A 46-year-old African American man presents to the physician with dyspnea on exertion for the past 2 months. He also has occasional episodes of coughing at night. He says that he has been healthy most of his life. He is a non-smoker and a non-alcoholic. He does not have hypercholesterolemia or ischemic heart disease. His father died due to congestive heart failure. On physical examination, the pulse rate was 116/min, the blood pressure was 164/96 mm Hg, and the respiratory rate was 20/min. Chest auscultation reveals bilateral fine crepitations at the lung bases. A complete diagnostic work-up suggests a diagnosis of hypertension with heart failure due to left ventricular dysfunction. Which of the following drug combinations is most likely to benefit the patient?
Q92
A 44-year-old man presents to the emergency department with weakness. He states that he has felt progressively more weak over the past month. He endorses decreased libido, weight gain, and headaches. His temperature is 97.0°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 177/108 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an obese man who appears fatigued. He has abdominal striae, atrophied arms, and limbs with minimal muscle tone. His ECG is notable for a small upward deflection right after the T wave. A fingerstick blood glucose is 225 mg/dL. The patient's underlying condition will be addressed definitively, but in the interim, which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic agent for managing his hypertension?
Q93
A 75 year-old gentleman presents to his general practitioner. He is currently being treated for hypertension and is on a multi-drug regimen. His current blood pressure is 180/100. The physician would like to begin treatment with minoxidil or hydralazine. Which of the following side effects is associated with administration of these drugs?
Q94
A 57-year-old man presents to his physician with the complaint of a painful toe joint on his right foot. He states that the onset of pain came on suddenly, waking him up in the middle of the night. On physical exam, the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint of the big toe is swollen and erythematous. The physician obtains information regarding his past medical history and current medications. Which of the following medications would have the potential to exacerbate this patient’s condition?
Q95
A 62-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. For the past year, he has had increasing calf cramping in both legs when walking, especially on an incline. He has hypertension. Since the last visit 6 months ago, he has been exercising on a treadmill four times a week; he has been walking until the pain starts and then continues after a short break. He has a history of hypertension controlled with enalapril. He had smoked 2 packs of cigarettes daily for 35 years but quit 5 months ago. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 84/min, and blood pressure is 132/78 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The calves and feet are pale. Femoral pulses can be palpated bilaterally; pedal pulses are absent. His ankle-brachial index is 0.6. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q96
A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic for establishment of care. He recently retired and moved to Florida with his wife. His past medical history includes hypertension, diabetes, chronic back pain, and hyperlipidemia. According to the patient, he takes lisinopril, metformin, atorvastatin, acetaminophen, and methadone. His previous doctor prescribed methadone for breakthrough pain as he has been having more severe pain episodes due to the recent move. He is currently out of his methadone and asks for a refill on the prescription. A physical examination is unremarkable except for mild lower extremity edema bilaterally and diffuse lower back pain upon palpation. What is the best initial step in the management of this patient?
Q97
A 60-year-old man presents to the office for a scheduled follow-up visit. He has had hypertension for the past 30 years and his current anti-hypertensive medications include lisinopril (40 mg/day) and hydrochlorothiazide (50 mg/day). He follows most of the lifestyle modifications recommended by his physician, but is concerned about his occasional occipital headaches in the morning. His blood pressure is 160/98 mm Hg. The physician adds another drug to his regimen that acts centrally as an α2-adrenergic agonist. Which of the following second messengers is involved in the mechanism of action of this new drug?
Q98
A 56-year-old man comes to the office complaining of a dry cough for 2 months. His medical history includes a recent myocardial infarction (MI), after which he was placed on several medications. He is currently on ramipril, clopidogrel, digoxin, lovastatin, and nitroglycerin. He does not smoke cigarettes and does not drink alcohol. He denies a history of bronchial asthma. Examination of the chest is within normal limits. Which of the following medications may have caused his symptom?
