A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance. He feels well. His blood pressure is 155/60 mm Hg. Physical exam shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show a glucose concentration of 150 mg/dL and a hemoglobin A1c concentration of 9%. Treatment with lisinopril is initiated. Which of the following findings would be expected two days after initiating lisinopril therapy?
| Glomerular filtration rate | Renal plasma flow | Filtration fraction |
|----------------------------|-------------------|---------------------|
Q112
A 69-year-old woman is brought to the clinic for difficulty breathing over the past 2 months. She denies any clear precipitating factor but reports that her breathing has become progressively labored and she feels like she can’t breathe. Her past medical history is significant for heart failure, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Her medications include lisinopril, metoprolol, and metformin. She is allergic to sulfa drugs and peanuts. A physical examination demonstrates bilateral rales at the lung bases, pitting edema of the lower extremities, and a laterally displaced point of maximal impulse (PMI). She is subsequently given a medication that will reduce her volume status by competitively binding to aldosterone receptors. What is the most likely drug prescribed to this patient?
Q113
A 34-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up appointment because of a blood pressure of 148/98 mm Hg at her last health maintenance examination four weeks ago. She feels well. She has a 20-year history of migraine with aura of moderate to severe intensity. For the past year, the headaches have been occurring 1–2 times per week. Her only medication is sumatriptan. She runs two to three times a week and does yoga once a week. She is sexually active with her husband and uses condoms inconsistently. Her father has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), pulse is 76/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 143/92 mm Hg. A repeat sitting blood pressure 20 minutes later is 145/94 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
Q114
A 25-year-old man comes to the physician because he and his wife have been unable to conceive despite regular unprotected sex for the past 15 months without using contraception. His wife has been tested and is fertile. The patient began puberty at the age of 14 years. He was treated for Chlamydia trachomatis 6 years ago. He is a professional cyclist and trains every day for 3–4 hours. He feels stressed because of an upcoming race. His blood pressure is 148/92 mm Hg. Physical examination of the husband shows a tall, athletic stature with uniform inflammatory papular eruptions of the face, back, and chest. Genital examination shows small testes. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's infertility?
Q115
A 58-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He recently was found to have a history of stage 2 chronic kidney disease secondary to benign prostatic hyperplasia leading to urinary tract obstruction. He has no other medical conditions. His father died at age 86 from a stroke, and his mother lives in an assisted living facility. He smokes a pack of cigarettes a day and occasionally drinks alcohol. His vital signs include: blood pressure 130/75 mm Hg, pulse 75/min, respiratory rate 17/min, and temperature 36.5°C (97.7°F). His physical examination is unremarkable. A 24-hour urine specimen reveals the following findings:
Specific gravity 1,050
pH 5.6
Nitrites (-)
Glucose (-)
Proteins 250 mg/24hrs
Which of the following should be prescribed to this patient to decrease his cardiovascular risk?
Q116
A 66-year-old man presents to the emergency room with blurred vision, lightheadedness, and chest pain that started 30 minutes ago. The patient is awake and alert. His history is significant for uncontrolled hypertension, coronary artery disease, and he previously underwent percutaneous coronary intervention. He is afebrile. The heart rate is 102/min, the blood pressure is 240/135 mm Hg, and the O2 saturation is 100% on room air. An ECG is performed and shows no acute changes. A rapid intravenous infusion of a drug that increases peripheral venous capacitance is started. This drug has an onset of action that is less than 1 minute with rapid serum clearance than necessitates a continuous infusion. What is the most severe side effect of this medication?
Q117
A 56-year-old man presents for an annual checkup. He has no complaints at the moment of presentation. He was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus a year ago and takes metformin 1000 mg per day. The patient also has a history of postinfectious myocarditis that occurred 15 years ago with no apparent residual heart failure. His family history is unremarkable. He has a 15-pack-year history of smoking, but he currently does not smoke. He is a retired weightlifting athlete who at the present works as a coach and continues to work out. His BMI is 29 kg/m2. The blood pressure is 120/85 mm Hg, heart rate is 85/min, respiratory rate is 14/min, and temperature is 36.6℃ (97.9℉). Physical examination is only remarkable for an increased adiposity. The ECG is significant for increased R amplitude in leads I, II, and V3-6 and an incomplete left bundle branch block. Which of the following is most likely included in the treatment regimen of this patient?
