A 9-year-old girl presents with a 3-week history of cough. Her mother reports that initially, she had a runny nose and was tired, with a slight cough, but as the runny nose resolved, the cough seemed to get worse. She further states that the cough is dry sounding and occurs during the day and night. She describes having coughing spasms that occasionally end in vomiting, but between episodes of coughing she is fine. She reports that during a coughing spasm, her daughter will gasp for air and sometimes make a “whooping” noise. A nasopharyngeal swab confirms a diagnosis of Bordetella pertussis. Which of the following statements apply to this patient?
Q42
An 18-month-old girl is brought to the emergency department because of stiffening and jerking movements that began in her right arm and then spread to involve her whole body, followed by unresponsiveness that occurred 1 hour ago. Her symptoms lasted < 10 minutes. She has had coryza for 24 hours without any fever. She had an episode of a febrile generalized tonic-clonic seizure 6 months ago. Her past medical history has otherwise been unremarkable. Her vaccination history is up to date. Her uncle has epilepsy. Her temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F). Other than nasal congestion, physical examination shows no abnormal findings. Which of the following factors most strongly indicates the occurrence of subsequent epilepsy?
Q43
An 18-month-old boy is brought to the doctor’s office for evaluation of abdominal pain. The boy looks emaciated and he is now significantly below his growth chart predicted weight. The family history is non-contributory. The vital signs are unremarkable. On physical examination, a non-tender mass is felt in the upper part of the abdomen. A magnetic resonance image (MRI) scan of his abdomen demonstrates a mass in his right adrenal gland. Biopsy of the mass demonstrates an abundance of small round blue cells. With this biopsy result, which 1 of the following findings would confirm the diagnosis?
Q44
A 7-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents because of a new rash. The family immigrated from Laos one year ago and recently obtained health insurance. A week ago, the boy stated that he was “not feeling well” and asked to stay home from school. At the time, he starting having cough, nasal congestion, and irritated eyes – symptoms that persisted and intensified. His parents recall that at the time they noticed small whitish-blue papules over the red buccal mucosa opposite his molars. Five days ago, his parents noticed a red rash around his face that quickly spread downward to cover most of his arms, trunk, and then legs. His temperature is 102.5°F (39.2°C), blood pressure is 110/85 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations 25/min. On physical exam, he has intermittent cough, cervical lymphadenopathy, and nonpurulent conjunctivitis accompanied by a confluent, dark red rash over his body. This patient is at risk for which of the following complications later in life?
Q45
An 11-month-old boy is brought to the physician for the evaluation of recurrent otitis media since birth. The patient’s immunizations are up-to-date. He is at the 5th percentile for height and weight. Physical examination shows multiple petechiae and several eczematous lesions over the scalp and extremities. The remainder of the examination reveals no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 9,600/mm3 (61% neutrophils and 24% lymphocytes), a platelet count of 29,000/mm3, and an increased serum IgE concentration. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q46
A 3-year-old girl is brought to the physician because of a cough for 2 days. The cough occurs as paroxysmal spells, with vomiting sometimes occurring afterwards. She takes a deep breath after these spells that makes a whooping sound. She has been unable to sleep well because of the cough. She had a runny nose and low-grade fever 1 week ago. She was admitted at the age of 9 months for bronchiolitis. Her immunizations are incomplete, as her parents are afraid of vaccine-related complications. She attends a daycare center but there have been no other children who have similar symptoms. She appears well. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Her hemoglobin concentration is 13.3 g/dL, leukocyte count is 41,000/mm3, platelet count is 230,000/mm3 and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 31 mm/hr. An x-ray of the chest is unremarkable. The patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
Q47
An 11-month-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his mother due to fever and tugging at his right ear. The mother says that he is currently irritable with a mild fever. About 1 week ago, he had a mild cough, mild fever, body aches, and a runny nose. He was treated with children's Tylenol and the symptoms resolved after a few days. The child lives in an apartment with his mother, grandmother, and father. His grandmother watches him during the day. There have been no sick contacts at home. His father smokes cigarettes on the balcony. There is no pertinent family history. He was born full term by spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is progressing through his developmental milestones and is up to date on his vaccines. His temperature is 39.3°C (102.7°F), pulse is 122/min, and respirations are 24/min. The child appears cranky and requires consoling during the physical exam. His heart and lung exam are normal. He has a red and mildly swollen right ear. Otoscopic evaluation of the right ear reveals the finding shown in the image below. Which of the following most likely contributed to this patient's condition?