Q99
A 38-year-old man presents to his physician with recurrent episodes of facial swelling and abdominal pain. He reports that these episodes started when he was approximately 16 years of age. His mother also has similar episodes of swelling accompanied by swelling of her extremities. The vital signs include: blood pressure 140/80 mm Hg, heart rate 74/min, respiratory rate 17/min, and temperature 36.6℃ (97.8℉). His physical examination is unremarkable. The laboratory work-up shows the following findings:
Test Result Normal range
C1 esterase inhibitor 22% > 60%
Complement C4 level 9 mg/dL 14–40 mg/dL
Complement C2 level 0.8 mg/dL 1.1–3.0 mg/dL
Complement component 1q 17 mg/dL 12–22 mg/dL
Which of the following anti-hypertensive medications is contraindicated in this patient?
Q100
A 31-year-old African American woman presents to her primary care provider complaining of stiff, painful fingers. She reports that her symptoms started 2 years ago and have gradually worsened. Her pain is not relieved by ibuprofen or acetaminophen. She is most concerned about having occasional episodes in which her fingers become extremely painful and turn white then pale blue. Her past medical history is notable for hypertension but she has previously refused to take any medication. She works as a postal worker and spends most of her time outside. Physical examination reveals induration of her digits with loss of skin fold wrinkles. She has limited finger range of motion. She would like to know if she can do anything to address her intermittent finger pain as it is affecting her ability to work outside in the cold. Which of the following medications is most appropriate to address this patient’s concerns?
Antihypertensives US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: A 46-year-old African American man presents to the physician with dyspnea on exertion for the past 2 months. He also has occasional episodes of coughing at night. He says that he has been healthy most of his life. He is a non-smoker and a non-alcoholic. He does not have hypercholesterolemia or ischemic heart disease. His father died due to congestive heart failure. On physical examination, the pulse rate was 116/min, the blood pressure was 164/96 mm Hg, and the respiratory rate was 20/min. Chest auscultation reveals bilateral fine crepitations at the lung bases. A complete diagnostic work-up suggests a diagnosis of hypertension with heart failure due to left ventricular dysfunction. Which of the following drug combinations is most likely to benefit the patient?
A. Amlodipine-Atenolol
B. Amlodipine-Valsartan
C. Metoprolol-Atorvastatin
D. Isosorbide dinitrate-Hydralazine (Correct Answer)
E. Atenolol-Hydrochlorothiazide
Explanation: ***Isosorbide dinitrate-Hydralazine***
- This combination is specifically **guideline-recommended for self-identified African American patients with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)** based on the A-HeFT trial, which demonstrated significant mortality benefit in this population.
- **Hydralazine reduces afterload** through direct arterial vasodilation, while **isosorbide dinitrate reduces preload** through venodilation, providing synergistic hemodynamic benefits that improve symptoms and survival.
- This combination is typically used as **adjunctive therapy** to standard HF medications (ACE inhibitors/ARBs, beta-blockers, diuretics).
*Amlodipine-Atenolol*
- **Atenolol, a non-selective beta-blocker**, lacks proven mortality benefit in heart failure and is not among the preferred beta-blockers (carvedilol, metoprolol succinate, or bisoprolol) for HFrEF management.
- **Amlodipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker**, is not a first-line agent for heart failure treatment and does not provide mortality benefit in HFrEF, though it can be used for additional blood pressure control if needed.
*Amlodipine-Valsartan*
- **Valsartan is an ARB (angiotensin receptor blocker)**, which is indeed a cornerstone therapy for heart failure, but this combination does not provide the additional mortality benefit specifically demonstrated for African American patients with HFrEF.
- While guideline-directed medical therapy including ARBs is important, the **hydralazine-nitrate combination offers proven incremental benefit** in this specific patient population when added to standard therapy.
*Metoprolol-Atorvastatin*
- **Metoprolol succinate** is an appropriate beta-blocker for heart failure when titrated properly, but this combination lacks the specific mortality benefit proven for African American patients with HFrEF.
- **Atorvastatin is a statin** used for lipid management and cardiovascular risk reduction, but the patient has no documented hypercholesterolemia or ischemic heart disease, making this combination less appropriate.
- Statins do not directly address heart failure pathophysiology or provide mortality benefit in HFrEF in the absence of other indications.
*Atenolol-Hydrochlorothiazide*
- **Atenolol** is not a preferred beta-blocker for heart failure due to its lack of proven mortality benefit compared to carvedilol, metoprolol succinate, or bisoprolol.
- **Hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic**, helps manage fluid overload and hypertension but does not offer the mortality reduction or comprehensive hemodynamic benefits of the hydralazine-nitrate combination specifically proven in this patient population.