Q118
A 48-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of fatigue, polyuria, and blurry vision. His BMI is 33 kg/m2 and his blood pressure is 147/95 mm Hg. Laboratory studies show a serum glucose concentration of 192 mg/dL and hemoglobin A1c concentration of 7.2%. Urinalysis shows 1+ glucose, 1+ protein, and no ketones. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy to prevent cardiovascular disease in this patient?
Q119
A 35-year-old man comes to the physician because of several episodes of crushing substernal chest pain on exertion over the past 6 weeks. The pain occurs when he goes for his morning run and disappears if he slows down to a walk. The patient is concerned because two of his uncles died of myocardial infarction in their early 50s. Physical examination shows yellow plaques on both the palms. An ECG shows no abnormalities. Serum lipid studies show:
Total cholesterol 650 mg/dL
HDL cholesterol 30 mg/dL
VLDL cholesterol 185 mg/dL
Triglycerides 800 mg/dL
Chylomicron remnants elevated
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q120
A 50-year-old man with hypertension comes to the physician for a routine follow-up evaluation. His blood pressure is 146/98 mm Hg. The physician wishes to prescribe lisinopril. The patient says that his blood pressure is high when he is “anxious” and requests alprazolam instead of lisinopril. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response by the physician?
Antihypertensives US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 111: A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance. He feels well. His blood pressure is 155/60 mm Hg. Physical exam shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show a glucose concentration of 150 mg/dL and a hemoglobin A1c concentration of 9%. Treatment with lisinopril is initiated. Which of the following findings would be expected two days after initiating lisinopril therapy?
| Glomerular filtration rate | Renal plasma flow | Filtration fraction |
|----------------------------|-------------------|---------------------|
A. ↓ no change ↓
B. ↓ ↓ no change
C. ↑ no change ↑
D. ↓ ↑ ↓ (Correct Answer)
E. ↓ ↓ ↑
Explanation: ***↓ GFR, ↑ RPF, ↓ FF (Correct Answer)***
- Lisinopril, an **ACE inhibitor**, causes **vasodilation of the efferent arteriole**, leading to a decrease in **glomerular hydrostatic pressure**. This results in a **decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)**.
- The decrease in efferent arteriolar resistance leads to a slight **increase in renal plasma flow (RPF)**.
- The **filtration fraction (FF = GFR/RPF)** therefore **decreases** as GFR falls while RPF increases.
- This initial decrease in GFR is expected and typically stabilizes; the long-term renoprotective benefits outweigh this transient effect, especially in diabetic patients.
*↓ GFR, no change RPF, ↓ FF*
- This option correctly predicts a decrease in GFR and FF but incorrectly states no change in RPF.
- ACE inhibitors cause efferent arteriolar dilation, which typically results in a **slight increase in RPF**, not "no change."
*↓ GFR, ↓ RPF, no change FF*
- This option incorrectly predicts a decrease in RPF. ACE inhibitors cause **efferent vasodilation**, which increases or maintains RPF, not decreases it.
- A decrease in both GFR and RPF with no change in FF would imply proportional decreases, which is not the characteristic action of ACE inhibitors.
*↑ GFR, no change RPF, ↑ FF*
- This option incorrectly predicts an increase in GFR and FF.
- Lisinopril, by dilating the efferent arteriole, **reduces glomerular hydrostatic pressure** and thus **reduces GFR**, not increases it.
- An increase in filtration fraction contradicts the expected pharmacologic effect.
*↓ GFR, ↓ RPF, ↑ FF*
- This option incorrectly predicts an increase in filtration fraction.
- While it correctly shows decreased GFR, the **decrease in RPF is incorrect** (should increase or remain stable).
- An increased FF would only occur if GFR decreased proportionally less than RPF, which is opposite to ACE inhibitor effects.
Question 112: A 69-year-old woman is brought to the clinic for difficulty breathing over the past 2 months. She denies any clear precipitating factor but reports that her breathing has become progressively labored and she feels like she can’t breathe. Her past medical history is significant for heart failure, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Her medications include lisinopril, metoprolol, and metformin. She is allergic to sulfa drugs and peanuts. A physical examination demonstrates bilateral rales at the lung bases, pitting edema of the lower extremities, and a laterally displaced point of maximal impulse (PMI). She is subsequently given a medication that will reduce her volume status by competitively binding to aldosterone receptors. What is the most likely drug prescribed to this patient?
