A 63-year-old man with high blood pressure, dyslipidemia, and diabetes presents to the clinic for routine follow-up. He has no current complaints and has been compliant with his chronic medications. His blood pressure is 132/87 mm Hg and his pulse is 75/min and regular. On physical examination, you notice that he has xanthelasmas on both of his eyelids. He currently uses a statin to lower his LDL but has not reached the LDL goal you have set for him. You would like to add an additional medication for LDL control. Of the following, which statement regarding fibrates is true?
Q132
A 30-year-old man comes to the physician after receiving a high blood pressure reading of 160/90 mm Hg at an annual employee health check-up. During the past few months, the patient has had occasional headaches and mild abdominal pain, both of which were relieved with ibuprofen. He has also had several episodes of heart palpitations. He has no history of serious illness. His mother and father both have hypertension. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years and drinks one glass of wine daily. He occasionally smokes marijuana. He appears pale. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse is 103/min, and blood pressure is 164/102 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 15.3 g/dL
Leukocyte count 7,900/mm3
Platelet count 223,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 138 mEq/L
K+ 4.6 mEq/L
Cl- 103 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 14 mg/dL
Glucose 90 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
Plasma metanephrines 1.2 nmol/L (N < 0.5 nmol/L)
Urine toxicology screening is positive for tetrahydrocannabinol (THC). Renal doppler shows no abnormalities. A CT scan of the abdomen shows a mass in the left adrenal gland. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
Q133
A 44-year-old woman presents with increased thirst and frequent urination that started 6 months ago and have progressively worsened. Recently, she also notes occasional edema of the face. She has no significant past medical history or current medications. The patient is afebrile and the rest of the vital signs include: blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 61/min, respiratory rate is 14/min, and temperature is 36.6°C (97.8°F). The BMI is 35.2 kg/m2. On physical exam, there is 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities and 1+ edema in the face. There is generalized increased deposition of adipose tissue present that is worse in the posterior neck, upper back, and shoulders. There is hyperpigmentation of the axilla and inguinal areas. The laboratory tests show the following findings:
Blood
Erythrocyte count 4.1 million/mm3
Hgb 12.9 mg/dL
Leukocyte count 7,200/mm3
Platelet count 167,000/mm3
Fasting blood glucose 141 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L)
Creatinine 1.23 mg/dL (108.7 µmol/L)
Urea nitrogen 19 mg/dL (6.78 mmol/L)
Urine dipstick
Glucose +++
Protein ++
Bacteria Negative
The 24-hour urine protein is 0.36 g. Which of the following medications is the best treatment for this patient’s condition?
Q134
A 61-year-old obese man with recently diagnosed hypertension returns to his primary care provider for a follow-up appointment and blood pressure check. He reports feeling well with no changes since starting his new blood pressure medication 1 week ago. His past medical history is noncontributory. Besides his blood pressure medication, he takes atorvastatin and a daily multivitamin. The patient reports a 25-pack-year smoking history and is a social drinker on weekends. Today his physical exam is normal. Vital signs and laboratory results are provided in the table.
Laboratory test
2 weeks ago Today
Blood pressure 159/87 mm Hg Blood pressure 164/90 mm Hg
Heart rate 90/min Heart rate 92/min
Sodium 140 mE/L Sodium 142 mE/L
Potassium 3.1 mE/L Potassium 4.3 mE/L
Chloride 105 mE/L Chloride 103 mE/L
Carbon dioxide 23 mE/L Carbon dioxide 22 mE/L
BUN 15 mg/dL BUN 22 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.80 mg/dL Creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) shows a bilateral narrowing of renal arteries. Which of the following is most likely this patient's new medication that caused his acute renal failure?
Q135
A 68-year-old man with hypertension comes to the physician because of fatigue and difficulty initiating urination. He wakes up several times a night to urinate. He does not take any medications. His blood pressure is 166/82 mm Hg. Digital rectal examination shows a firm, non-tender, and uniformly enlarged prostate. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Q136
A 65-year-old African-American man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination after presenting with elevated blood pressure readings during his last visit. He has no history of major medical illness and takes no medications. He is 180 cm (5 ft 9 in) tall and weighs 68 kg (150 lb); BMI is 22 kg/m2. His pulse is 80/min and blood pressure is 155/90 mm Hg. Laboratory studies show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy for this patient?
