a dry cough alone without other concerning features (fever, weight loss, dyspnea, hemoptysis, night sweats) does not immediately warrant imaging as the primary first step.
- Given the temporal relationship with a new physician and the patient's hypertension, **drug-induced cough** is a more likely and easily investigated initial consideration.
Question 42: A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. She had a spontaneous abortion 3 months ago. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She reports feeling sad occasionally but has continued working and attending social events. She does not have any suicidal ideation or tendencies. She does not smoke. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination including pelvic examination show no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. She wants to avoid becoming pregnant for the foreseeable future and is started on combined oral contraceptive pills. Which of the following is the patient at risk of developing?
A. Endometriosis
B. Functional ovarian cysts
C. Acne
D. Hypertension (Correct Answer)
E. Premenstrual syndrome
Explanation: **Hypertension**
- **Combined oral contraceptives (COCs)** can cause a small but significant increase in blood pressure, leading to **hypertension** in some women.
- This risk is dose-dependent and is generally higher with older formulations containing higher estrogen doses.
*Endometriosis*
- **Combined oral contraceptives** are often used as a treatment for **endometriosis** to suppress ovarian activity and reduce endometrial lesions.
- Therefore, COCs typically reduce the risk or symptoms of endometriosis rather than causing it.
*Functional ovarian cysts*
- **Combined oral contraceptives** work by suppressing ovulation, which is the process that leads to the formation of **functional ovarian cysts**.
- As such, COCs actually decrease the incidence of functional ovarian cysts.
*Acne*
- The estrogen component in **combined oral contraceptives** has an anti-androgenic effect, which can reduce sebum production and improve **acne**.
- Many COCs are specifically approved for the treatment of acne, making it an unlikely risk.
*Premenstrual syndrome*
- **Combined oral contraceptives** can help stabilize hormonal fluctuations throughout the menstrual cycle, often leading to an improvement in symptoms of **premenstrual syndrome (PMS)**.
- They are commonly prescribed to manage moderate to severe PMS symptoms.
Question 43: A 45-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of severe pain in both of her wrist joints and her fingers for the past 24 hours. She has a 6-month history of similar episodes, which are often associated with stiffness for about 90 minutes when she wakes up in the morning. She has hyperlipidemia and hypertension. Two years ago she was diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease, for which she underwent treatment. Current medications include fenofibrate and amlodipine. Vital signs are within normal limits. She is 175 cm (5 ft 9 in) tall and weighs 102 kg (225 lb); BMI is 33 kg/m2. Examination shows swelling and tenderness of the wrists and metacarpophalangeal joints bilaterally. Range of motion is decreased due to pain. There are subcutaneous, nontender, firm, mobile nodules on the extensor surface of the forearm, with the overlying skin appearing normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's current symptoms?
A. Prednisolone (Correct Answer)
B. Vitamin D and calcium supplements
C. Methotrexate
D. Sulfasalazine
E. Indomethacin
Explanation: ***Prednisolone***
- This patient presents with an acute flare of what appears to be **rheumatoid arthritis**, characterized by symmetrical polyarticular joint pain, morning stiffness, and subcutaneous nodules. **Glucocorticoids** like prednisolone are highly effective for rapid symptom control in such acute flares.
- While other disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) are used for long-term management, **prednisolone** provides quick anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effects to alleviate severe acute symptoms.
*Vitamin D and calcium supplements*
- These supplements are primarily for **bone health** and are not indicated for the acute management of inflammatory joint pain.
- While important for overall health, especially in postmenopausal women or those on chronic steroid therapy, they will not address the patient's acute arthritis symptoms.
*Methotrexate*
- **Methotrexate** is a cornerstone **disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)** for rheumatoid arthritis, used for long-term control to prevent joint damage.
- However, it has a slow onset of action (weeks to months) and is not suitable for immediate relief of severe acute symptoms.
*Sulfasalazine*
- **Sulfasalazine** is another **DMARD** used in rheumatoid arthritis, particularly for patients who cannot tolerate methotrexate.
- Similar to methotrexate, it has a delayed onset of action and is not appropriate for resolving an acute and severe flare.