A. Spironolactone (Correct Answer)
B. Atorvastatin
C. Furosemide
D. Amiloride
E. Hydrochlorothiazide
Explanation: ***Spironolactone***
- The patient's symptoms (difficulty breathing, bilateral rales, pitting edema, displaced PMI) are consistent with **worsening heart failure**.
- **Spironolactone** is an **aldosterone antagonist** that competitively binds to aldosterone receptors, leading to diuresis and beneficial effects in heart failure by reducing fluid retention and cardiac remodeling.
*Atorvastatin*
- **Atorvastatin** is a **HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor** used to lower cholesterol.
- While heart failure patients often have dyslipidemia, atorvastatin does not directly address acute fluid overload or improve volume status in the way described.
*Furosemide*
- **Furosemide** is a **loop diuretic** that also reduces volume status, but it acts by inhibiting the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the loop of Henle, not by competitively binding to aldosterone receptors.
- Although it would be used in this patient, it does not match the mechanism of action specified in the question.
*Amiloride*
- **Amiloride** is a **potassium-sparing diuretic** that acts by blocking epithelial sodium channels (ENaC) in the collecting duct.
- It does not competitively bind to aldosterone receptors, which is the specific mechanism mentioned in the question.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- **Hydrochlorothiazide** is a **thiazide diuretic** that inhibits the Na-Cl cotransporter in the distal convoluted tubule.
- It does not act by competitively binding to aldosterone receptors, and its diuretic effect is generally weaker than loop diuretics, making it less suitable for acute severe fluid overload.
Question 113: A 34-year-old woman comes to the physician for a follow-up appointment because of a blood pressure of 148/98 mm Hg at her last health maintenance examination four weeks ago. She feels well. She has a 20-year history of migraine with aura of moderate to severe intensity. For the past year, the headaches have been occurring 1–2 times per week. Her only medication is sumatriptan. She runs two to three times a week and does yoga once a week. She is sexually active with her husband and uses condoms inconsistently. Her father has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), pulse is 76/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 143/92 mm Hg. A repeat sitting blood pressure 20 minutes later is 145/94 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy for this patient?
A. Losartan
B. Lisinopril
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Propranolol (Correct Answer)
E. Prazosin
Explanation: ***Propranolol***
- This patient has a history of **migraine with aura** and **hypertension**. Beta-blockers like propranolol are effective in treating both conditions, making it an appropriate choice.
- Beta-blockers are a good option for hypertension management in patients with co-existing conditions such as migraine prophylaxis, especially since the patient is already experiencing frequent migraines.
*Losartan*
- Losartan is an **ARB (angiotensin receptor blocker)**, effective for hypertension. However, it does not offer additional benefits for migraine prophylaxis.
- While ARBs are renoprotective and good for diabetes-related hypertension, this patient's hypertension is not solely related to diabetes, and her primary co-morbidity is migraine.
*Lisinopril*
- Lisinopril is an **ACE inhibitor**, a first-line agent for hypertension, but it does not treat migraine effectively.
- ACE inhibitors are also **contraindicated in pregnancy**, and this patient is sexually active with inconsistent condom use, raising potential concerns if she were to become pregnant.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- Hydrochlorothiazide is a **thiazide diuretic** and a first-line antihypertensive agent. It is not indicated for migraine prophylaxis.
- While effective for hypertension, it would not address the patient's severe and frequent migraines.
*Prazosin*
- Prazosin is an **alpha-1 blocker** used for hypertension, particularly beneficial for benign prostatic hyperplasia, which is not relevant here.
- It is not a first-line agent for essential hypertension and does not have a role in migraine prophylaxis.
Question 114: A 25-year-old man comes to the physician because he and his wife have been unable to conceive despite regular unprotected sex for the past 15 months without using contraception. His wife has been tested and is fertile. The patient began puberty at the age of 14 years. He was treated for Chlamydia trachomatis 6 years ago. He is a professional cyclist and trains every day for 3–4 hours. He feels stressed because of an upcoming race. His blood pressure is 148/92 mm Hg. Physical examination of the husband shows a tall, athletic stature with uniform inflammatory papular eruptions of the face, back, and chest. Genital examination shows small testes. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's infertility?
A. Scrotal hyperthermia
B. Anabolic steroid use (Correct Answer)
C. Psychogenic erectile dysfunction
D. Kallmann syndrome
E. Klinefelter syndrome
Explanation: ***Anabolic steroid use***
- The patient's **tall, athletic stature**, **hypertension**, and diffuse **inflammatory papular eruptions** (acne) are classic signs of anabolic steroid use.