Q48
A 5-month-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother because of poor weight gain and chronic diarrhea. He has had 3 episodes of otitis media since birth. Pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated but his mother received no prenatal care. His immunizations are up-to-date. He is at the 10th percentile for height and 5th percentile for weight. Physical examination shows thick white plaques on the surface of his tongue that can be easily scraped off with a tongue blade. Administration of which of the following is most likely to have prevented this patient's condition?
Q49
A 2-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician with complaints of fever and a skin rash for the past 2 days. The boy was born by normal vaginal delivery at full term, and his neonatal period was uneventful. He has a history of severe pain in his legs and difficulty eating. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.4°F), pulse is 102/min, and respiratory rate is 22/min. Physical examination shows multiple papules on the hands, feet, and trunk. His neurologic examination shows decreased muscle strength in the lower limbs. On intraoral examination, multiple reddish 2 mm macules are present on the hard palate. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
Q50
A 9-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father for dysuria, genital pruritus, and vaginal discharge. Cultures of the discharge are sent, revealing the causative agent to be a Gram-negative glucose-fermenting, non-maltose fermenting diplococci. Which of the following steps should the physician follow next?
Infectious Disease US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: A 9-year-old girl presents with a 3-week history of cough. Her mother reports that initially, she had a runny nose and was tired, with a slight cough, but as the runny nose resolved, the cough seemed to get worse. She further states that the cough is dry sounding and occurs during the day and night. She describes having coughing spasms that occasionally end in vomiting, but between episodes of coughing she is fine. She reports that during a coughing spasm, her daughter will gasp for air and sometimes make a “whooping” noise. A nasopharyngeal swab confirms a diagnosis of Bordetella pertussis. Which of the following statements apply to this patient?
A. She should be started on azithromycin for more rapid resolution of cough.
B. Her classmates should be treated with clarithromycin as prophylaxis.
C. She will have lifelong natural immunity against Bordetella pertussis.
D. Her 3-month-old brother should be treated with azithromycin as prophylaxis. (Correct Answer)
E. Her classmates should receive a Tdap booster regardless of their vaccination status.
Explanation: ***Her 3-month-old brother should be treated with azithromycin as prophylaxis.***
- The patient's 3-month-old brother is at a very high risk of severe pertussis due to his age and direct exposure, making **post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)** crucial.
- **Azithromycin** is the recommended antibiotic for PEP in infants due to its efficacy and safety profile.
*She should be started on azithromycin for more rapid resolution of cough.*
- While **azithromycin** is the recommended treatment for pertussis, it is primarily effective in reducing the transmission of *Bordetella pertussis* if started early in the **catarrhal stage**.
- Once the patient is in the **paroxysmal (whooping cough) stage**, as described by the 3-week cough and "whooping" noises, antibiotics **do not significantly shorten the duration or severity of the cough**.
*Her classmates should be treated with clarithromycin as prophylaxis.*
- **Classmates** are generally considered at lower risk for severe disease compared to household contacts, and routine prophylaxis for an entire classroom is not typically recommended unless there is a specific outbreak investigation or direct close contact.
- If prophylaxis were considered for close contacts, **azithromycin** is generally preferred over clarithromycin in children due to fewer drug interactions and a more convenient dosing schedule.
*She will have lifelong natural immunity against Bordetella pertussis.*
- **Natural immunity** following a pertussis infection is not lifelong; it wanes over time, typically within a few years.
- This is why **booster vaccinations (Tdap)** are recommended for adolescents and adults to maintain protection.
*Her classmates should receive a Tdap booster regardless of their vaccination status.*
- **Tdap boosters** are recommended for adolescents and adults, but giving a booster *regardless of vaccination status* to all classmates is not the standard immediate public health response for isolated pertussis cases.
- Public health guidance often focuses on identifying and vaccinating **unvaccinated** or **under-vaccinated close contacts**, rather than providing universal boosters for an entire class.