Question 92: A 44-year-old man presents to the emergency department with weakness. He states that he has felt progressively more weak over the past month. He endorses decreased libido, weight gain, and headaches. His temperature is 97.0°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 177/108 mmHg, pulse is 80/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam is notable for an obese man who appears fatigued. He has abdominal striae, atrophied arms, and limbs with minimal muscle tone. His ECG is notable for a small upward deflection right after the T wave. A fingerstick blood glucose is 225 mg/dL. The patient's underlying condition will be addressed definitively, but in the interim, which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacologic agent for managing his hypertension?
A. Metoprolol (Correct Answer)
B. Torsemide
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Insulin
E. Eplerenone
Explanation: ***Metoprolol***
- This patient presents with signs and symptoms consistent with **Cushing's syndrome**, including truncal obesity, thin extremities, striae, hypertension, hyperglycemia, and weakness (likely from hypokalemia, as evidenced by the U wave on ECG).
- The severe hypertension (177/108 mmHg) requires immediate management while the underlying Cushing's syndrome is being addressed definitively.
- **Beta-blockers like metoprolol** are appropriate for managing hypertension in Cushing's syndrome as they counteract the increased cardiac output and sympathetic activation caused by cortisol excess without worsening the metabolic complications.
- Unlike thiazide or loop diuretics, beta-blockers do not worsen hyperglycemia or hypokalemia, both of which are already present in this patient.
*Torsemide*
- **Torsemide** is a loop diuretic that can cause **hypokalemia**, which would worsen this patient's existing hypokalemia (U wave on ECG) and muscle weakness.
- Loop diuretics are not first-line agents for hypertension in Cushing's syndrome unless there is evidence of fluid overload, which is not present in this case.
*Hydrochlorothiazide*
- **Hydrochlorothiazide** is a thiazide diuretic that can worsen both **hyperglycemia** and **hypokalemia**.
- This patient already has hyperglycemia (225 mg/dL) and evidence of hypokalemia (U wave on ECG), making thiazides a poor choice.
- Thiazides would exacerbate the metabolic complications of Cushing's syndrome.
*Insulin*
- While insulin would address the hyperglycemia, the question specifically asks about managing the **hypertension**, not the hyperglycemia.
- Insulin does not lower blood pressure and would not address the immediate cardiovascular risk from severe hypertension.
*Eplerenone*
- **Eplerenone** is a selective aldosterone antagonist used primarily for primary hyperaldosteronism or heart failure.
- While it can lower blood pressure, the primary pathophysiology in Cushing's syndrome is **cortisol excess**, not aldosterone excess.
- Additionally, eplerenone can cause hyperkalemia, which, while potentially beneficial in this hypokalemic patient, makes it less predictable and not first-line for hypertension management in this context.
Question 93: A 75 year-old gentleman presents to his general practitioner. He is currently being treated for hypertension and is on a multi-drug regimen. His current blood pressure is 180/100. The physician would like to begin treatment with minoxidil or hydralazine. Which of the following side effects is associated with administration of these drugs?
A. Persistent cough
B. Cyanosis in extremities
C. Fetal renal toxicity
D. Systemic volume loss
E. Reflex tachycardia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Reflex tachycardia***
- Both **minoxidil** and **hydralazine** are direct arterial vasodilators, causing a significant drop in **peripheral vascular resistance**.
- This vasodilation triggers a **baroreflex response**, leading to an increase in heart rate and **cardiac contractility** to maintain cardiac output, resulting in reflex tachycardia.
*Persistent cough*
- **Persistent cough** is a common side effect associated with **ACE inhibitors**, such as lisinopril or enalapril, due to the accumulation of **bradykinin**.
- This side effect is not typically seen with **minoxidil** or **hydralazine**, which act directly on vascular smooth muscle to cause vasodilation.
*Cyanosis in extremities*
- **Cyanosis** (bluish discoloration of the skin and mucous membranes) usually indicates **hypoxemia** or poor peripheral perfusion.
- While sometimes associated with severe cardiogenic shock or specific drug toxicities like methemoglobinemia (not related to minoxidil or hydralazine), it is not a direct or typical side effect of these vasodilators.