- Anabolic steroids suppress endogenous **gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)**, leading to secondary hypogonadism, **testicular atrophy** (small testes), and infertility.
*Scrotal hyperthermia*
- While professional cycling can lead to increased scrotal temperature, this would cause more generalized damage to spermatogenesis, not necessarily lead to **acne**, **hypertension**, or **testicular atrophy** to the degree suggested.
- The primary impact is on **sperm motility** and **morphology**, not typically accompanied by the systemic signs of androgen excess.
*Psychogenic erectile dysfunction*
- This patient is presenting with **infertility**, not primary erectile dysfunction, and his wife is confirmed fertile.
- While psychological stress can impact fertility, the multitude of specific physical findings point away from a purely psychogenic cause.
*Kallmann syndrome*
- Kallmann syndrome is characterized by **anosmia/hyposmia** and **delayed puberty** due to GnRH deficiency.
- The patient started puberty at 14, indicating a normal onset, and no mention of olfactory deficits is made.
*Klinefelter syndrome*
- Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) is a genetic disorder associated with **primary hypogonadism**, **tall stature**, and **gynecomastia**.
- While it can cause small testes and infertility, the patient's prominent **acne** and **hypertension** are not typical features, and puberty was not delayed.
Question 115: A 58-year-old man presents for a follow-up appointment. He recently was found to have a history of stage 2 chronic kidney disease secondary to benign prostatic hyperplasia leading to urinary tract obstruction. He has no other medical conditions. His father died at age 86 from a stroke, and his mother lives in an assisted living facility. He smokes a pack of cigarettes a day and occasionally drinks alcohol. His vital signs include: blood pressure 130/75 mm Hg, pulse 75/min, respiratory rate 17/min, and temperature 36.5°C (97.7°F). His physical examination is unremarkable. A 24-hour urine specimen reveals the following findings:
Specific gravity 1,050
pH 5.6
Nitrites (-)
Glucose (-)
Proteins 250 mg/24hrs
Which of the following should be prescribed to this patient to decrease his cardiovascular risk?
A. Enalapril (Correct Answer)
B. Ezetimibe
C. Amlodipine
D. Carvedilol
E. Aspirin
Explanation: ***Enalapril***
- **Enalapril**, an ACE inhibitor, is indicated for patients with **chronic kidney disease** and **proteinuria** to reduce cardiovascular risk and slow kidney disease progression.
- The patient has stage 2 CKD and **250 mg/24hrs of protein in urine**, which, when coupled with hypertension, makes ACE inhibitors the preferred choice to mitigate cardiovascular risk.
*Ezetimibe*
- **Ezetimibe** is a **cholesterol absorption inhibitor** used to lower LDL-C, but there is no information in the vignette to suggest hyperlipidemia.
- It is an inappropriate choice without evidence of dyslipidemia or a strong indication for lipid-lowering therapy.
*Amlodipine*
- **Amlodipine** is a **calcium channel blocker** used to treat hypertension but does not provide specific renal-protective benefits in patients with proteinuria.
- It would be a consideration for blood pressure control if an ACE inhibitor were contraindicated or insufficient.
*Carvedilol*
- **Carvedilol** is a **beta-blocker** used for hypertension, heart failure, and post-MI, but there is no indication for its use here.
- It is not the first-line agent for cardiovascular risk reduction in patients with chronic kidney disease and proteinuria without other specific cardiac indications.
*Aspirin*
- **Aspirin** is used for primary or secondary prevention of cardiovascular events due to its **antiplatelet effects**. However, in the absence of established cardiovascular disease, its use for primary prevention in CKD patients needs careful consideration of bleeding risk.
- While patients with CKD are at higher cardiovascular risk, an ACE inhibitor addresses both the hypertension and proteinuria, which directly contribute to cardiovascular and kidney disease progression in this patient.
Question 116: A 66-year-old man presents to the emergency room with blurred vision, lightheadedness, and chest pain that started 30 minutes ago. The patient is awake and alert. His history is significant for uncontrolled hypertension, coronary artery disease, and he previously underwent percutaneous coronary intervention. He is afebrile. The heart rate is 102/min, the blood pressure is 240/135 mm Hg, and the O2 saturation is 100% on room air. An ECG is performed and shows no acute changes. A rapid intravenous infusion of a drug that increases peripheral venous capacitance is started. This drug has an onset of action that is less than 1 minute with rapid serum clearance than necessitates a continuous infusion. What is the most severe side effect of this medication?