Question 42: An 18-month-old girl is brought to the emergency department because of stiffening and jerking movements that began in her right arm and then spread to involve her whole body, followed by unresponsiveness that occurred 1 hour ago. Her symptoms lasted < 10 minutes. She has had coryza for 24 hours without any fever. She had an episode of a febrile generalized tonic-clonic seizure 6 months ago. Her past medical history has otherwise been unremarkable. Her vaccination history is up to date. Her uncle has epilepsy. Her temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F). Other than nasal congestion, physical examination shows no abnormal findings. Which of the following factors most strongly indicates the occurrence of subsequent epilepsy?
A. Seizure within 1 hour of fever onset
B. Recurrence of seizure within 24 hours
C. History of prior febrile seizure
D. Family history of epilepsy
E. Focal seizure (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Focal seizure***
- A **focal onset febrile seizure** is the strongest predictor of subsequent epilepsy among the listed risk factors.
- Focal features suggest a **localized area of abnormal brain activity**, indicating an underlying neurological predisposition that increases the likelihood of unprovoked seizures.
- While most febrile seizures are generalized and benign, **focal onset** represents a complex febrile seizure and carries a significantly higher risk of epilepsy development.
*Seizure within 1 hour of fever onset*
- A **brief interval between fever onset and seizure** (especially <1 hour) is actually considered a risk factor for subsequent epilepsy, as it suggests a lower seizure threshold.
- However, in this context, the **focal nature of the seizure** is a more direct and stronger predictor than timing alone.
- This factor is less specific compared to the structural/functional implications of focal seizure activity.
*Recurrence of seizure within 24 hours*
- **Multiple seizures within 24 hours** during the same febrile illness represent another feature of complex febrile seizures.
- While this increases epilepsy risk compared to simple febrile seizures, it is not as strong a predictor as **focal onset** in determining future epilepsy development.
- Recurrent seizures during fever primarily indicate susceptibility to further febrile seizures.
*History of prior febrile seizure*
- A history of prior febrile seizures increases the risk of **recurrent febrile seizures** (up to 30-50% recurrence rate).
- However, most children with recurrent febrile seizures do **not** develop epilepsy (risk ~2-5%).
- The presence of **complex features** (like focal onset) in the current seizure is a stronger predictor than simply having had a prior febrile seizure.
*Family history of epilepsy*
- A **positive family history of epilepsy** confers increased risk, suggesting genetic predisposition.
- However, in the context of febrile seizures, **focal seizure characteristics** represent direct evidence of underlying neurological vulnerability and are considered a stronger predictor of epilepsy than family history alone.
- Family history is more relevant when there are no complex features present.
Question 43: An 18-month-old boy is brought to the doctor’s office for evaluation of abdominal pain. The boy looks emaciated and he is now significantly below his growth chart predicted weight. The family history is non-contributory. The vital signs are unremarkable. On physical examination, a non-tender mass is felt in the upper part of the abdomen. A magnetic resonance image (MRI) scan of his abdomen demonstrates a mass in his right adrenal gland. Biopsy of the mass demonstrates an abundance of small round blue cells. With this biopsy result, which 1 of the following findings would confirm the diagnosis?
A. Elevation of vanillylmandelic acid in the urine (Correct Answer)
B. MRI showing the intrarenal origin of the mass
C. Increased lactic dehydrogenase
D. Increased alpha-fetoprotein
E. Radiograph of the bone showing the presence of lytic bone lesion with periosteal reaction
Explanation: ***Elevation of vanillylmandelic acid in the urine***
- The clinical presentation (abdominal mass, emaciation, age) and biopsy finding of **small round blue cells** in the adrenal gland are highly suggestive of **neuroblastoma**.
- **Neuroblastomas** arise from neural crest cells and characteristically produce **catecholamines**, leading to elevated urinary levels of their metabolites like **vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)** and **homovanillic acid (HVA)**.
*MRI showing the intrarenal origin of the mass*
- An **intrarenal origin** of the mass would suggest a **Wilms tumor** (nephroblastoma), which is another common pediatric abdominal malignancy.
- However, the mass is described as being in the **adrenal gland**, and the biopsy shows small round blue cells, which are characteristic of neuroblastoma rather than Wilms tumor.