Q137
An 11-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with muscle cramps and fatigue that have progressively worsened over the past year. His mom says that he has always had occasional symptoms including abdominal pain, muscle weakness, and mild paresthesias; however, since starting middle school these symptoms have started interfering with his daily activities. In addition, the boy complains that he has been needing to use the restroom a lot, which is annoying since he has to ask for permission to leave class every time. Labs are obtained showing hypokalemia, hypochloremia, metabolic alkalosis, hypomagnesemia, and hypocalciuria. The most likely cause of this patient's symptoms involves a protein that binds which of the following drugs?
Q138
A 66-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with lower extremity pain. She reports that she has had worsening pain in her left calf over the past year while walking. The pain improves with rest, but the patient notes that she now has to stop walking more frequently than in the past to relieve the pain. The patient’s past medical history is otherwise notable for hypertension and coronary artery disease. Her home medications include hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril. Her family history is significant for diabetes mellitus in her father. On physical exam, her left lower extremity is slightly cool to the touch with palpable distal pulses. The skin of the left lower extremity appears smooth and shiny below the mid-calf. Laboratory testing is performed and reveals the following:
Serum:
High-density lipoprotein (HDL): 60 mg/dL
Low-density lipoprotein (LDL): 96 mg/dL
Triglycerides: 140 mg/dL
This patient should be started on which of the following medication regimens?
Q139
A 53-year-old man seeks evaluation from his physician with concerns about his blood pressure. He was recently told at a local health fair that he has high blood pressure. He has not seen a physician since leaving college because he never felt the need for medical attention. Although he feels fine, he is concerned because his father had hypertension and died due to a heart attack at 61 years of age. He does not smoke cigarettes but drinks alcohol occasionally. The blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg today. The physical examination is unremarkable. Labs are ordered and he is asked to monitor his blood pressure at home before the follow-up visit. Two weeks later, the blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. The blood pressure measurements at home ranged from 130/90 to 155/95 mm Hg. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal. Lab tests show the following:
Serum glucose (fasting) 88 mg/dL
Serum electrolytes:
Sodium 142 mEq/L
Potassium 3.9 mEq/L
Chloride 101 mEq/L
Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen 10 mg/dL
Cholesterol, total 250 mg/dL
HDL-cholesterol 35 mg/dL
LDL-cholesterol 186 mg/dL
Triglycerides 250 mg/dL
Urinalysis:
Glucose negative
Ketones negative
Leucocytes negative
Nitrite negative
RBC negative
Casts negative
Regular exercise and a 'heart healthy diet' are advised. He is started on lisinopril for hypertension. Which of the following medications should be added to this patient?
Q140
A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care provider with increased urinary frequency. Over the past 3 months, he has been urinating 2-3 times more often than usual. He has started to feel dehydrated and has increased his water intake to compensate. He works as a bank teller. He has a 25-pack-year smoking history and drinks 8-10 beers per week. His temperature is 98°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 114/68 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 18/min. Capillary refill is 3 seconds. His mucous membranes appear dry. The patient is instructed to hold all water intake. Urine specific gravity is 1.002 after 12 hours of water deprivation. The patient is given desmopressin but his urine specific gravity remains relatively unchanged. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic treatment for this patient's condition?
Antihypertensives US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: A 63-year-old man with high blood pressure, dyslipidemia, and diabetes presents to the clinic for routine follow-up. He has no current complaints and has been compliant with his chronic medications. His blood pressure is 132/87 mm Hg and his pulse is 75/min and regular. On physical examination, you notice that he has xanthelasmas on both of his eyelids. He currently uses a statin to lower his LDL but has not reached the LDL goal you have set for him. You would like to add an additional medication for LDL control. Of the following, which statement regarding fibrates is true?
A. Fibrates inhibit the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis
B. Fibrates can potentiate the risk of myositis when given with statins (Correct Answer)
C. Fibrates can cause significant skin flushing and pruritus
D. Fibrates can increase the risk of cataracts
E. The primary effect of fibrates is to lower LDL
Explanation: ***Fibrates can potentiate the risk of myositis when given with statins***
- **Fibrates** and **statins** can both independently cause muscle toxicity (myopathy, rhabdomyolysis).