A. Status asthmaticus
B. Increased intraocular pressure
C. Cyanide poisoning (Correct Answer)
D. Intractable headache
E. Lupus-like syndrome
Explanation: ***Cyanide poisoning***
- The drug described is likely **nitroprusside**, a potent vasodilator used in hypertensive emergencies, which is rapidly metabolized to **cyanide**.
- **Cyanide accumulation** can occur, especially with prolonged infusions or in patients with renal impairment, leading to severe metabolic acidosis, lactic acidosis, and neurological dysfunction.
*Status asthmaticus*
- While some medications can exacerbate asthma, nitroprusside is not typically associated with inducing **status asthmaticus**. Its primary action is vasodilation, not bronchoconstriction.
- This is an acute respiratory emergency characterized by severe, persistent asthma symptoms unresponsive to initial bronchodilator therapy, which is unrelated to nitroprusside's mechanism of action.
*Increased intraocular pressure*
- This side effect is more commonly associated with drugs that affect aqueous humor dynamics, such as certain **ophthalmic medications** or systemic steroids, not nitroprusside.
- Nitroprusside's vasodilatory effects do not directly cause a significant or dangerous increase in **intraocular pressure**.
*Intractable headache*
- **Headache** is a common side effect of vasodilators like nitroprusside due to cerebral vasodilation, but it is typically manageable and is generally not the most severe or life-threatening complication.
- While uncomfortable, it does not carry the same systemic toxicity risk as cyanide poisoning.
*Lupus-like syndrome*
- A **lupus-like syndrome** is a known side effect of certain drugs like **hydralazine** and **procainamide**, which can induce systemic lupus erythematosus-like symptoms.
- Nitroprusside is not associated with this autoimmune-like reaction.
Question 117: A 56-year-old man presents for an annual checkup. He has no complaints at the moment of presentation. He was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus a year ago and takes metformin 1000 mg per day. The patient also has a history of postinfectious myocarditis that occurred 15 years ago with no apparent residual heart failure. His family history is unremarkable. He has a 15-pack-year history of smoking, but he currently does not smoke. He is a retired weightlifting athlete who at the present works as a coach and continues to work out. His BMI is 29 kg/m2. The blood pressure is 120/85 mm Hg, heart rate is 85/min, respiratory rate is 14/min, and temperature is 36.6℃ (97.9℉). Physical examination is only remarkable for an increased adiposity. The ECG is significant for increased R amplitude in leads I, II, and V3-6 and an incomplete left bundle branch block. Which of the following is most likely included in the treatment regimen of this patient?
A. Fosinopril (Correct Answer)
B. No management is required since the patient is asymptomatic
C. Amlodipine
D. Diltiazem
E. Furosemide
Explanation: ***Fosinopril***
- This patient has risk factors for **cardiovascular disease** including a history of **diabetes mellitus**, a 15-pack-year smoking history, and a history of **postinfectious myocarditis**, which together warrant the use of an **ACE inhibitor** for cardioprotection.
- While his blood pressure is currently well-controlled, **ACE inhibitors** like fosinopril are recommended for patients with diabetes and/or a history of cardiac issues for their **renoprotective** and **cardioprotective effects**, irrespective of blood pressure, especially given his ECG findings suggesting some degree of ventricular enlargement.
*No management is required since the patient is asymptomatic*
- Despite being asymptomatic, the patient has several significant **cardiovascular risk factors** (diabetes, past smoking, history of myocarditis) that necessitate active management to prevent future adverse events.
- Ignoring these risk factors would be a missed opportunity for **primary prevention** in a patient who could benefit from a cardioprotective regimen.
*Amlodipine*
- **Amlodipine** is a calcium channel blocker primarily used to treat hypertension and angina, but it does not offer the same **cardioprotective** and **renoprotective benefits** as ACE inhibitors in patients with diabetes or a history of heart disease.
- While it could be considered for blood pressure control, it's not the first-line choice for organ protection in this scenario.
*Diltiazem*
- **Diltiazem** is a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, angina, and rate control in arrhythmias. Like amlodipine, it lacks the specific **organ-protective benefits** of ACE inhibitors for patients with diabetes and/or a history of myocarditis.