*Indomethacin*
- **Indomethacin** is a **nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)** that can reduce pain and inflammation. However, this patient has a history of **peptic ulcer disease**, which is a contraindication for NSAID use due to the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.
- While effective for acute pain, the patient's medical history makes NSAIDs a risky choice and a systemic corticosteroid is a more appropriate and effective intervention for a severe flare.
Question 44: A previously healthy 45-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He has been having recurrent headaches, especially early in the morning, and sometimes feels dizzy. There is no family history of serious illness. The patient runs 5 miles 3 days a week. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. He is 177 cm (5 ft 10 in) tall and weighs 72 kg (159 lb); BMI is 23 kg/m2. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 70/min, and blood pressure is 152/90 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies are within normal limits. Two weeks later, the patient's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg in both arms. He is started on an antihypertensive medication. One month later, physical examination shows 2+ pretibial edema bilaterally. This patient was most likely treated with which of the following medications?
A. Prazosin
B. Losartan
C. Propranolol
D. Amlodipine (Correct Answer)
E. Spironolactone
Explanation: ***Amlodipine***
- **Amlodipine** is a **dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker** known to cause **peripheral edema** (like pretibial edema) as a common side effect due to precapillary vasodilation.
- The patient's blood pressure was elevated, and after starting an antihypertensive medication, he developed new-onset **2+ pretibial edema**, strongly suggesting this class of medication.
*Prazosin*
- **Prazosin** is an **alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist** that can cause orthostatic hypotension or reflex tachycardia but is less commonly associated with significant peripheral edema.
- While it lowers blood pressure, its side effect profile does not typically include prominent pretibial edema.
*Losartan*
- **Losartan** is an **angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)** that works by blocking the effects of angiotensin II. It is generally well-tolerated and less likely to cause peripheral edema compared to calcium channel blockers.
- ARBs like losartan do not cause the same degree of precapillary vasodilation that leads to ankle edema.
*Propranolol*
- **Propranolol** is a **non-selective beta-blocker**. Common side effects include bradycardia, fatigue, and bronchospasm, but not typically peripheral edema.
- Beta-blockers primarily reduce heart rate and contractility, and do not cause vasodilation leading to pretibial edema.
*Spironolactone*
- **Spironolactone** is a **potassium-sparing diuretic** used for hypertension, but also in conditions like heart failure and cirrhosis to reduce fluid retention. It is more likely to cause diuresis and reduce edema, not cause it.
- Side effects include hyperkalemia and gynecomastia, but not peripheral edema, as its primary action is to eliminate excess fluid.
Question 45: A 54-year-old African American man presents to the clinic for his first annual well-check. He was unemployed for years but recently received health insurance from a new job. He reports feeling healthy and has no complaints. His blood pressure is 157/90 mmHg, pulse is 86/min, and respirations are 12/min. Routine urinalysis demonstrated a mild increase in albumin and creatinine. What medication is indicated at this time?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Metoprolol
C. Furosemide
D. Lisinopril (Correct Answer)
E. Amlodipine
Explanation: ***Lisinopril***
- This patient presents with **hypertension (157/90 mmHg)** and **mild albuminuria with elevated creatinine**, indicating early chronic kidney disease (CKD). An **ACE inhibitor (e.g., lisinopril)** is the first-line treatment for hypertension in **any patient with CKD or proteinuria**, regardless of race or ethnicity.
- ACE inhibitors are **renoprotective** by reducing intraglomerular pressure and slowing progression of kidney disease. The presence of albuminuria represents a **compelling indication** that overrides other considerations for initial antihypertensive selection.
- Note: While ACE inhibitors are typically **less effective** as monotherapy in African Americans without compelling indications, the presence of CKD/proteinuria makes them the preferred agent.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- While a **thiazide diuretic** like hydrochlorothiazide would be an appropriate first-line agent for this African American patient with uncomplicated hypertension, it is **less effective** than an ACE inhibitor in patients with **proteinuria or kidney disease**.
- It does not offer the same degree of **renoprotection** as an ACE inhibitor in this clinical scenario with documented albuminuria.
*Metoprolol*
- **Beta-blockers** like metoprolol are effective antihypertensives but are generally **not considered first-line** for uncomplicated hypertension unless there are compelling indications like heart failure, angina, or history of myocardial infarction.