- When used concomitantly, especially **gemfibrozil** with statins, there is an **increased risk of muscle adverse events** due to pharmacokinetic interactions that raise statin levels.
- This combination requires careful monitoring and is often avoided; **fenofibrate** is preferred over gemfibrozil when combination therapy is needed.
*Fibrates inhibit the rate-limiting step in cholesterol synthesis*
- This statement describes the mechanism of action of **statins**, which inhibit **HMG-CoA reductase**, the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis.
- Fibrates, on the other hand, act primarily by activating **PPAR-alpha receptors**, leading to altered lipid metabolism (increased lipoprotein lipase activity, decreased VLDL synthesis).
*Fibrates can cause significant skin flushing and pruritus*
- **Niacin (nicotinic acid)** is the lipid-modifying agent most commonly associated with significant **skin flushing and pruritus**, mediated by prostaglandin release.
- Fibrates do not cause significant flushing; their side effects include GI disturbances, gallstones, and potential muscle toxicity.
*Fibrates can increase the risk of cataracts*
- This is **not an established adverse effect** of the fibrate class.
- While **clofibrate** (an older, largely discontinued fibrate) showed some association with cataracts in older studies, this is not a recognized risk with modern fibrates like **fenofibrate** and **gemfibrozil**.
- Current fibrate therapy does not require routine ophthalmologic monitoring for cataracts.
*The primary effect of fibrates is to lower LDL*
- The primary effect of **fibrates** is to significantly **lower triglycerides** (by 30-50%) and **increase HDL cholesterol** levels (by 10-20%).
- While they can cause a modest decrease in LDL cholesterol (10-15%), this is not their primary or most pronounced lipid-modifying effect.
- Fibrates are primarily indicated for **hypertriglyceridemia** and mixed dyslipidemia.
Question 132: A 30-year-old man comes to the physician after receiving a high blood pressure reading of 160/90 mm Hg at an annual employee health check-up. During the past few months, the patient has had occasional headaches and mild abdominal pain, both of which were relieved with ibuprofen. He has also had several episodes of heart palpitations. He has no history of serious illness. His mother and father both have hypertension. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the past 10 years and drinks one glass of wine daily. He occasionally smokes marijuana. He appears pale. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse is 103/min, and blood pressure is 164/102 mm Hg. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 15.3 g/dL
Leukocyte count 7,900/mm3
Platelet count 223,000/mm3
Serum
Na+ 138 mEq/L
K+ 4.6 mEq/L
Cl- 103 mEq/L
Urea nitrogen 14 mg/dL
Glucose 90 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
Plasma metanephrines 1.2 nmol/L (N < 0.5 nmol/L)
Urine toxicology screening is positive for tetrahydrocannabinol (THC). Renal doppler shows no abnormalities. A CT scan of the abdomen shows a mass in the left adrenal gland. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A. Resection of adrenal mass
B. Phenoxybenzamine (Correct Answer)
C. Propranolol
D. Metoprolol
E. MIBG therapy
Explanation: ***Phenoxybenzamine***
- The patient's presentation with **hypertension**, **palpitations**, and significantly elevated **plasma metanephrines** (1.2 nmol/L vs. normal < 0.5 nmol/L), along with an **adrenal mass**, strongly suggests a **pheochromocytoma**.
- **Alpha-blockade** with phenoxybenzamine is the crucial first step to control blood pressure and prevent a **hypertensive crisis** during subsequent surgical resection.
*Resection of adrenal mass*
- While surgical resection is the **definitive treatment** for pheochromocytoma, it should **not be performed before adequate alpha-blockade**.
- **Unprepared surgery** can lead to a fatal hypertensive crisis due to uncontrolled catecholamine release during manipulation of the tumor.
*Propranolol*
- Propranolol is a **non-selective beta-blocker** and should **not be initiated before alpha-blockade** in pheochromocytoma.
- Blocking beta-adrenergic receptors can lead to **unopposed alpha-adrenergic vasoconstriction**, potentially worsening hypertension and causing a crisis.