- It would be a less suitable first-line option compared to an ACE inhibitor for reducing cardiovascular risk.
*Furosemide*
- **Furosemide** is a loop diuretic primarily used to manage fluid overload in conditions like heart failure or edema. The patient shows no signs of **congestive heart failure** or fluid retention.
- Administering a diuretic without an indication for volume management would be inappropriate and could lead to **dehydration** or electrolyte imbalances.
Question 118: A 48-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of fatigue, polyuria, and blurry vision. His BMI is 33 kg/m2 and his blood pressure is 147/95 mm Hg. Laboratory studies show a serum glucose concentration of 192 mg/dL and hemoglobin A1c concentration of 7.2%. Urinalysis shows 1+ glucose, 1+ protein, and no ketones. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy to prevent cardiovascular disease in this patient?
A. Lisinopril therapy (Correct Answer)
B. Gemfibrozil therapy
C. Insulin therapy
D. Aspirin therapy
E. Sleeve gastrectomy
Explanation: ***Lisinopril therapy***
- This patient has **hypertension**, **diabetes mellitus** (elevated blood glucose and HbA1c), and **proteinuria**, all of which significantly increase **cardiovascular risk**. **ACE inhibitors** like lisinopril are first-line therapy for hypertension in patients with diabetes and proteinuria, as they offer both blood pressure control and renal protection, thereby reducing cardiovascular events.
- The medication's **renoprotective effect** in diabetic nephropathy, by reducing intraglomerular pressure and proteinuria, directly contributes to cardiovascular disease prevention by preserving kidney function.
*Gemfibrozil therapy*
- **Gemfibrozil** is a **fibrate** primarily used to treat **severe hypertriglyceridemia** and to a lesser extent, to raise HDL cholesterol. While dyslipidemia is common in diabetics, this patient's lipid profile is not provided, and there's no indication of severe hypertriglyceridemia that would prioritize gemfibrozil over blood pressure control and renal protection.
- While addressing dyslipidemia can contribute to cardiovascular risk reduction, it is not the most appropriate initial or primary pharmacotherapy for this patient's constellation of risk factors, especially given the presence of proteinuria indicating kidney involvement.
*Insulin therapy*
- The patient's diabetes diagnosis (HbA1c of 7.2%) indicates elevated glucose, but it is not severe enough to immediately warrant **insulin therapy** given the patient's **BMI of 33 kg/m2**, suggesting type 2 diabetes that typically begins with oral hypoglycemics.
- While glucose control is crucial, insulin does not directly address the **cardiovascular risk from hypertension and proteinuria** as effectively as an ACE inhibitor would.
*Aspirin therapy*
- **Aspirin** is considered for **primary prevention of cardiovascular disease** in select diabetic patients, typically those with an increased 10-year atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease (ASCVD) risk and low bleeding risk.
- However, aspirin's benefit for primary prevention is less clear than that of **renoprotective antihypertensives** in patients with proteinuria, and bleeding risk must be considered. Furthermore, addressing hypertension and proteinuria is a more immediate and impactful intervention for this patient's overall cardiovascular risk profile.
*Sleeve gastrectomy*
- **Sleeve gastrectomy** is a form of **bariatric surgery** indicated for significant obesity (BMI typically >40 kg/m2 or >35 kg/m2 with comorbidities) to induce substantial weight loss. While weight loss would certainly improve diabetes and hypertension, it is a surgical intervention and not a "pharmacotherapy."
- This option does not address the immediate need for pharmacologic management of **hypertension and proteinuria**, which are critical for preventing cardiovascular and renal complications.
Question 119: A 35-year-old man comes to the physician because of several episodes of crushing substernal chest pain on exertion over the past 6 weeks. The pain occurs when he goes for his morning run and disappears if he slows down to a walk. The patient is concerned because two of his uncles died of myocardial infarction in their early 50s. Physical examination shows yellow plaques on both the palms. An ECG shows no abnormalities. Serum lipid studies show:
Total cholesterol 650 mg/dL
HDL cholesterol 30 mg/dL
VLDL cholesterol 185 mg/dL
Triglycerides 800 mg/dL
Chylomicron remnants elevated
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. Decreased apolipoprotein C-II
B. Defective apolipoprotein E (Correct Answer)
C. Defective apolipoprotein B-100
D. Hepatic overproduction of VLDL
E. Decreased apolipoprotein B-48
Explanation: ***Defective apolipoprotein E***
- The patient's presentation with **eruptive xanthomas** (yellow plaques on palms), very high **triglycerides (800 mg/dL)**, elevated **VLDL cholesterol (185 mg/dL)**, and elevated **chylomicron remnants** strongly suggests **dysbetalipoproteinemia type III (familial dysbetalipoproteinemia)**.
