A 73-year-old man presents to the office, complaining of “weird blisters” on his right hand, which appeared 2 weeks ago. The patient says that he initially had a rash, which progressed to blisters. He denies any trauma or known contact with sick people. He is worried because he hasn’t been able to garden since the rash appeared, and he was planning on entering his roses into an annual competition this month. His vital signs are stable. On physical exam, the patient has multiple bullae accompanied by red, papular lesions on his right hand, which progress to his forearm. The right axillary lymph nodes are swollen and tender. What is the treatment for the most likely diagnosis of this patient?
Q22
A potassium hydroxide preparation is conducted on a skin scraping of the hypopigmented area. Microscopy of the preparation shows long hyphae among clusters of yeast cells. Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Q23
A 51-year-old man with a history of severe persistent asthma is seen today with the complaint of white patches on his tongue and inside his mouth. He says this all started a couple of weeks ago when he recently started a new medication for his asthma. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 74/min, and respiratory rate 14/min. His physical examination is significant for mild bilateral wheezes, and attempts at scraping off the lesions in the mouth are successful but leave erythema underlying where they were removed. Which of the following medications is responsible for his presentation?
Q24
A 24-year-old professional wrestler recently participated in a charitable tournament event in Bora Bora, a tropical island that is part of the French Polynesia Leeward Islands. During his stay, he wore tight-fitting clothes and tight bathing trunks for extended periods. After 6 days, he observed symmetric, erythematous itchy rash in his groin, with a significant amount of moisture and scales. Central areas of the rash were hyperpigmented, and the border was slightly elevated and sharply demarcated. His penis and scrotum were not affected. He immediately visited a local dermatology clinic where a specialist conducted a Wood lamp examination to exclude the presence of a bacterial infection (primary infection due to Corynebacterium minutissimum). The working diagnosis was a fungal infection. Which topical agent should be recommended to treat this patient?
Q25
A 23-year-old female presents to the emergency department complaining of a worsening headache. The patient reports that the headache started one month ago. It is constant and “all over” but gets worse when she is lying down or in the setting of bright lights. Review of systems is significant for low-grade fever, night sweats, cough, malaise, poor appetite, and unintentional weight loss of 12 pounds in the last two months. The patient is sexually active with multiple male partners and reports inconsistent condom use. She has a history of intravenous drug use, and has not been to a doctor in the last two years. The patient’s temperature is 100.4°F (38.0°C), blood pressure is 110/78 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 14/min with an oxygen saturation of 98% O2 on room air. On physical exam, pain is elicited upon passive flexion of the patient’s neck. A CT scan shows ventricular enlargement. A CD4+ count is 57 cells/µL blood. A lumbar puncture is performed with the following findings:
Cerebrospinal fluid:
Opening pressure: 210 mmH2O
Glucose: 32 mg/dL
Protein: 204 mg/dL
India ink stain: Positive
Leukocyte count and differential:
Leukocyte count: 200/mm^3
Lymphocytes: 100%
Red blood cell count: 2
What is the next best step in therapy?
Q26
A 43-year-old man is brought to the physician for a follow-up examination. He has a history of epilepsy that has been treated with a stable dose of phenytoin for 15 years. He was recently seen by another physician who added a drug to his medications, but he cannot recall the name. Shortly after, he started noticing occasional double vision. Physical examination shows slight vertical nystagmus and gait ataxia. Which of the following drugs was most likely added to this patient's medication regimen?
Q27
A 60-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of severe, retrosternal chest pain. She also has pain when swallowing solid food and medications. She has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, poorly-controlled asthma, and osteoporosis. She was recently admitted to the hospital for an acute asthma exacerbation that was treated with bronchodilators and a 7-day course of oral corticosteroids. Her current medications include aspirin, amlodipine, metformin, insulin, beclomethasone and albuterol inhalers, and alendronate. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination of the oral pharynx appears normal. The lungs are clear to auscultation. An upper endoscopy shows a single punched-out ulcer with normal surrounding mucosa at the gastroesophageal junction. Biopsies of the ulcer are taken. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q28
A 21-year-old African American female presents to her primary care physician reporting a history of excess hair growth. She has to shave her face and chest on a regular basis. She is sexually active and uses condoms for protection. Her last period was two months ago and she reports having 5-6 menstrual periods per year at irregular intervals. She has no past medical history and takes no medications. She drinks socially and does not smoke. Her family history is notable for heart disease in her father and endometrial cancer in her mother. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 125/85 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, and respirations are 16/min. The physician considers starting the patient on a medication that is also indicated in the treatment of histoplasmosis. This medication primary acts by inhibiting which of the following proteins?