*Metoprolol*
- Metoprolol is a **selective beta-1 blocker** and, like other beta-blockers, should **not be used before alpha-blockade** in pheochromocytoma.
- While it may have fewer peripheral vasoconstrictive effects than non-selective beta-blockers, the risk of unopposed alpha-stimulation remains significant.
*MIBG therapy*
- **Metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) therapy** is a form of **radiotherapy** used for metastatic or inoperable pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma.
- It is **not the initial management** for a resectable adrenal mass in a patient with a newly diagnosed pheochromocytoma.
Question 133: A 44-year-old woman presents with increased thirst and frequent urination that started 6 months ago and have progressively worsened. Recently, she also notes occasional edema of the face. She has no significant past medical history or current medications. The patient is afebrile and the rest of the vital signs include: blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 61/min, respiratory rate is 14/min, and temperature is 36.6°C (97.8°F). The BMI is 35.2 kg/m2. On physical exam, there is 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities and 1+ edema in the face. There is generalized increased deposition of adipose tissue present that is worse in the posterior neck, upper back, and shoulders. There is hyperpigmentation of the axilla and inguinal areas. The laboratory tests show the following findings:
Blood
Erythrocyte count 4.1 million/mm3
Hgb 12.9 mg/dL
Leukocyte count 7,200/mm3
Platelet count 167,000/mm3
Fasting blood glucose 141 mg/dL (7.8 mmol/L)
Creatinine 1.23 mg/dL (108.7 µmol/L)
Urea nitrogen 19 mg/dL (6.78 mmol/L)
Urine dipstick
Glucose +++
Protein ++
Bacteria Negative
The 24-hour urine protein is 0.36 g. Which of the following medications is the best treatment for this patient’s condition?
A. Metoprolol
B. Insulin
C. Enalapril (Correct Answer)
D. Furosemide
E. Mannitol
Explanation: ***Enalapril***
- This patient presents with signs of **Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus (T2DM)** (BMI 35.2, fasting blood glucose 141 mg/dL, hyperpigmentation of axilla/inguinal areas suggesting **acanthosis nigricans**) and **diabetic nephropathy** (proteinuria 0.36g/24h, progressively worsening edema, elevated creatinine). **ACE inhibitors** like enalapril are first-line for managing proteinuria and slowing the progression of diabetic nephropathy, even in patients with normal blood pressure.
- Enalapril helps reduce **glomerular pressure** and **proteinuria**, which is crucial for kidney protection in diabetes.
*Metoprolol*
- Metoprolol is a **beta-blocker** primarily used for hypertension, angina, and heart failure.
- While it can be used in patients with diabetes, it does not directly address the **proteinuria** or provide renal protection in the same way an ACE inhibitor does.
*Insulin*
- While the patient has elevated fasting blood glucose, indicating **diabetes**, insulin is typically reserved for patients who fail oral hypoglycemic agents or have significantly higher glucose levels, or Type 1 Diabetes.
- In this case, the primary concern requiring immediate targeted treatment is the **proteinuria and early diabetic nephropathy**, which insulin won't directly treat.
*Furosemide*
- Furosemide is a **loop diuretic** used to treat **edema** and fluid overload.
- Although the patient has edema, furosemide would only treat the symptom and not the underlying cause of the **diabetic nephropathy** or provide specific renal protection.
*Mannitol*
- Mannitol is an **osmotic diuretic** primarily used to decrease intracranial pressure or intraocular pressure.
- It is not indicated for chronic management of **edema** or **diabetic nephropathy**.
Question 134: A 61-year-old obese man with recently diagnosed hypertension returns to his primary care provider for a follow-up appointment and blood pressure check. He reports feeling well with no changes since starting his new blood pressure medication 1 week ago. His past medical history is noncontributory. Besides his blood pressure medication, he takes atorvastatin and a daily multivitamin. The patient reports a 25-pack-year smoking history and is a social drinker on weekends. Today his physical exam is normal. Vital signs and laboratory results are provided in the table.