*Increased lactic dehydrogenase*
- Elevated **lactic dehydrogenase (LDH)** is a non-specific tumor marker often associated with a high tumor burden and rapid cell turnover in various malignancies, including neuroblastoma.
- While it can be elevated in neuroblastoma, it is not a specific diagnostic marker and would not confirm the diagnosis over other pediatric cancers.
*Increased alpha-fetoprotein*
- Elevated **alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** is primarily associated with **hepatoblastoma** and **germ cell tumors**.
- It is not typically elevated in neuroblastoma and would therefore not confirm this diagnosis.
*Radiograph of the bone showing the presence of lytic bone lesion with periosteal reaction*
- While **neuroblastoma** can metastasize to bones, causing **lytic bone lesions** and a periosteal reaction, these findings indicate metastatic disease rather than confirming the primary diagnosis.
- A bone radiograph showing such lesions points to advanced disease but doesn't specifically confirm neuroblastoma as the primary tumor type.
Question 44: A 7-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his parents because of a new rash. The family immigrated from Laos one year ago and recently obtained health insurance. A week ago, the boy stated that he was “not feeling well” and asked to stay home from school. At the time, he starting having cough, nasal congestion, and irritated eyes – symptoms that persisted and intensified. His parents recall that at the time they noticed small whitish-blue papules over the red buccal mucosa opposite his molars. Five days ago, his parents noticed a red rash around his face that quickly spread downward to cover most of his arms, trunk, and then legs. His temperature is 102.5°F (39.2°C), blood pressure is 110/85 mmHg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations 25/min. On physical exam, he has intermittent cough, cervical lymphadenopathy, and nonpurulent conjunctivitis accompanied by a confluent, dark red rash over his body. This patient is at risk for which of the following complications later in life?
A. CNS degeneration (Correct Answer)
B. Nonreactive pupils
C. Monoarticular arthritis
D. Valvular heart disease
E. B cell neoplasm
Explanation: ***CNS degeneration***
- The patient's symptoms are highly suggestive of **measles (rubeola)**, characterized by **Koplik spots**, **coryza**, **conjunctivitis**, and a **descending maculopapular rash**.
- A rare but devastating late complication of measles is **subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)**, a progressive **CNS degenerative disease** that occurs years after the initial infection.
*Nonreactive pupils*
- **Nonreactive pupils**, or Argyll Robertson pupils, are a classic sign of **neurosyphilis** and are not associated with measles infection.
- This symptom points to damage to specific pathways in the brain affecting pupillary reflexes.
*Monoarticular arthritis*
- **Monoarticular arthritis** is typically seen in conditions like **juvenile idiopathic arthritis**, **septic arthritis**, or **Lyme disease**, not as a direct complication of measles.
- While arthritis can occur in measles, it is usually polyarticular and transient, not a chronic monoarticular condition.
*Valvular heart disease*
- **Valvular heart disease**, particularly **rheumatic heart disease**, is a long-term complication of **streptococcal infections (rheumatic fever)** and is not associated with measles.
- **Kawasaki disease** can also cause coronary artery aneurysms, but the clinical presentation here is classic for measles.
*B cell neoplasm*
- **B-cell neoplasms** (e.g., lymphomas, leukemias) are not directly linked to measles infection.
- While measles can cause temporary immunosuppression, it does not typically lead to long-term hematological malignancies.
Question 45: An 11-month-old boy is brought to the physician for the evaluation of recurrent otitis media since birth. The patient’s immunizations are up-to-date. He is at the 5th percentile for height and weight. Physical examination shows multiple petechiae and several eczematous lesions over the scalp and extremities. The remainder of the examination reveals no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 9,600/mm3 (61% neutrophils and 24% lymphocytes), a platelet count of 29,000/mm3, and an increased serum IgE concentration. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome
B. Chronic granulomatous disease
C. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (Correct Answer)
D. Severe combined immunodeficiency
E. Hyper-IgE syndrome
Explanation: ***Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome***
- This syndrome is characterized by the classic triad of **thrombocytopenia** (platelet count 29,000/mm³), **eczema** (eczematous lesions), and **recurrent infections** (recurrent otitis media since birth).