- They also do not provide the specific **renoprotective benefits** seen with ACE inhibitors in patients with albuminuria.
*Furosemide*
- **Loop diuretics** such as furosemide are potent diuretics primarily used for managing **symptoms of fluid overload** (e.g., heart failure, severe edema) and are not typically the first choice for chronic hypertension without such indications.
- For patients with **mild kidney impairment and hypertension without volume overload**, an ACE inhibitor is preferred for its renoprotective effects.
*Amlodipine*
- **Calcium channel blockers** like amlodipine are effective antihypertensives and would typically be an excellent first-line choice for an African American patient with hypertension.
- However, for this patient with **documented albuminuria**, an ACE inhibitor is preferred due to its **specific renoprotective effects** and proven benefit in slowing CKD progression, which amlodipine does not provide.
Question 46: A 27-year-old woman with no past medical history presents to her primary care provider because she has begun to experience color changes in her fingers on both hands in cold temperatures. She reports having had this problem for a few years, but with the weather getting colder this winter she has grown more concerned. She says that when exposed to cold her fingers turn white, blue, and eventually red. When the problem subsides she experiences pain in the affected fingers. She says that wearing gloves helps somewhat, but she continues to experience the problem. Inspection of the digits is negative for ulcerations. Which of the following is the next best step in treatment?
A. Amlodipine (Correct Answer)
B. Thoracic sympathectomy
C. Phenylephrine
D. Propranolol
E. Sildenafil
Explanation: ***Amlodipine***
- This patient exhibits classic symptoms of **Raynaud's phenomenon**, characterized by color changes (white, blue, red) in the digits upon cold exposure, followed by pain.
- **Calcium channel blockers** like **amlodipine** are the first-line pharmacologic treatment for Raynaud's, working by dilating peripheral arteries to improve blood flow.
*Thoracic sympathectomy*
- **Sympathectomy** is a surgical intervention reserved for **severe cases** of Raynaud's phenomenon that are refractory to medical therapy, especially when there is evidence of impending **ischemic damage** (e.g., ulcerations).
- This patient currently has a mild presentation without ulcerations, making surgery an overly aggressive initial treatment.
*Phenylephrine*
- **Phenylephrine** is an **alpha-1 adrenergic agonist** that causes **vasoconstriction**, primarily used as a decongestant or to raise blood pressure in hypotensive states.
- Administering a vasoconstrictor would **worsen** Raynaud's symptoms by further reducing blood flow to the digits.
*Propranolol*
- **Propranolol** is a **beta-blocker** that can potentially **worsen Raynaud's phenomenon** by causing unopposed alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction, especially with non-selective agents.
- Beta-blockers are generally contraindicated in patients with Raynaud's, or should be used with extreme caution if absolutely necessary for another condition.
*Sildenafil*
- While **sildenafil** (a **phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor**) can cause vasodilation and has been used off-label for severe Raynaud's, it is typically considered a **second-line or adjunctive treatment** for refractory cases.
- **Calcium channel blockers** are the preferred initial pharmacologic therapy due to their proven efficacy and broader availability.
Question 47: A 25-year-old woman presents to the psychiatric emergency department in restraints. She was found trying to break into a deli at midnight. The patient claims that she has an idea that will revolutionize the shipping industry. The patient is not violent but seems highly agitated and is speaking very rapidly about her ideas. She is easily distractible and tells you about many of her other ideas. She has a past medical history of depression and hypertension refractory to treatment. Her current medications include captopril, ibuprofen, and melatonin. A neurological exam is deferred due to the patient's current status. Her pulmonary and cardiovascular exams are within normal limits and mild bilateral bruits are heard over her abdomen. The patient is given haloperidol and diphenhydramine and spends the night in the psychiatric inpatient unit. The patient is started on long-term therapy and is discharged 3 days later. At a follow up visit at her primary care physician, the patient is noted to have a blood pressure of 150/100 mmHg. She is started on chlorthalidone and instructed to return in 3 days. When the patient returns her blood pressure is 135/90 mmHg. She exhibits a fine tremor, and complains of increased urinary frequency. Her pulse is 47/minute, and she is afebrile. Which of the following is the best next step in management?