Laboratory test
2 weeks ago Today
Blood pressure 159/87 mm Hg Blood pressure 164/90 mm Hg
Heart rate 90/min Heart rate 92/min
Sodium 140 mE/L Sodium 142 mE/L
Potassium 3.1 mE/L Potassium 4.3 mE/L
Chloride 105 mE/L Chloride 103 mE/L
Carbon dioxide 23 mE/L Carbon dioxide 22 mE/L
BUN 15 mg/dL BUN 22 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.80 mg/dL Creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) shows a bilateral narrowing of renal arteries. Which of the following is most likely this patient's new medication that caused his acute renal failure?
A. Clonidine
B. Verapamil
C. Hydralazine
D. Captopril (Correct Answer)
E. Hydrochlorothiazide
Explanation: ***Captopril***
- The patient has **bilateral renal artery stenosis** and develops **acute renal failure** after starting a new blood pressure medication. **ACE inhibitors** (like captopril) and **angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)** are nephrotoxic in such patients.
- In bilateral renal artery stenosis, the kidneys rely on **angiotensin II** to constrict the efferent arterioles, maintaining **glomerular filtration pressure**. ACE inhibitors block angiotensin II production, leading to a significant drop in glomerular filtration and acute kidney injury.
*Clonidine*
- Clonidine is an **alpha-2 adrenergic agonist** that lowers blood pressure by reducing sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system.
- It is **not directly nephrotoxic** and would not typically cause acute renal failure, especially in the context of renal artery stenosis.
*Verapamil*
- Verapamil is a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker** that reduces heart rate and blood pressure.
- While it can affect renal hemodynamics, it does not typically cause **acute renal failure** or have a contraindication in bilateral renal artery stenosis like ACE inhibitors.
*Hydralazine*
- Hydralazine is a **direct arterial vasodilator** that lowers blood pressure.
- It is **not associated with acute renal failure** in the setting of renal artery stenosis and would not acutely worsen kidney function.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- Hydrochlorothiazide is a **thiazide diuretic** that lowers blood pressure by increasing sodium and water excretion.
- While it can cause **prerenal azotemia** due to volume depletion, it does not directly lead to the severe acute renal failure seen with ACE inhibitors in bilateral renal artery stenosis.
Question 135: A 68-year-old man with hypertension comes to the physician because of fatigue and difficulty initiating urination. He wakes up several times a night to urinate. He does not take any medications. His blood pressure is 166/82 mm Hg. Digital rectal examination shows a firm, non-tender, and uniformly enlarged prostate. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Finasteride
B. α-Methyldopa
C. Phenoxybenzamine
D. Terazosin (Correct Answer)
E. Tamsulosin
Explanation: ***Terazosin***
- **Terazosin** is an alpha-1 blocker that relaxes the smooth muscles in the prostate and bladder neck, improving urine flow and relieving symptoms of **benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)**.
- It also has the added benefit of lowering blood pressure, making it suitable for this patient with both **BPH** and **hypertension**.
*Finasteride*
- **Finasteride** is a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor that reduces prostate volume by inhibiting the conversion of testosterone to **dihydrotestosterone (DHT)**.
- While effective for **BPH**, it takes longer to show benefits (6-12 months) and does not address the patient's **hypertension**.
*α-Methyldopa*
- **α-Methyldopa** is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used to treat **hypertension**, particularly in pregnancy.
- It does not have a direct effect on prostate smooth muscle and would not alleviate the patient's urinary symptoms.
*Phenoxybenzamine*
- **Phenoxybenzamine** is a non-selective, irreversible alpha-adrenergic blocker primarily used for **pheochromocytoma** to control blood pressure.
- Its non-selective nature and side effect profile make it less suitable for chronic management of **BPH** and **hypertension** compared to selective alpha-1 blockers.
*Tamsulosin*
- **Tamsulosin** is a selective alpha-1A adrenergic blocker that specifically targets the prostate, rapidly improving **BPH** symptoms with less effect on blood pressure.
- While it effectively treats **BPH**, unlike terazosin, it does not offer the additional advantage of lowering the patient's elevated blood pressure.