*Fetal renal toxicity*
- **Fetal renal toxicity**, including **fetal renal dysfunction** and **oligohydramnios**, is a well-known risk associated with **ACE inhibitors** and **ARBs** during pregnancy.
- Neither **minoxidil** nor **hydralazine** are primarily linked to this specific fetal adverse effect, though hydralazine can be used in pregnancy for severe hypertension.
*Systemic volume loss*
- **Systemic volume loss** is usually caused by conditions like **dehydration**, excessive diuresis, or hemorrhage.
- While vasodilators can reduce blood pressure, they do not directly cause **systemic volume depletion**; rather, the reflex response to vasodilation can include fluid retention to counteract the blood pressure drop.
Question 94: A 57-year-old man presents to his physician with the complaint of a painful toe joint on his right foot. He states that the onset of pain came on suddenly, waking him up in the middle of the night. On physical exam, the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint of the big toe is swollen and erythematous. The physician obtains information regarding his past medical history and current medications. Which of the following medications would have the potential to exacerbate this patient’s condition?
A. Indomethacin
B. Methotrexate
C. Allopurinol
D. Hydrochlorothiazide (Correct Answer)
E. Colchicine
Explanation: ***Hydrochlorothiazide***
- **Thiazide diuretics** like hydrochlorothiazide can **increase serum uric acid levels** by inhibiting uric acid secretion in the renal tubules, thereby precipitating or exacerbating **gout attacks**.
- The patient's presentation of sudden-onset, painful, red, and swollen **metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint of the big toe** is classic for **gout**, a condition caused by uric acid crystal deposition.
- Thiazide diuretics are a well-known risk factor for hyperuricemia and gout exacerbations.
*Indomethacin*
- **Indomethacin** is a **nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)** commonly used as first-line treatment for acute gout attacks.
- It would alleviate, not exacerbate, the patient's condition.
*Methotrexate*
- **Methotrexate** is an **immunosuppressant** used for rheumatoid arthritis and other inflammatory conditions.
- At standard rheumatologic doses, methotrexate does **not typically cause hyperuricemia** or exacerbate gout.
- It is not associated with increased risk of gout attacks.
*Allopurinol*
- **Allopurinol** is a **xanthine oxidase inhibitor** used for the long-term management of gout by **reducing uric acid production**.
- While it prevents gout long-term, **initiating or adjusting allopurinol during an acute attack** can transiently worsen symptoms due to rapid changes in uric acid levels causing crystal mobilization.
- However, it does not increase uric acid levels like thiazide diuretics do.
*Colchicine*
- **Colchicine** is an **anti-inflammatory agent** specifically used for the treatment and prophylaxis of gout attacks.
- It helps reduce inflammation caused by uric acid crystals and would improve the patient's condition.
Question 95: A 62-year-old man comes to the physician for a follow-up examination. For the past year, he has had increasing calf cramping in both legs when walking, especially on an incline. He has hypertension. Since the last visit 6 months ago, he has been exercising on a treadmill four times a week; he has been walking until the pain starts and then continues after a short break. He has a history of hypertension controlled with enalapril. He had smoked 2 packs of cigarettes daily for 35 years but quit 5 months ago. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 84/min, and blood pressure is 132/78 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The calves and feet are pale. Femoral pulses can be palpated bilaterally; pedal pulses are absent. His ankle-brachial index is 0.6. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Vancomycin and piperacillin
B. Operative vascular reconstruction
C. Rest and orthotic braces
D. Clopidogrel and simvastatin (Correct Answer)
E. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty and stenting
Explanation: ***Clopidogrel and simvastatin***
- This patient presents with classic symptoms of **peripheral artery disease (PAD)**, indicated by **calf cramping with exertion (claudication)**, absent pedal pulses, pale extremities, and an **ankle-brachial index (ABI) of 0.6**.
- **Clopidogrel** is an antiplatelet agent used for secondary prevention of cardiovascular events in PAD, and **simvastatin** is a statin to manage dyslipidemia and stabilize atherosclerotic plaques, both crucial components of initial medical management for PAD.
*Vancomycin and piperacillin*
- This combination of **broad-spectrum antibiotics** is typically used to treat severe bacterial infections, often in hospitalized patients.
- There are no signs or symptoms of infection in this patient's presentation.