A. Ultrasound of the renal arteries (Correct Answer)
B. Maintain current medication regimen
C. Increase captopril dose
D. Change diuretics
E. Increase chlorthalidone dose
Explanation: ***Ultrasound of the renal arteries***
- The presence of **bilateral abdominal bruits** and **refractory hypertension** in a young woman despite multiple medications (captopril, chlorthalidone) strongly suggests **renovascular hypertension**, likely due to **fibromuscular dysplasia**.
- **Renal artery stenosis** is an important cause of secondary hypertension that requires investigation. Ultrasound of the renal arteries is the appropriate first-line non-invasive investigation to assess for renal artery stenosis.
- While the new symptoms (tremor, bradycardia, polyuria) are concerning for **lithium side effects** or toxicity (likely the "long-term therapy" started for bipolar disorder), potentially exacerbated by the thiazide diuretic chlorthalidone, the underlying **secondary hypertension must still be evaluated** to optimize long-term management.
- Among the available options, investigating the cause of refractory hypertension is the priority.
*Maintain current medication regimen*
- The patient's blood pressure remains suboptimally controlled at 135/90 mmHg.
- Furthermore, the new symptoms (tremor, bradycardia, increased urinary frequency) suggest possible medication side effects that require investigation, not simply maintenance of the current regimen.
*Increase captopril dose*
- Increasing the dose of an **ACE inhibitor** (captopril) in a patient with suspected **bilateral renal artery stenosis** can lead to acute kidney injury due to critical reduction in glomerular filtration pressure.
- This would not address the underlying cause of secondary hypertension or the new symptoms.
*Change diuretics*
- While simply changing diuretics does not address the strong clinical suspicion for **renovascular hypertension** indicated by bilateral abdominal bruits in a young patient with refractory hypertension.
- The underlying secondary cause must be investigated first before making empiric medication changes.
*Increase chlorthalidone dose*
- Increasing the thiazide dose might marginally lower blood pressure but does not address the potential underlying **renovascular hypertension**.
- Additionally, thiazide diuretics can **increase lithium levels** by reducing renal clearance, and increasing the dose could worsen potential lithium toxicity (explaining the tremor, bradycardia, and polyuria).
Question 48: An 11-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother because of teacher complaints regarding his poor performance at school for the past 8 months. He has difficulty sustaining attention when assigned school-related tasks, does not follow the teachers' instructions, and makes careless mistakes in his homework. He often blurts out answers in class and has difficulty adhering to the rules during soccer practice. His mother reports that he is easily distracted when she speaks with him and that he often forgets his books at school. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. The patient is started on the appropriate first-line therapy. This boy is at increased risk for which of the following conditions?
A. Elevated blood pressure (Correct Answer)
B. Serotonin syndrome
C. Increased BMI
D. Prolonged QT interval
E. Decreased perspiration
Explanation: ***Elevated blood pressure***
- This boy's symptoms are highly suggestive of **ADHD** (Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder), which is commonly treated with **stimulant medications** like methylphenidate or amphetamines.
- Stimulants can cause **cardiovascular side effects**, including **elevated blood pressure** and heart rate, warranting regular monitoring.
*Serotonin syndrome*
- **Serotonin syndrome** is a risk associated with medications that increase serotonin levels, such as **SSRIs** or MAO inhibitors, which are not typically first-line for ADHD.
- Characterized by altered mental status, autonomic dysfunction, and neuromuscular abnormalities, symptoms not directly caused by stimulant therapy.
*Increased BMI*
- Medications for ADHD, particularly stimulants, are more commonly associated with **decreased appetite** and **weight loss**, not an increased BMI.
- **Appetite suppression** leading to difficulty gaining weight is a known side effect in children taking these medications.
*Prolonged QT interval*
- While some psychiatric medications can prolong the QT interval (e.g., certain antipsychotics or TCAs), **stimulants** used for ADHD are generally not a primary cause of this.
- **ECG monitoring** may be considered for patients with pre-existing cardiac conditions, but it's not a common direct side effect for healthy individuals on stimulants.
*Decreased perspiration*
- Stimulant medications for ADHD can sometimes lead to **increased sweating** (hyperhidrosis) as a side effect, rather than decreased perspiration.