Question 136: A 65-year-old African-American man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination after presenting with elevated blood pressure readings during his last visit. He has no history of major medical illness and takes no medications. He is 180 cm (5 ft 9 in) tall and weighs 68 kg (150 lb); BMI is 22 kg/m2. His pulse is 80/min and blood pressure is 155/90 mm Hg. Laboratory studies show no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A. Chlorthalidone (Correct Answer)
B. Captopril
C. Metoprolol
D. Valsartan
E. Aliskiren
Explanation: ***Chlorthalidone***
- **Thiazide diuretics** (like chlorthalidone) are recommended as **first-line agents** for hypertension in most patients, and particularly for African-American patients, due to their superior efficacy and cardiovascular outcome benefits.
- This patient has uncomplicated hypertension, normal BMI, and no comorbidities, making a thiazide diuretic an appropriate initial choice.
*Captopril*
- **ACE inhibitors** (like captopril) are first-line agents but are generally less effective as monotherapy in African-American patients compared to thiazide diuretics or calcium channel blockers.
- While useful in conditions like diabetes or chronic kidney disease, which this patient does not have, its use as an initial standalone therapy in this demographic is not preferred.
*Metoprolol*
- **Beta-blockers** (like metoprolol) are not recommended as first-line therapy for uncomplicated hypertension unless there are specific compelling indications (e.g., angina, post-myocardial infarction).
- Their efficacy in preventing cardiovascular events as monotherapy in uncomplicated hypertension is generally inferior to other first-line agents.
*Valsartan*
- **ARBs** (like valsartan) are similar to ACE inhibitors in their efficacy and are generally less effective as monotherapy in African-American patients without compelling indications.
- They are often chosen for patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors due to cough, but this patient has no such indications.
*Aliskiren*
- **Direct renin inhibitors** (like aliskiren) are not considered first-line therapy for hypertension and are generally reserved for specific cases or when other first-line agents are not sufficient or contraindicated.
- They have not demonstrated superior outcomes compared to other established antihypertensive agents that would warrant their initial use.
Question 137: An 11-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with muscle cramps and fatigue that have progressively worsened over the past year. His mom says that he has always had occasional symptoms including abdominal pain, muscle weakness, and mild paresthesias; however, since starting middle school these symptoms have started interfering with his daily activities. In addition, the boy complains that he has been needing to use the restroom a lot, which is annoying since he has to ask for permission to leave class every time. Labs are obtained showing hypokalemia, hypochloremia, metabolic alkalosis, hypomagnesemia, and hypocalciuria. The most likely cause of this patient's symptoms involves a protein that binds which of the following drugs?
A. Furosemide
B. Mannitol
C. Spironolactone
D. Amiloride
E. Hydrochlorothiazide (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hydrochlorothiazide***
- This patient's symptoms (muscle cramps, fatigue, polyuria, abdominal pain, muscle weakness) along with lab findings (hypokalemia, hypochloremia, metabolic alkalosis, hypomagnesemia, hypocalciuria) are classic for **Gitelman syndrome**.
- Gitelman syndrome is caused by a defect in the **thiazide-sensitive NaCl co-transporter (NCC)** in the distal convoluted tubule, which is the target of **thiazide diuretics** like hydrochlorothiazide.
*Furosemide*
- Furosemide is a **loop diuretic** that acts on the **Na-K-2Cl co-transporter (NKCC2)** in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle.
- While loop diuretics can cause similar electrolyte imbalances, Gitelman syndrome presents with **hypocalciuria**, whereas loop diuretics typically cause **hypercalciuria**.
*Spironolactone*
- Spironolactone is a **potassium-sparing diuretic** that acts as an **aldosterone antagonist** in the collecting duct.
- It would typically lead to hyperkalemia, not the hypokalemia seen in this patient.
*Amiloride*
- Amiloride is a **potassium-sparing diuretic** that inhibits the **epithelial sodium channel (ENaC)** in the collecting duct.
- Like spironolactone, it is associated with **hyperkalemia**, which contradicts the patient's presentation of hypokalemia.
*Mannitol*
- Mannitol is an **osmotic diuretic** that works in the renal tubule, particularly the proximal tubule and descending limb of the loop of Henle, where it is not reabsorbed.
- It primarily increases urinary output to reduce intracranial or intraocular pressure and does not typically cause the specific electrolyte abnormalities seen in Gitelman syndrome.