Q29
A 25-year-old man visits a local clinic while volunteering abroad to rebuild homes after a natural disaster. He reports that he has been experiencing an intermittent rash on his feet for several weeks that is associated with occasional itching and burning. He states that he has been working in wet conditions in work boots and often does not get a chance to remove them until just before going to bed. On physical exam, there is diffuse erythema and maceration of the webspaces between his toes. He starts taking a medication. Two days later, he experiences severe nausea and vomiting after drinking alcohol. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the drug most likely prescribed in this case?
Q30
A 64-year-old woman comes to the emergency room because of a sudden weakness in her right arm and leg. She has atrial fibrillation, tinea unguium, gastroesophageal reflux disease, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia. Current medications include warfarin, enalapril, simvastatin, lansoprazole, hydrochlorothiazide, griseofulvin, and ginkgo biloba. Two weeks ago, she had an appointment with her podiatrist. Physical examination shows sagging of her right lower face and decreased muscle strength in her right upper and lower extremity. Babinski sign is positive on the right. Her prothrombin time is 14 seconds (INR = 1.5). Which of the following drugs is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's current condition?
Antifungals US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 73-year-old man presents to the office, complaining of “weird blisters” on his right hand, which appeared 2 weeks ago. The patient says that he initially had a rash, which progressed to blisters. He denies any trauma or known contact with sick people. He is worried because he hasn’t been able to garden since the rash appeared, and he was planning on entering his roses into an annual competition this month. His vital signs are stable. On physical exam, the patient has multiple bullae accompanied by red, papular lesions on his right hand, which progress to his forearm. The right axillary lymph nodes are swollen and tender. What is the treatment for the most likely diagnosis of this patient?
A. Itraconazole (Correct Answer)
B. Azithromycin
C. Topical corticosteroids
D. Doxycycline
E. Potassium iodide solution
Explanation: ***Itraconazole***
- This patient likely has **sporotrichosis**, a subcutaneous fungal infection, given the history of **gardening** (exposure to soil/plants), **papular lesions progressing to blisters**, and **lymphatic spread** (swollen axillary lymph nodes).
- **Itraconazole** is the **first-line treatment** for cutaneous and lymphocutaneous sporotrichosis.
*Azithromycin*
- **Azithromycin** is an **antibiotic** used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections like sporotrichosis.
- It is often used for respiratory tract infections, sexually transmitted infections, and some skin infections.
*Topical corticosteroids*
- **Topical corticosteroids** are anti-inflammatory agents that would likely worsen a fungal infection by suppressing the immune response.
- They are used for inflammatory dermatoses like eczema or psoriasis and would not be effective against sporotrichosis.
*Doxycycline*
- **Doxycycline** is a broad-spectrum **antibiotic**, effective against a variety of bacterial infections, including some atypical pathogens.
- It has no antifungal activity and would not be an appropriate treatment for sporotrichosis.
*Potassium iodide solution*
- While traditionally used for sporotrichosis, **potassium iodide (KI) solution** is now considered a **second-line treatment** due to its side effects and the availability of more effective and safer antifungals like itraconazole.
- It is used only in cases where itraconazole is contraindicated or ineffective.
Question 22: A potassium hydroxide preparation is conducted on a skin scraping of the hypopigmented area. Microscopy of the preparation shows long hyphae among clusters of yeast cells. Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Topical corticosteroid
B. Oral ketoconazole
C. Topical selenium sulfide (Correct Answer)
D. Topical nystatin
E. Oral fluconazole
Explanation: ***Topical selenium sulfide***
- The presence of **long hyphae** and **clusters of yeast cells** on KOH prep is characteristic of **tinea versicolor**, caused by *Malassezia furfur*.
- **Selenium sulfide** is a common and effective topical antifungal agent for tinea versicolor, available in shampoos and lotions.
*Topical corticosteroid*
- **Corticosteroids** have anti-inflammatory properties but do not treat fungal infections.
- Using corticosteroids alone would only mask symptoms and could potentially worsen the fungal infection.