- Patients also typically present with **petechiae** due to low platelet counts and **small platelet size**, which is a key diagnostic feature, along with elevated IgE levels.
*Chédiak-Higashi syndrome*
- This syndrome presents with **recurrent pyogenic infections**, **oculocutaneous albinism**, and **neurological abnormalities**, which are not described in this patient.
- While it features immune dysfunction, the specific triad of thrombocytopenia, eczema, and otitis media with elevated IgE is not characteristic.
*Chronic granulomatous disease*
- This condition is characterized by the inability of phagocytes to produce a **respiratory burst**, leading to recurrent infections with **catalase-positive organisms** and **granuloma formation**.
- It does not typically present with the severe thrombocytopenia or eczema seen in this patient.
*Severe combined immunodeficiency*
- SCID is characterized by profound defects in **T-cell and B-cell function**, leading to severe, life-threatening infections and **failure to thrive**.
- While recurrent infections are present, the specific features of thrombocytopenia, eczema, and elevated IgE levels are not typical presentations of SCID.
*Hyper-IgE syndrome*
- Also known as Job's syndrome, it is characterized by extremely high serum **IgE levels**, **eczema**, and recurrent **staphylococcal skin abscesses** and **pneumonia**.
- While eczema and elevated IgE are present, thrombocytopenia and petechiae are not characteristic features of Hyper-IgE syndrome.
Question 46: A 3-year-old girl is brought to the physician because of a cough for 2 days. The cough occurs as paroxysmal spells, with vomiting sometimes occurring afterwards. She takes a deep breath after these spells that makes a whooping sound. She has been unable to sleep well because of the cough. She had a runny nose and low-grade fever 1 week ago. She was admitted at the age of 9 months for bronchiolitis. Her immunizations are incomplete, as her parents are afraid of vaccine-related complications. She attends a daycare center but there have been no other children who have similar symptoms. She appears well. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. Her hemoglobin concentration is 13.3 g/dL, leukocyte count is 41,000/mm3, platelet count is 230,000/mm3 and erythrocyte sedimentation rate is 31 mm/hr. An x-ray of the chest is unremarkable. The patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?
A. Pericarditis
B. Asthma
C. Pneumothorax (Correct Answer)
D. Hemolytic anemia
E. Hemoptysis
Explanation: ***Pneumothorax***
- The **paroxysmal coughing spells** in pertussis (whooping cough) can lead to profoundly increased intrathoracic pressure. This pressure, especially during violent coughing, can cause the rupture of alveoli or small bronchial structures, leading to air leakage into the pleural space and resulting in a **pneumothorax**.
- Other pulmonary complications of severe pertussis include **pneumonia** and atelectasis, which are favored by the high leukocyte count without other signs of bacterial infection.
*Pericarditis*
- This is an **inflammation of the pericardium**, typically associated with viral infections, autoimmune diseases, or cardiac events.
- There is no direct evidence or common mechanism linking the severe coughing of pertussis to the development of pericarditis.
*Asthma*
- While bronchiolitis in infancy can increase the risk of developing **asthma-like symptoms** later in childhood, pertussis itself does not directly cause asthma.
- The current symptoms are acute and infectious, whereas asthma is a chronic inflammatory airway disease characterized by **reversible airflow obstruction** and hyperresponsiveness.
*Hemolytic anemia*
- This condition involves the **premature destruction of red blood cells**, which can be caused by various genetic, autoimmune, or drug-induced factors.
- There is no pathological link between pertussis infection and the development of hemolytic anemia.
*Hemoptysis*
- **Hemoptysis** (coughing up blood) can occur with severe coughing due to irritation or minor trauma to the airways, but it is not a direct or typically severe complication of classic pertussis.
- While possible in very severe cases, it is less common and less life-threatening than pulmonary complications like pneumothorax or pneumonia.