Question 138: A 66-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with lower extremity pain. She reports that she has had worsening pain in her left calf over the past year while walking. The pain improves with rest, but the patient notes that she now has to stop walking more frequently than in the past to relieve the pain. The patient’s past medical history is otherwise notable for hypertension and coronary artery disease. Her home medications include hydrochlorothiazide and lisinopril. Her family history is significant for diabetes mellitus in her father. On physical exam, her left lower extremity is slightly cool to the touch with palpable distal pulses. The skin of the left lower extremity appears smooth and shiny below the mid-calf. Laboratory testing is performed and reveals the following:
Serum:
High-density lipoprotein (HDL): 60 mg/dL
Low-density lipoprotein (LDL): 96 mg/dL
Triglycerides: 140 mg/dL
This patient should be started on which of the following medication regimens?
A. Aspirin and cilostazol
B. Aspirin only
C. Aspirin and atorvastatin (Correct Answer)
D. Atorvastatin and cilostazol
E. Atorvastatin only
Explanation: ***Aspirin and atorvastatin***
- The patient presents with classic symptoms and signs of **peripheral artery disease (PAD)**, including **intermittent claudication** (pain with walking, relieved by rest), **cool extremity**, and **trophic skin changes** (smooth, shiny skin).
- Both **aspirin** (for antiplatelet activity to reduce thrombotic events) and a **statin** like atorvastatin (for lipid lowering and plaque stabilization) are crucial for managing PAD and reducing cardiovascular risk due to her history of hypertension and coronary artery disease.
*Aspirin and cilostazol*
- **Aspirin** is appropriate for its antiplatelet effects, but **cilostazol** is primarily used to improve claudication symptoms and does not address the underlying lipid abnormalities or the need for cardiovascular risk reduction as comprehensively as a statin.
- While cilostazol can alleviate symptoms, it's not a first-line agent for overall cardiovascular risk reduction in PAD when dyslipidemia is also a concern.
*Aspirin only*
- **Aspirin** is essential for secondary prevention of cardiovascular events in PAD, but it does not address the patient's **lipid profile** which, while within "normal" limits by some metrics, warrants statin therapy given her high-risk cardiovascular history (hypertension, CAD, PAD).
- Optimal management of PAD involves both antiplatelet therapy and intensive lipid lowering.
*Atorvastatin and cilostazol*
- **Atorvastatin** is appropriate for lipid lowering and cardiovascular risk reduction in PAD. However, omitting **aspirin** means missing a crucial component of antiplatelet therapy for PAD, which significantly reduces the risk of serious thrombotic events.
- **Cilostazol** helps with symptoms but does not replace aspirin's role in preventing cardiovascular morbidity and mortality.
*Atorvastatin only*
- **Atorvastatin** is vital for its pleiotropic effects, including plaque stabilization and lipid lowering, in a patient with PAD and other cardiovascular risk factors.
- However, managing PAD optimally requires concurrent **antiplatelet therapy** (e.g., aspirin) to reduce the risk of thrombotic events, which is not included in this regimen.
Question 139: A 53-year-old man seeks evaluation from his physician with concerns about his blood pressure. He was recently told at a local health fair that he has high blood pressure. He has not seen a physician since leaving college because he never felt the need for medical attention. Although he feels fine, he is concerned because his father had hypertension and died due to a heart attack at 61 years of age. He does not smoke cigarettes but drinks alcohol occasionally. The blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg today. The physical examination is unremarkable. Labs are ordered and he is asked to monitor his blood pressure at home before the follow-up visit. Two weeks later, the blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg. The blood pressure measurements at home ranged from 130/90 to 155/95 mm Hg. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is normal. Lab tests show the following:
Serum glucose (fasting) 88 mg/dL
Serum electrolytes:
Sodium 142 mEq/L
Potassium 3.9 mEq/L
Chloride 101 mEq/L
Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen 10 mg/dL
Cholesterol, total 250 mg/dL
HDL-cholesterol 35 mg/dL
LDL-cholesterol 186 mg/dL
Triglycerides 250 mg/dL
Urinalysis:
Glucose negative
Ketones negative
Leucocytes negative
Nitrite negative
RBC negative
Casts negative
Regular exercise and a 'heart healthy diet' are advised. He is started on lisinopril for hypertension. Which of the following medications should be added to this patient?