*Oral ketoconazole*
- While **oral ketoconazole** is an antifungal, it is generally reserved for extensive or recalcitrant cases of tinea versicolor due to potential systemic side effects, such as **hepatotoxicity**.
- **Topical treatments** are preferred as first-line therapy for localized infections like this one.
*Topical nystatin*
- **Nystatin** is an antifungal agent primarily effective against *Candida* species.
- It is **not effective** against *Malassezia furfur*, the causative agent of tinea versicolor.
*Oral fluconazole*
- **Oral fluconazole** is an effective systemic antifungal used for various *Candida* and dermatophyte infections.
- Similar to oral ketoconazole, it is typically reserved for **widespread or recalcitrant cases** of tinea versicolor, with topical therapy being the preferred initial approach.
Question 23: A 51-year-old man with a history of severe persistent asthma is seen today with the complaint of white patches on his tongue and inside his mouth. He says this all started a couple of weeks ago when he recently started a new medication for his asthma. The vital signs include: temperature 36.7°C (98.0°F), blood pressure 126/74 mm Hg, heart rate 74/min, and respiratory rate 14/min. His physical examination is significant for mild bilateral wheezes, and attempts at scraping off the lesions in the mouth are successful but leave erythema underlying where they were removed. Which of the following medications is responsible for his presentation?
A. Theophylline
B. Omalizumab
C. Beclomethasone inhaler (Correct Answer)
D. Salmeterol inhaler
E. Over-use of the albuterol inhaler
Explanation: ***Beclomethasone inhaler***
- The patient's oral **white patches** are consistent with **oral candidiasis (thrush)**, a common side effect of **inhaled corticosteroids** such as **beclomethasone**.
- This occurs because inhaled corticosteroids can suppress the local immune response in the oral cavity, allowing *Candida albicans* to overgrow, especially if the mouth is not rinsed after use.
*Theophylline*
- Theophylline is a **bronchodilator** and its common side effects are primarily systemic, including **nausea, vomiting, headache, and tremors**, especially at toxic levels.
- It does not typically cause oral candidiasis or white patches in the mouth.
*Omalizumab*
- Omalizumab is a **monoclonal antibody** used for **severe asthma** that targets IgE. Side effects are often related to **injection site reactions**, and in rare cases, hypersensitivity reactions.
- It is not associated with the development of oral candidiasis.
*Salmeterol inhaler*
- Salmeterol is a **long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA)** used as a bronchodilator. Common side effects include **tremor, palpitations, and headache**.
- It does not contain steroids and therefore does not cause oral candidiasis.
*Over-use of the albuterol inhaler*
- Albuterol is a **short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA)** used as a rescue inhaler. Overuse can lead to systemic effects like **tremor, tachycardia, and palpitations**.
- Like salmeterol, it is not a steroid and does not cause oral candidiasis; the white patches described are not a side effect of albuterol.
Question 24: A 24-year-old professional wrestler recently participated in a charitable tournament event in Bora Bora, a tropical island that is part of the French Polynesia Leeward Islands. During his stay, he wore tight-fitting clothes and tight bathing trunks for extended periods. After 6 days, he observed symmetric, erythematous itchy rash in his groin, with a significant amount of moisture and scales. Central areas of the rash were hyperpigmented, and the border was slightly elevated and sharply demarcated. His penis and scrotum were not affected. He immediately visited a local dermatology clinic where a specialist conducted a Wood lamp examination to exclude the presence of a bacterial infection (primary infection due to Corynebacterium minutissimum). The working diagnosis was a fungal infection. Which topical agent should be recommended to treat this patient?
A. Nystatin
B. Ketoconazole
C. Miconazole
D. Betamethasone/clotrimazole combination
E. Terbinafine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Terbinafine***
- This patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of **tinea cruris** (jock itch), a fungal infection of the groin, which is effectively treated with topical **allylamines** like terbinafine.
- **Terbinafine** acts by inhibiting **squalene epoxidase**, an enzyme essential for fungal ergosterol synthesis, leading to fungicidal activity against dermatophytes.
*Nystatin*
- **Nystatin** is a fungicide primarily effective against **Candida species**, which typically cause diaper rash or intertrigo in skin folds, characterized by satellite lesions.
- The presented description with elevated borders and scales, but unaffected penis/scrotum, is less typical for **Candidiasis**.