*Operative vascular reconstruction*
- **Operative vascular reconstruction** is an invasive procedure generally reserved for patients with **critical limb ischemia**, rapidly worsening claudication, or failed conservative management.
- This patient's symptoms, while significant, do not yet indicate a need for immediate surgical intervention, especially given his recent positive lifestyle changes.
*Rest and orthotic braces*
- While rest is a component of managing claudication, and orthotic braces might be used for specific foot or joint issues, neither addresses the **underlying atherosclerosis** causing the PAD.
- **Supervised exercise programs** including walking until the pain starts and resting, then resuming, are beneficial, but rest alone or orthotics are insufficient primary treatments for PAD.
*Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty and stenting*
- **Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty and stenting (PTAS)** is an interventional procedure used to revascularize arteries in PAD.
- Similar to surgical reconstruction, PTAS is typically considered after **failed medical therapy and supervised exercise programs**, or for more severe symptoms like critical limb ischemia, which is not currently present.
Question 96: A 67-year-old man comes to the clinic for establishment of care. He recently retired and moved to Florida with his wife. His past medical history includes hypertension, diabetes, chronic back pain, and hyperlipidemia. According to the patient, he takes lisinopril, metformin, atorvastatin, acetaminophen, and methadone. His previous doctor prescribed methadone for breakthrough pain as he has been having more severe pain episodes due to the recent move. He is currently out of his methadone and asks for a refill on the prescription. A physical examination is unremarkable except for mild lower extremity edema bilaterally and diffuse lower back pain upon palpation. What is the best initial step in the management of this patient?
A. Refer the patient to a pain management clinic
B. Inform the patient that methadone is not the best option and do not prescribe
C. Encourage the patient to switch to duloxetine
D. Assess the patient's pain medication history (Correct Answer)
E. Prescribe a limited dose of methadone for breakthrough back pain
Explanation: ***Assess the patient's pain medication history***
- It is crucial to gather a comprehensive **pain medication history** for a new patient on long-term opioids, especially when they are requesting a refill for a potentially high-risk medication like **methadone**. This includes understanding the duration of use, previous dosages, other medications tried, and the effectiveness of prior treatments.
- A comprehensive assessment helps to identify potential risks, such as **opioid tolerance**, dependence, or drug-drug interactions, and allows the physician to make an informed decision regarding the patient's ongoing pain management plan in accordance with **CDC guidelines** on opioid prescribing.
*Refer the patient to a pain management clinic*
- While referral to a pain management clinic may be appropriate later, the **initial step** should involve a thorough assessment by the primary care physician to understand the patient's immediate needs and history, especially given the new patient encounter.
- A direct referral without an initial evaluation could delay critical care decisions related to safe opioid prescribing and **withdrawal prevention**.
*Inform the patient that methadone is not the best option and do not prescribe*
- Simply refusing to prescribe methadone without a proper assessment and alternative plan can lead to **opioid withdrawal** and non-adherence to care, which can be dangerous for the patient.
- While methadone has significant risks, abruptly discontinuing it without a transition plan is generally discouraged, as it can cause severe **rebound pain** and withdrawal symptoms.
*Encourage the patient to switch to duloxetine*
- Duloxetine is an appropriate medication for **neuropathic pain** and **chronic musculoskeletal pain**, but it's not an immediate solution for breakthrough pain in a patient accustomed to methadone and should only be considered after a full assessment and discussion of risks and benefits.
- Switching to duloxetine without a clear understanding of the patient's current pain control, opioid dependence, and potential for withdrawal is premature and could exacerbate the patient's pain and lead to severe **withdrawal symptoms**.
*Prescribe a limited dose of methadone for breakthrough back pain*
- Prescribing methadone without a complete and thorough assessment of the patient's pain history, current dosage, and potential interactions with other medications is not safe practice, especially for a **new patient**.
- Methadone has a **long and variable half-life**, making it prone to accumulation and overdose, and requires careful titration and monitoring, which cannot be done without a full history.
Question 97: A 60-year-old man presents to the office for a scheduled follow-up visit. He has had hypertension for the past 30 years and his current anti-hypertensive medications include lisinopril (40 mg/day) and hydrochlorothiazide (50 mg/day). He follows most of the lifestyle modifications recommended by his physician, but is concerned about his occasional occipital headaches in the morning. His blood pressure is 160/98 mm Hg. The physician adds another drug to his regimen that acts centrally as an α2-adrenergic agonist. Which of the following second messengers is involved in the mechanism of action of this new drug?