A. Atorvastatin (Correct Answer)
B. Cholestyramine
C. Niacin
D. Orlistat
E. Gemfibrozil
Explanation: ***Atorvastatin***
- The patient has significantly **elevated LDL-cholesterol (186 mg/dL)** and **total cholesterol (250 mg/dL)**, alongside a family history of premature cardiovascular disease and established hypertension, placing him at high risk for atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD).
- **Statins (HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors)** are the first-line therapy for managing dyslipidemia in patients with high ASCVD risk, effectively lowering LDL-cholesterol and reducing cardiovascular events.
*Cholestyramine*
- This is a **bile acid sequestrant** that works by binding bile acids in the intestine, preventing their reabsorption.
- While it lowers LDL-cholesterol, **bile acid sequestrants** are generally considered second-line agents for dyslipidemia due to potential gastrointestinal side effects and often less potent LDL reduction compared to statins.
*Niacin*
- Niacin primarily raises **HDL-cholesterol** and can lower triglycerides, but its role in reducing ASCVD events has been less convincing in recent trials.
- It is also associated with significant side effects like **flushing and hepatotoxicity**, making it a less preferred option for initial management of LDL-cholesterol.
*Orlistat*
- Orlistat is a **pancreatic lipase inhibitor** used for **weight management** by reducing dietary fat absorption.
- It is not indicated as a primary medication for managing dyslipidemia or hypertension directly, though weight loss can indirectly improve these conditions.
*Gemfibrozil*
- Gemfibrozil is a **fibrate** primarily used to **lower elevated triglycerides** and modestly increase HDL-cholesterol.
- While the patient has elevated triglycerides (250 mg/dL), his primary lipid abnormality and highest ASCVD risk factor is the significantly elevated LDL-cholesterol, for which statins are more effective and first-line.
Question 140: A 55-year-old man presents to his primary care provider with increased urinary frequency. Over the past 3 months, he has been urinating 2-3 times more often than usual. He has started to feel dehydrated and has increased his water intake to compensate. He works as a bank teller. He has a 25-pack-year smoking history and drinks 8-10 beers per week. His temperature is 98°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 114/68 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, and respirations are 18/min. Capillary refill is 3 seconds. His mucous membranes appear dry. The patient is instructed to hold all water intake. Urine specific gravity is 1.002 after 12 hours of water deprivation. The patient is given desmopressin but his urine specific gravity remains relatively unchanged. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic treatment for this patient's condition?
A. Desmopressin
B. Furosemide
C. Metolazone (Correct Answer)
D. Spironolactone
E. Mannitol
Explanation: ***Metolazone***
- The patient's inability to concentrate urine after water deprivation (urine specific gravity 1.002) and lack of response to desmopressin indicate **nephrogenic diabetes insipidus**.
- **Thiazide diuretics** like metolazone are effective for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, as they induce a state of mild volume depletion, increasing proximal tubule reabsorption of sodium and water, thereby reducing the amount of filtrate reaching the collecting ducts.
*Desmopressin*
- Desmopressin is an antidiuretic hormone (ADH) analog used to treat **central diabetes insipidus**, where the pituitary gland does not produce enough ADH.
- The patient's lack of response to desmopressin rules out central diabetes insipidus, indicating an issue with the kidneys' response to ADH.
*Furosemide*
- Furosemide is a **loop diuretic** that works by inhibiting the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, leading to significant diuresis.
- While it causes increased urine output, it is not the primary treatment for diabetes insipidus and would exacerbate the dehydration in this patient.
*Spironolactone*
- Spironolactone is a **potassium-sparing diuretic** that acts as an aldosterone antagonist in the collecting duct.
- It is used to treat conditions like hyperaldosteronism, heart failure, and edema, but not diabetes insipidus.
*Mannitol*
- Mannitol is an **osmotic diuretic** that increases the osmolality of the glomerular filtrate, preventing water reabsorption.
- It is primarily used to reduce intracranial or intraocular pressure and would worsen dehydration in a patient with diabetes insipidus.