*Ketoconazole*
- **Ketoconazole** is an **azole antifungal** that inhibits 14-α-demethylase, an enzyme necessary for ergosterol synthesis. It is effective against dermatophytes but can be associated with skin irritation when used topically.
- While effective, **allylamines** like terbinafine are often preferred for dermatophyte infections due to their fungicidal action.
*Miconazole*
- Similar to ketoconazole, **miconazole** is an **imidazole antifungal** (an azole derivative) that inhibits ergosterol synthesis.
- While effective against dermatophytes like those causing tinea cruris, **terbinafine** is often considered more potent and achieves faster clearance for dermatophyte infections.
*Betamethasone/clotrimazole combination*
- While **clotrimazole** is an antifungal, the addition of **betamethasone** (a potent corticosteroid) is generally **contraindicated** for primary fungal infections.
- Corticosteroids can **mask the infection**, potentially worsen it by suppressing the local immune response, and lead to steroid-induced skin changes, such as atrophy.
Question 25: A 23-year-old female presents to the emergency department complaining of a worsening headache. The patient reports that the headache started one month ago. It is constant and “all over” but gets worse when she is lying down or in the setting of bright lights. Review of systems is significant for low-grade fever, night sweats, cough, malaise, poor appetite, and unintentional weight loss of 12 pounds in the last two months. The patient is sexually active with multiple male partners and reports inconsistent condom use. She has a history of intravenous drug use, and has not been to a doctor in the last two years. The patient’s temperature is 100.4°F (38.0°C), blood pressure is 110/78 mmHg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 14/min with an oxygen saturation of 98% O2 on room air. On physical exam, pain is elicited upon passive flexion of the patient’s neck. A CT scan shows ventricular enlargement. A CD4+ count is 57 cells/µL blood. A lumbar puncture is performed with the following findings:
Cerebrospinal fluid:
Opening pressure: 210 mmH2O
Glucose: 32 mg/dL
Protein: 204 mg/dL
India ink stain: Positive
Leukocyte count and differential:
Leukocyte count: 200/mm^3
Lymphocytes: 100%
Red blood cell count: 2
What is the next best step in therapy?
A. Administer fluconazole
B. Administer dexamethasone
C. Administer vancomycin and ceftriaxone
D. Administer acyclovir
E. Administer amphotericin B and 5-flucytosine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Administer amphotericin B and 5-flucytosine***
- The patient's presentation with **prolonged headache**, **night sweats**, **weight loss**, **fevers**, and **meningeal signs** in the setting of **HIV risk factors** (IV drug use, multiple sexual partners) and a **CD4 count of 57 cells/µL** is highly suggestive of an **opportunistic infection**.
- The CSF findings of **elevated opening pressure**, **low glucose**, **high protein**, predominantly **lymphocytic pleocytosis**, and a **positive India ink stain** are classic for **Cryptococcal meningitis**. The **initial treatment** for cryptococcal meningitis in immunocompromised patients is induction therapy with **Amphotericin B** and **5-flucytosine**.
*Administer fluconazole*
- **Fluconazole** is used for **consolidation** and **maintenance therapy** following initial induction therapy for cryptococcal meningitis, but it is **not sufficient for initial treatment** of severe infections like meningitis, especially in immunocompromised patients.
- Monotherapy with fluconazole would have a **higher risk of treatment failure** and relapse in this acute, severe presentation.
*Administer dexamethasone*
- **Dexamethasone** (a corticosteroid) is generally **not recommended** for the routine treatment of cryptococcal meningitis and may even be **detrimental** due to its immunosuppressive effects in an already immunocompromised patient.
- While steroids are sometimes used in other forms of meningitis (e.g., bacterial meningitis to reduce inflammation), their role in fungal meningitis is limited and can worsen outcomes.
*Administer vancomycin and ceftriaxone*
- **Vancomycin** and **ceftriaxone** are **antibiotics** used to treat **bacterial meningitis**.
- The patient's CSF findings (lymphocytic predominance, positive India ink stain) clearly indicate a **fungal infection** (**Cryptococcus**), not bacterial, rendering these antibiotics ineffective.
*Administer acyclovir*
- **Acyclovir** is an **antiviral agent** used to treat **herpes simplex virus (HSV)** and **varicella-zoster virus (VZV)** infections.