- **Autonomic nervous system changes** due to stimulants can include enhanced sympathetic activity, which can manifest as increased sweating.
Question 49: A patient with a history of hypertension and bipolar disorder is seen in your clinic for new-onset tremor, increased urination, and mild dehydration symptoms. Her bipolar disorder has been well-controlled with her current medication regimen. She recently started a new medication for better management of her hypertension. Which of the following medications did she most likely start?
A. Amlodipine
B. Lisinopril
C. Hydrochlorothiazide (Correct Answer)
D. Furosemide
E. Metoprolol
Explanation: ***Hydrochlorothiazide***
- **Thiazide diuretics** are first-line antihypertensive agents that promote **sodium and water excretion**.
- Volume depletion from thiazides **decreases renal lithium clearance**, increasing serum lithium levels and causing **lithium toxicity**.
- Classic lithium toxicity presents with **tremor, polyuria (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus), polydipsia**, and dehydration.
- This represents a critical **drug-drug interaction** between thiazides and lithium.
*Incorrect: Amlodipine*
- **Calcium channel blocker** (dihydropyridine class) commonly used for hypertension.
- Does **not affect lithium levels** or renal clearance.
- Side effects include peripheral edema and reflex tachycardia, not the symptoms described.
*Incorrect: Lisinopril*
- **ACE inhibitor** used as first-line therapy for hypertension.
- Does **not significantly affect lithium clearance** (though ACE inhibitors can have minor effects, they don't typically cause clinically significant lithium toxicity).
- Common side effects include dry cough and hyperkalemia, not tremor or polyuria.
*Incorrect: Furosemide*
- **Loop diuretic** that can cause dehydration and polyuria.
- Could potentially increase lithium levels through volume depletion, but **thiazides are more commonly implicated** in lithium toxicity.
- Furosemide is typically reserved for **resistant hypertension or heart failure**, not as initial therapy.
*Incorrect: Metoprolol*
- **Beta-blocker** used for hypertension management.
- Does **not affect lithium levels** or cause the described symptoms.
- Side effects include bradycardia, fatigue, and bronchospasm in susceptible patients.
Question 50: Three weeks after starting a new medication for hyperlipidemia, a 54-year-old man comes to the physician because of pain and swelling in his left great toe. Examination shows swelling and erythema over the metatarsophalangeal joint of the toe. Analysis of fluid from the affected joint shows needle-shaped, negatively-birefringent crystals. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of the drug he is taking?
A. Promotion of hepatic LDL secretion
B. Inhibition of hepatic HMG-CoA reductase
C. Inhibition of intestinal cholesterol absorption
D. Inhibition of intestinal bile acid absorption
E. Inhibition of hepatic VLDL synthesis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Inhibition of hepatic VLDL synthesis***
- The patient's symptoms (pain, swelling in the great toe, negatively-birefringent crystals) are classic for **gout**.
- **Fibrates** (e.g., gemfibrozil, fenofibrate) are a class of hyperlipidemia medications known to cause hyperuricemia and precipitate gout by inhibiting hepatic VLDL synthesis and increasing catabolism of triglyceride-rich lipoproteins.
*Promotion of hepatic LDL secretion*
- Medications that promote hepatic LDL secretion are not a primary class of lipid-lowering drugs and are not directly associated with precipitating gout.
- The primary goal in hyperlipidemia management is usually to reduce LDL levels, not increase secretion.
*Inhibition of hepatic HMG-CoA reductase*
- This describes the mechanism of action of **statins**, which are generally not associated with triggering gout and can even have some anti-inflammatory effects.
- Statins primarily lower LDL cholesterol by reducing mevalonate synthesis, a precursor to cholesterol.
*Inhibition of intestinal cholesterol absorption*
- This is the mechanism of action of **ezetimibe**, which specifically blocks the **Niemann-Pick C1-like 1 (NPC1L1)** transporter in the small intestine.
- Ezetimibe is not commonly associated with new-onset gout.
*Inhibition of intestinal bile acid absorption*
- This describes the mechanism of **bile acid sequestrants** (e.g., cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevelam), which bind bile acids in the intestine, preventing their reabsorption.
- While they can have various side effects, they are not typically linked to causing gout.