A. Calcium ions
B. Inositol triphosphate
C. Cyclic guanosine monophosphate
D. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (Correct Answer)
E. Diacylglycerol
Explanation: ***Cyclic adenosine monophosphate***
- The physician likely added **clonidine or methyldopa**, both of which are **central α2-adrenergic agonists** used to treat hypertension.
- Activation of **α2-adrenergic receptors** leads to the **inhibition of adenylyl cyclase** and a decrease in **intracellular cyclic AMP (cAMP) levels**, which is the second messenger.
*Calcium ions*
- While calcium ions are crucial second messengers in many cellular processes, they are primarily involved in the mechanism of action of **α1-adrenergic receptors** and **voltage-gated calcium channels**, not directly inhibited by α2-agonists.
- **α2-adrenergic agonism** primarily acts to *reduce* neuronal excitability, which can indirectly affect calcium flux but does not directly involve calcium as the primary second messenger.
*Inositol triphosphate*
- **Inositol triphosphate (IP3)** is a second messenger primarily associated with the activation of **Gq protein-coupled receptors**, leading to the release of intracellular calcium.
- This pathway is characteristic of **α1-adrenergic receptors**, which cause vasoconstriction, and is antagonistic to the α2-agonist mechanism.
*Cyclic guanosine monophosphate*
- **Cyclic GMP (cGMP)** is a key second messenger in processes such as **vasodilation mediated by nitric oxide** and the action of ANP/BNP.
- **α2-adrenergic agonists** do not directly modulate cGMP levels as their primary mechanism of action.
*Diacylglycerol*
- **Diacylglycerol (DAG)** is a second messenger, along with IP3, produced from the hydrolysis of **PIP2** by phospholipase C, following activation of **Gq protein-coupled receptors**.
- This pathway is associated with **α1-adrenergic receptor activation**, not the inhibitory pathway initiated by central α2-adrenergic agonists.
Question 98: A 56-year-old man comes to the office complaining of a dry cough for 2 months. His medical history includes a recent myocardial infarction (MI), after which he was placed on several medications. He is currently on ramipril, clopidogrel, digoxin, lovastatin, and nitroglycerin. He does not smoke cigarettes and does not drink alcohol. He denies a history of bronchial asthma. Examination of the chest is within normal limits. Which of the following medications may have caused his symptom?
A. Clopidogrel
B. Ramipril (Correct Answer)
C. Digoxin
D. Nitroglycerin
E. Lovastatin
Explanation: ***Ramipril***
- **Ramipril** is an **ACE inhibitor** commonly associated with a **dry cough** due to the accumulation of **bradykinin** in the respiratory tract.
- The cough typically develops within **weeks to months** of starting the medication and resolves upon discontinuation.
*Clopidogrel*
- **Clopidogrel** is an **antiplatelet medication** that inhibits platelet aggregation.
- It is known for side effects like increased **bleeding risk**, but **dry cough** is not a characteristic adverse effect.
*Digoxin*
- **Digoxin** is a cardiac glycoside used to treat **heart failure** and **atrial fibrillation**.
- Its common side effects include **gastrointestinal upset**, **visual disturbances**, and **cardiac arrhythmias**, not a chronic cough.
*Nitroglycerin*
- **Nitroglycerin** is a **vasodilator** used for angina.
- The most common side effects are **headache**, **dizziness**, and **hypotension**, but it does not typically cause a persistent dry cough.
*Lovastatin*
- **Lovastatin** is an **HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor** used to lower cholesterol.
- Common side effects include **myalgia**, **gastrointestinal complaints**, and **elevated liver enzymes**, but a dry cough is not a recognized side effect.
Question 99: A 38-year-old man presents to his physician with recurrent episodes of facial swelling and abdominal pain. He reports that these episodes started when he was approximately 16 years of age. His mother also has similar episodes of swelling accompanied by swelling of her extremities. The vital signs include: blood pressure 140/80 mm Hg, heart rate 74/min, respiratory rate 17/min, and temperature 36.6℃ (97.8℉). His physical examination is unremarkable. The laboratory work-up shows the following findings:
Test Result Normal range
C1 esterase inhibitor 22% > 60%
Complement C4 level 9 mg/dL 14–40 mg/dL
Complement C2 level 0.8 mg/dL 1.1–3.0 mg/dL
Complement component 1q 17 mg/dL 12–22 mg/dL
Which of the following anti-hypertensive medications is contraindicated in this patient?