- There is **no evidence** in the CSF findings (e.g., specific viral PCR results) or clinical presentation to suggest a viral encephalitis or meningitis requiring acyclovir.
Question 26: A 43-year-old man is brought to the physician for a follow-up examination. He has a history of epilepsy that has been treated with a stable dose of phenytoin for 15 years. He was recently seen by another physician who added a drug to his medications, but he cannot recall the name. Shortly after, he started noticing occasional double vision. Physical examination shows slight vertical nystagmus and gait ataxia. Which of the following drugs was most likely added to this patient's medication regimen?
A. Omeprazole
B. Sertraline
C. St. John's Wort
D. Amiodarone (Correct Answer)
E. Fluconazole
Explanation: ***Amiodarone***
- **Amiodarone** is an individual among drugs that **inhibit cytochrome P450 enzymes**. **Phenytoin** is metabolized by CYP450, and its levels can increase significantly when a CYP450 inhibitor is co-administered, leading to phenytoin toxicity.
- The patient's symptoms of **double vision**, **vertical nystagmus**, and **gait ataxia** are classic signs of **phenytoin toxicity**.
*Fluconazole*
- **Fluconazole** is a potent inhibitor of **CYP450 enzymes**, particularly **CYP2C9** and **CYP2C19**.
- While it can increase phenytoin levels and lead to toxicity, **amiodarone** is also a strong inhibitor and is a plausible option in this context.
*Omeprazole*
- **Omeprazole** is also a **CYP2C19 inhibitor**, meaning it can reduce the metabolism of phenytoin.
- However, the effect of **omeprazole** on phenytoin levels is typically less pronounced compared to amiodarone or fluconazole, and the clinical picture points more strongly to a significant drug interaction.
*Sertraline*
- **Sertraline** is a **selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)** that can inhibit several **CYP450 enzymes**, including **CYP2D6** and to a lesser extent **CYP2C19** and **CYP3A4**.
- While it has the potential to interact with phenytoin, its inhibitory effect is generally weaker than other options and less likely to cause such severe toxicity symptoms in this scenario.
*St. John's Wort*
- **St. John's Wort** is known to be a **CYP450 inducer**, primarily **CYP3A4**.
- As an inducer, it would **decrease phenytoin levels**, potentially worsening seizure control but not causing toxicity symptoms like nystagmus and ataxia.
Question 27: A 60-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of severe, retrosternal chest pain. She also has pain when swallowing solid food and medications. She has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, poorly-controlled asthma, and osteoporosis. She was recently admitted to the hospital for an acute asthma exacerbation that was treated with bronchodilators and a 7-day course of oral corticosteroids. Her current medications include aspirin, amlodipine, metformin, insulin, beclomethasone and albuterol inhalers, and alendronate. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination of the oral pharynx appears normal. The lungs are clear to auscultation. An upper endoscopy shows a single punched-out ulcer with normal surrounding mucosa at the gastroesophageal junction. Biopsies of the ulcer are taken. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Start pantoprazole
B. Start fluconazole
C. Discontinue alendronate (Correct Answer)
D. Start ganciclovir
E. Discontinue amlodipine
Explanation: **_Discontinue alendronate (Correct)_**
- The patient's presentation with **severe retrosternal chest pain**, **odynophagia**, and a **punched-out ulcer** at the gastroesophageal junction is highly suggestive of **pill esophagitis**.
- **Alendronate**, a bisphosphonate, is a common cause of pill esophagitis due to its corrosive properties when prolonged contact with the esophageal mucosa occurs.
- The most appropriate next step is to **discontinue the offending medication** to prevent further esophageal injury and allow healing.
*Start pantoprazole (Incorrect)*
- While proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) like pantoprazole are used for **acid-related esophageal disorders** and can help with symptom relief and healing, the primary cause here is likely medication-induced.
- Adding a PPI without addressing the offending agent (alendronate) would be ineffective and not the most appropriate first step, though it may be used adjunctively.
*Start fluconazole (Incorrect)*
- **Fluconazole** is an antifungal medication indicated for **fungal esophagitis**, most commonly caused by Candida species.
- Candidal esophagitis typically presents with **multiple shallow ulcers** or white plaques, not a single punched-out ulcer, and is more common in immunocompromised individuals.
- This patient lacks risk factors for candidal infection and has a characteristic appearance of pill esophagitis.