Question 47: An 11-month-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his mother due to fever and tugging at his right ear. The mother says that he is currently irritable with a mild fever. About 1 week ago, he had a mild cough, mild fever, body aches, and a runny nose. He was treated with children's Tylenol and the symptoms resolved after a few days. The child lives in an apartment with his mother, grandmother, and father. His grandmother watches him during the day. There have been no sick contacts at home. His father smokes cigarettes on the balcony. There is no pertinent family history. He was born full term by spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is progressing through his developmental milestones and is up to date on his vaccines. His temperature is 39.3°C (102.7°F), pulse is 122/min, and respirations are 24/min. The child appears cranky and requires consoling during the physical exam. His heart and lung exam are normal. He has a red and mildly swollen right ear. Otoscopic evaluation of the right ear reveals the finding shown in the image below. Which of the following most likely contributed to this patient's condition?
A. Immunodeficiency
B. Trisomy 21
C. Day care exposure
D. Second hand smoke (Correct Answer)
E. Cystic Fibrosis
Explanation: ***Second-hand smoke***
- Exposure to **second-hand smoke** is a significant risk factor for recurrent **otitis media** (middle ear infection) in children due to its irritant effects on the Eustachian tube and respiratory epithelium.
- The father's smoking on the balcony still exposes the child to smoke via transfer on clothing and residual air pollution, contributing to respiratory tract inflammation and ear infections.
*Immunodeficiency*
- While immunodeficiency can cause recurrent infections, there is no information in the vignette to suggest the child has a compromised immune system.
- The child is up-to-date on vaccines and has met developmental milestones, making a primary immunodeficiency less likely without further indicators.
*Trisomy 21*
- Children with **Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)** have an increased incidence of ear infections due to craniofacial abnormalities and Eustachian tube dysfunction.
- However, there are no phenotypic features or developmental delays mentioned in the vignette that would suggest Trisomy 21.
*Day care exposure*
- **Daycare attendance** increases exposure to common childhood infections, including those that can lead to otitis media.
- The vignette states that the child is watched by his grandmother during the day and there are "no sick contacts at home," which makes direct daycare exposure unlikely.
*Cystic Fibrosis*
- **Cystic Fibrosis** primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems, leading to thick mucus production and recurrent pulmonary infections.
- While it can cause nasal polyps and sinusitis, it is not typically associated with an increased risk of acute otitis media as a primary manifestation without other classic symptoms.
Question 48: A 5-month-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother because of poor weight gain and chronic diarrhea. He has had 3 episodes of otitis media since birth. Pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated but his mother received no prenatal care. His immunizations are up-to-date. He is at the 10th percentile for height and 5th percentile for weight. Physical examination shows thick white plaques on the surface of his tongue that can be easily scraped off with a tongue blade. Administration of which of the following is most likely to have prevented this patient's condition?
A. Penicillin G
B. Zidovudine (Correct Answer)
C. Ganciclovir
D. Fluconazole
E. Rifampin
Explanation: ***Zidovudine***
- The constellation of poor weight gain, chronic diarrhea, recurrent otitis media, and oral thrush (white plaques scraped off tongue) in an infant whose mother received no prenatal care strongly suggests **perinatal HIV infection**.
- **Zidovudine (AZT)** administered to the mother during pregnancy and labor, and to the neonate post-delivery, is crucial for preventing **mother-to-child transmission (MTCT) of HIV**.
*Penicillin G*
- This antibiotic is primarily used to prevent early-onset **Group B Streptococcus (GBS)** infection in neonates when administered to the mother intrapartum.
- GBS infection typically presents as sepsis, pneumonia, or meningitis shortly after birth, which is not consistent with this patient's chronic presentation.
*Ganciclovir*
- This antiviral medication is specific for preventing or treating **cytomegalovirus (CMV)** infections, particularly in immunocompromised individuals.
- While CMV can cause congenital infections with varied symptoms, recurrent otitis media and oral thrush are less typical primary manifestations compared to HIV.
*Fluconazole*
- This is an antifungal medication used to treat **candidal infections**, such as the oral thrush seen in this patient.
- While it would treat the symptom, it does not prevent the underlying immunodeficiency (HIV) that predisposes the patient to recurrent infections.
*Rifampin*
- **Rifampin** is an antibiotic primarily used for the prophylaxis or treatment of **tuberculosis (TB)** and sometimes for meningococcal prophylaxis.
- There is no clinical indication in the patient's presentation to suggest TB or meningococcal disease.