A. Amlodipine
B. Fosinopril (Correct Answer)
C. Atenolol
D. Indapamide
E. Valsartan
Explanation: ***Fosinopril***
- This patient presents with symptoms and lab findings consistent with **hereditary angioedema (HAE)**, characterized by recurrent episodes of **facial swelling** and **abdominal pain**, low C1 esterase inhibitor, and low C4/C2 levels. **ACE inhibitors** like fosinopril are absolutely **contraindicated in HAE** because they can trigger life-threatening angioedema attacks by increasing bradykinin levels.
- The family history of similar swelling further supports the diagnosis of HAE, making any medication that exacerbates bradykinin a significant risk.
*Amlodipine*
- **Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers** such as amlodipine are generally considered safe in patients with angioedema and do not interfere with the bradykinin pathway.
- They are a suitable option for hypertension management in these patients.
*Atenolol*
- **Beta-blockers** like atenolol are generally safe for managing hypertension in patients with a history of angioedema, as they do not affect the complement or bradykinin systems.
- There is no evidence to suggest that atenolol would worsen angioedema symptoms.
*Indapamide*
- **Thiazide diuretics** such as indapamide are safe and effective antihypertensive agents in patients with angioedema.
- They work by increasing sodium and water excretion and do not interact with the pathways involved in angioedema.
*Valsartan*
- **Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs)** like valsartan are generally considered safer than ACE inhibitors in patients with angioedema, although a small risk of angioedema still exists due to their weak effect on bradykinin.
- However, the primary family of drugs to avoid in HAE is ACE inhibitors due to their direct and significant impact on bradykinin degradation.
Question 100: A 31-year-old African American woman presents to her primary care provider complaining of stiff, painful fingers. She reports that her symptoms started 2 years ago and have gradually worsened. Her pain is not relieved by ibuprofen or acetaminophen. She is most concerned about having occasional episodes in which her fingers become extremely painful and turn white then pale blue. Her past medical history is notable for hypertension but she has previously refused to take any medication. She works as a postal worker and spends most of her time outside. Physical examination reveals induration of her digits with loss of skin fold wrinkles. She has limited finger range of motion. She would like to know if she can do anything to address her intermittent finger pain as it is affecting her ability to work outside in the cold. Which of the following medications is most appropriate to address this patient’s concerns?
A. Methotrexate
B. Enalapril
C. Diltiazem
D. Nifedipine (Correct Answer)
E. Ambrisentan
Explanation: ***Nifedipine***
- Nifedipine, a **dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker**, is the first-line treatment for **Raynaud's phenomenon**, which is suggested by the patient's episodic finger discoloration (white then pale blue) and pain, especially exacerbated by cold.
- This medication works by **vasodilation**, which improves blood flow to the digits and reduces the frequency and severity of vasospastic attacks.
*Methotrexate*
- Methotrexate is a **disease-modifying antirheumatic drug (DMARD)** primarily used for inflammatory conditions like **rheumatoid arthritis** or **psoriatic arthritis**.
- While the patient's symptoms could suggest a connective tissue disease like **scleroderma**, methotrexate would address the underlying inflammatory/autoimmune process, not the acute vasospastic episodes of Raynaud's phenomenon.
*Enalapril*
- Enalapril is an **ACE inhibitor** used primarily for **hypertension** and heart failure.
- While the patient has hypertension, enalapril would not directly address her intermittent finger pain and discoloration attributable to Raynaud's phenomenon.
*Diltiazem*
- Diltiazem is a **non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker** used for hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias.
- While calcium channel blockers are used for Raynaud's, **diltiazem is less preferred than dihydropyridines like nifedipine** for this specific indication due to its different mechanism of action and potential side effect profile.
*Ambrisentan*
- Ambrisentan is an **endothelin receptor antagonist** primarily used for **pulmonary arterial hypertension**.
- It is not indicated for the direct management of Raynaud's phenomenon in the absence of pulmonary hypertension.