*Start ganciclovir (Incorrect)*
- **Ganciclovir** is an antiviral medication used to treat **cytomegalovirus (CMV) esophagitis**.
- CMV esophagitis usually presents as **large, shallow ulcers** and is primarily seen in immunocompromised patients (HIV/AIDS, transplant recipients), which this patient is not.
- A brief course of oral corticosteroids does not cause sufficient immunosuppression to predispose to CMV esophagitis.
*Discontinue amlodipine (Incorrect)*
- **Amlodipine**, a calcium channel blocker, can cause **gastroesophageal reflux** by relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter, potentially contributing to reflux esophagitis.
- However, classic pill esophagitis with a discrete punched-out ulcer is almost exclusively associated with direct mucosal injury from medications like bisphosphonates, tetracyclines, or NSAIDs, rather than reflux-mediated injury alone.
Question 28: A 21-year-old African American female presents to her primary care physician reporting a history of excess hair growth. She has to shave her face and chest on a regular basis. She is sexually active and uses condoms for protection. Her last period was two months ago and she reports having 5-6 menstrual periods per year at irregular intervals. She has no past medical history and takes no medications. She drinks socially and does not smoke. Her family history is notable for heart disease in her father and endometrial cancer in her mother. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 125/85 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, and respirations are 16/min. The physician considers starting the patient on a medication that is also indicated in the treatment of histoplasmosis. This medication primary acts by inhibiting which of the following proteins?
A. 1,3-beta-glucan synthase
B. 5-alpha-reductase
C. Squalene epoxidase
D. Aromatase
E. Desmolase (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Desmolase***
- The clinical presentation of **hirsutism** and **oligomenorrhea** in an African American female is highly suggestive of **polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)**.
- **Ketoconazole**, an antifungal medication used for histoplasmosis, also non-selectively inhibits **cytochrome P450 enzymes**, including **desmolase (P450scc)**, which is crucial for **androgen synthesis** in the ovaries and adrenal glands, thereby reducing hirsutism.
*1,3-beta-glucan synthase*
- This enzyme is targeted by **echinocandins** (e.g., caspofungin), which inhibit **cell wall synthesis** in fungi.
- **Ketoconazole** does not act on 1,3-beta-glucan synthase; its primary antifungal mechanism is inhibiting **ergosterol synthesis**.
*5-alpha-reductase*
- This enzyme converts **testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT)**, a more potent androgen.
- While 5-alpha-reductase inhibitors like **finasteride** can be used to treat hirsutism, **ketoconazole** does not primarily exert its anti-androgenic effects via this pathway.
*Squalene epoxidase*
- This enzyme is inhibited by **allylamines** like **terbinafine**, which are antifungal agents that disrupt **ergosterol synthesis** at an earlier step than azoles.
- **Ketoconazole** inhibits 14-alpha-demethylase, a different enzyme in the ergosterol synthesis pathway.
*Aromatase*
- **Aromatase** converts androgens to estrogens. Inhibitors like **anastrozole** are used in breast cancer treatment to reduce estrogen levels.
- While some azole antifungals can have minor effects on aromatase, it is not the primary target for ketoconazole's anti-androgenic action in treating hirsutism.
Question 29: A 25-year-old man visits a local clinic while volunteering abroad to rebuild homes after a natural disaster. He reports that he has been experiencing an intermittent rash on his feet for several weeks that is associated with occasional itching and burning. He states that he has been working in wet conditions in work boots and often does not get a chance to remove them until just before going to bed. On physical exam, there is diffuse erythema and maceration of the webspaces between his toes. He starts taking a medication. Two days later, he experiences severe nausea and vomiting after drinking alcohol. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of the drug most likely prescribed in this case?
A. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B. Inhibition of steroid synthesis
C. Inhibition of DNA synthesis
D. Cell arrest at metaphase
E. Disruption of fungal cell membrane
F. Cell arrest at metaphase (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cell arrest at metaphase***
- The patient's clinical presentation (intermittent rash, itching, burning on feet, erythema and maceration of toe webspaces, prolonged wet conditions in work boots) is characteristic of **tinea pedis** (athlete's foot), a dermatophyte fungal infection.
- The **disulfiram-like reaction** (severe nausea and vomiting after alcohol consumption) is a classic adverse effect of **griseofulvin**, an oral antifungal commonly used for dermatophyte infections including tinea pedis.