Question 49: A 2-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician with complaints of fever and a skin rash for the past 2 days. The boy was born by normal vaginal delivery at full term, and his neonatal period was uneventful. He has a history of severe pain in his legs and difficulty eating. His temperature is 38.6°C (101.4°F), pulse is 102/min, and respiratory rate is 22/min. Physical examination shows multiple papules on the hands, feet, and trunk. His neurologic examination shows decreased muscle strength in the lower limbs. On intraoral examination, multiple reddish 2 mm macules are present on the hard palate. Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?
A. Parvovirus B19
B. Coxsackievirus (Correct Answer)
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Varicella-zoster virus
E. Herpes simplex virus
Explanation: ***Coxsackievirus***
- The presentation of fever, body rash, and intraoral lesions on the hard palate with leg pain and muscle weakness strongly points to **hand-foot-and-mouth disease (HFMD)**, commonly caused by **Coxsackievirus A16** or **Enterovirus 71**.
- HFMD is characterized by **vesicular or papular rash** on the hands, feet, and buttocks, along with oral lesions (herpangina), and can sometimes present with neurological symptoms like muscle weakness due to viral myositis or rare neurological complications.
*Parvovirus B19*
- **Parvovirus B19** causes Erythema Infectiosum (**fifth disease**), characterized by a "slapped cheek" rash followed by a lacy, reticular rash on the trunk and extremities.
- It is not typically associated with prominent oral lesions on the hard palate or significant myalgia and muscle weakness in this manner.
*Cytomegalovirus*
- **Cytomegalovirus (CMV)** typically causes a mononucleosis-like illness in immunocompetent children or can be associated with congenital infections.
- It does not present with the specific rash distribution on hands, feet, and trunk, nor the characteristic oral lesions seen in this case.
*Varicella-zoster virus*
- **Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)** causes **chickenpox**, which presents as a generalized vesicular rash that begins on the trunk and spreads outwards, with lesions in various stages of healing ("dewdrops on a rose petal").
- The rash in the question is described as papular and specifically on hands, feet, and trunk and oral macules, which is not typical for chickenpox.
*Herpes simplex virus*
- **Herpes simplex virus (HSV)** typically causes localized lesions like **gingivostomatitis** (cold sores) around the mouth or genital herpes.
- While oral lesions can occur, a widespread papular rash on the hands, feet, and trunk, along with muscle weakness, is not a typical presentation for HSV.
Question 50: A 9-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her father for dysuria, genital pruritus, and vaginal discharge. Cultures of the discharge are sent, revealing the causative agent to be a Gram-negative glucose-fermenting, non-maltose fermenting diplococci. Which of the following steps should the physician follow next?
A. Treat the child with antibiotics and schedule a follow up
B. Contact Child Protective Services (Correct Answer)
C. Discuss with the father that the child is being sexually abused
D. Contact the mother instead of the father
E. Tell the father that the child needs antibiotics to treat the bacterial infection
Explanation: ***Contact Child Protective Services***
- The presence of **Gram-negative, glucose-fermenting, non-maltose fermenting diplococci** in a prepubertal girl indicates an infection with **Neisseria gonorrhoeae**.
- In children, **gonorrhea** is almost exclusively transmitted through **sexual abuse**, requiring immediate reporting to **Child Protective Services**.
*Treat the child with antibiotics and schedule a follow up*
- While **antibiotic treatment** is necessary for the infection, it does **not address the underlying cause** in a child, which is highly suggestive of sexual abuse.
- Prioritizing treatment over safety reporting can **endanger the child** further.
*Discuss with the father that the child is being sexually abused*
- Directly confronting the father with an accusation of sexual abuse is generally **inappropriate and potentially dangerous**, especially since he may be the perpetrator or complicit.
- The correct protocol is to report to **Child Protective Services**, who are trained to investigate such situations.
*Contact the mother instead of the father*
- While involving the mother may be necessary as part of the overall process, the **immediate priority** is ensuring the child's safety by contacting **Child Protective Services**, regardless of which parent is present.
- This decision should be made by the **Child Protective Services** investigators.
*Tell the father that the child needs antibiotics to treat the bacterial infection*
- This response **minimizes the seriousness** of the diagnosis in a child and fails to acknowledge the high probability of sexual abuse.
- Focusing solely on treatment would bypass the critical step of **safeguarding the child** from harm.