- This condition is caused by a defect in **apolipoprotein E**, which is crucial for the uptake of **chylomicron remnants** and **VLDL remnants (IDL)** by the liver. Its defect leads to their accumulation.
*Decreased apolipoprotein C-II*
- A deficiency in **apolipoprotein C-II** would lead to impaired activation of **lipoprotein lipase**, resulting in significantly elevated **chylomicrons** and **VLDL**.
- While triglycerides would be very high, this condition primarily impacts the initial breakdown of triglycerides from chylomicrons and VLDL, and is most often associated with **recurrent pancreatitis**.
*Hepatic overproduction of VLDL*
- This mechanism can contribute to high triglycerides and **VLDL**, but it typically does not cause the marked elevation of **chylomicron remnants** seen in this patient.
- It is often seen in conditions like **metabolic syndrome** or **familial hypertriglyceridemia**, but without the specific apolipoprotein E defect.
*Defective apolipoprotein B-100*
- A disease involving **defective apolipoprotein B-100** (e.g., familial defective ApoB-100) or deficient LDL receptors primarily causes **familial hypercholesterolemia**, characterized by very high **LDL cholesterol**.
- This patient's lipid profile shows significantly elevated triglycerides, VLDL, and chylomicron remnants, rather than isolated high LDL.
*Decreased apolipoprotein B-48*
- **Apolipoprotein B-48** is essential for the synthesis and secretion of **chylomicrons** from the intestine.
- A decrease in ApoB-48 would lead to **hypobetalipoproteinemia** or **abetalipoproteinemia**, characterized by very low or absent **triglycerides and cholesterol**, which is contrary to this patient's findings.
Question 120: A 50-year-old man with hypertension comes to the physician for a routine follow-up evaluation. His blood pressure is 146/98 mm Hg. The physician wishes to prescribe lisinopril. The patient says that his blood pressure is high when he is “anxious” and requests alprazolam instead of lisinopril. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial response by the physician?
A. “I would recommend fluoxetine because alprazolam can cause dependence.”
B. “Lisinopril is more effective to treat hypertension. If you do not control your high blood pressure, you may develop a stroke.”
C. “What have you heard about the use of alprazolam to treat high blood pressure?” (Correct Answer)
D. “Anxiety can cause temporary spikes in blood pressure, but it does not cause a long-term increase in blood pressure.”
E. “I would recommend consultation with a psychiatrist.”
Explanation: ***"What have you heard about the use of alprazolam to treat high blood pressure?"***
- This response demonstrates **empathy** and an interest in the patient's perspective, which is crucial for building trust and shared decision-making.
- It allows the physician to understand the patient's **misconceptions** about alprazolam and hypertension, paving the way for a more effective discussion.
*"I would recommend fluoxetine because alprazolam can cause dependence."*
- While fluoxetine is a valid treatment for anxiety and alprazolam does carry a risk of dependence, this response **prematurely dismisses** the patient's concerns without exploring them.
- It introduces a new medication without first understanding the **patient's existing beliefs** or reasons for requesting alprazolam.
*"Lisinopril is more effective to treat hypertension. If you do not control your high blood pressure, you may develop a stroke."*
- This statement is medically accurate regarding the treatment of hypertension and its risks but is **dismissive** of the patient's expressed concerns about anxiety.
- It uses a **fear-based approach** rather than an empathetic or educational one, which can hinder patient engagement and adherence.
*"Anxiety can cause temporary spikes in blood pressure, but it does not cause a long-term increase in blood pressure."*
- This statement provides medical information but **does not address the patient's direct request** for alprazolam or explore their underlying reasons.
- It also fails to acknowledge the potential link between chronic anxiety and its impact on overall cardiovascular health, or that an underlying anxiety disorder *can* contribute to sustained hypertension in some individuals.
*"I would recommend consultation with a psychiatrist."*
- While a psychiatric consultation might eventually be appropriate if an anxiety disorder is confirmed, this is a **premature referral** without first understanding the patient's perspective or attempting to address their immediate concerns.
- It may make the patient feel dismissed or that their concerns are being unduly pathologized.