- **Griseofulvin's mechanism of action**: Interferes with fungal **microtubule function** by disrupting the mitotic spindle, causing **cell cycle arrest at metaphase** and inhibiting fungal cell division.
- Griseofulvin also disrupts nucleic acid synthesis and inhibits fungal mitosis, making it fungistatic against dermatophytes.
*Disruption of fungal cell membrane*
- This mechanism describes **azole antifungals** (ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole) which inhibit ergosterol synthesis, and **polyene antifungals** (amphotericin B, nystatin) which bind to ergosterol.
- While azoles can also cause disulfiram-like reactions (particularly ketoconazole), the mechanism of cell arrest at metaphase is more specific to griseofulvin, which is the first-line oral agent for tinea pedis in many cases.
- **Allylamines** (terbinafine) also disrupt the membrane by inhibiting squalene epoxidase but do not cause disulfiram-like reactions.
*Inhibition of steroid synthesis*
- This describes **azole antifungals** that inhibit fungal **ergosterol synthesis** (a steroid component of fungal cell membranes) by blocking 14-α-demethylase.
- While ketoconazole can cause disulfiram-like reactions, the question stem points more specifically to griseofulvin given the classic presentation and reaction pattern.
*Inhibition of DNA synthesis*
- This mechanism describes **flucytosine** (5-FC), a pyrimidine analog that inhibits fungal DNA and RNA synthesis.
- Flucytosine is used primarily for systemic mycoses (Cryptococcus, Candida) in combination with amphotericin B, not for dermatophyte infections like tinea pedis.
- It does not cause disulfiram-like reactions with alcohol.
*Inhibition of cell wall synthesis*
- This mechanism is characteristic of **antibacterial agents** (penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin) that target bacterial peptidoglycan cell walls.
- While fungi have cell walls made of chitin and glucans, and **echinocandins** (caspofungin, micafungin) inhibit fungal cell wall synthesis by blocking β-1,3-glucan synthase, these agents are used for invasive candidiasis and aspergillosis, not tinea pedis.
- Echinocandins do not cause disulfiram-like reactions.
Question 30: A 64-year-old woman comes to the emergency room because of a sudden weakness in her right arm and leg. She has atrial fibrillation, tinea unguium, gastroesophageal reflux disease, hypertension, and hypercholesterolemia. Current medications include warfarin, enalapril, simvastatin, lansoprazole, hydrochlorothiazide, griseofulvin, and ginkgo biloba. Two weeks ago, she had an appointment with her podiatrist. Physical examination shows sagging of her right lower face and decreased muscle strength in her right upper and lower extremity. Babinski sign is positive on the right. Her prothrombin time is 14 seconds (INR = 1.5). Which of the following drugs is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's current condition?
A. Ginkgo biloba
B. Lansoprazole
C. Enalapril
D. Griseofulvin (Correct Answer)
E. Simvastatin
Explanation: ***Griseofulvin***
- Has been shown to **reduce the effectiveness of warfarin** by inducing hepatic enzymes, leading to a subtherapeutic INR and increased risk of thrombotic events like stroke.
- The patient's **INR of 1.5 is subtherapeutic** for atrial fibrillation, which normally requires an INR between 2.0 and 3.0 to prevent stroke.
*Ginkgo biloba*
- Is known to **increase the risk of bleeding** when taken with anticoagulants like warfarin, potentially leading to a higher INR and hemorrhagic stroke.
- In this case, the patient's **INR is subtherapeutic**, which points away from a bleeding diathesis caused by ginkgo biloba.
*Lansoprazole*
- While it can interact with warfarin, **proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)** typically **increase the INR** by inhibiting warfarin metabolism, increasing bleeding risk.
- The patient's **subtherapeutic INR** makes lansoprazole less likely to be the cause of the thrombotic event.
*Enalapril*
- As an **ACE inhibitor**, enalapril generally has **no significant direct interaction with warfarin** that would lead to a subtherapeutic INR or increased stroke risk in this way.
- It is primarily used for hypertension and heart failure, and its effects would not explain the observed subtherapeutic INR and thrombotic stroke.
*Simvastatin*
- Can **increase the effect of warfarin** by inhibiting its metabolism, leading to an **elevated INR** and increased bleeding risk.
- The patient's **low INR** suggests that simvastatin is not the cause of the subtherapeutic anticoagulation or stroke.