An 18-month-old boy is brought to the physician for a well-child examination. His mother is concerned because he is unable to walk on his own. He has been increasingly irritable over the past month, has been feeding poorly, and has had multiple episodes of vomiting. His immunizations are up-to-date. He is at the 50th percentile for height, 40th percentile for weight, and 98th percentile for head circumference. He appears lethargic. His vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a bulging anterior fontanelle. The child is unable to stand without support and falls if he attempts to walk. Muscle tone is increased and deep tendon reflexes are 4+ in the lower extremities. Examination of the back is unremarkable. An MRI of the brain shows symmetrical enlargement of all four ventricles. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment in this patient?
Q72
A newborn infant is resuscitated and transferred to the neonatal intensive care unit. The infant has notable limb deformities as well as low-set ears and a flattened nose. He was born at 34 weeks gestation to a healthy mother who received regular obstetric follow-up. Resuscitation was notable for difficulty maintaining oxygenation in the newborn. Despite appropriate interventions, the infant is still struggling to maintain adequate oxygenation. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this patient's symptoms?
Q73
A 6-month-old male presents with a painless, enlarged left scrotum. After examining the patient, you suspect this enlargement is secondary to serous fluid entering and accumulating in the scrotum through a patent processus vaginalis. Which of the following would be the most useful next step in confirming the diagnosis of this patient’s condition?
Q74
A 5-year-old boy is brought to his neurologist for continued treatment of muscle spasms. His past medical history is significant for a brain abnormality that was detected neonatally when it presented with an enlarged posterior fossa as well as a malformed cerebellar vermis. Since birth, he has had developmental delay, high muscle tone, difficulty with coordination, and speech delay. He has been treated with a number of therapies to relax his muscle tone such as baclofen. Which of the following conditions is associated with this patient's most likely condition?
Q75
A 2-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother because of an 8-hour history of difficulty feeding and decreased arousability. His mother says that the symptoms began after he rolled over and fell from the bed. His vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows tense fontanelles. Fundoscopy shows bilateral optic disc swelling with dot-and-blot hemorrhages extending to the ora serrata. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q76
A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her parents for a 1-year history of gradual loss of speech and motor skills. Pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated, and development was normal until the age of 3 years. Her parents say she used to run and speak in short sentences but now is only able to walk slowly and cannot form sentences. She avoids eye contact and constantly rubs her hands together. There are no dysmorphic facial features. Neurologic examination shows marked cognitive and communicative delay. She has a broad-based gait and is unable to hold or pick up toys on her own. Which of the following mutations is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
Q77
A 4-year-old-female presents with a flattened, reddish 2 cm lump located at the base of the tongue. The patient's mother reports her having trouble swallowing, often leading to feeding difficulties. The mother also reports lethargy, constipation, dry skin, and hypothermia. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient’s presentation?
Q78
A 2720-g (6-lb) female newborn is delivered at term to a 39-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2. Examination in the delivery room shows micrognathia, prominent occiput with flattened nasal bridge, and pointy low-set ears. The eyes are upward slanting with small palpebral fissures. The fists are clenched with fingers tightly flexed. The index finger overlaps the third finger and the fifth finger overlaps the fourth. A 3/6 holosystolic murmur is heard at the lower left sternal border. The nipples are widely spaced and the feet have prominent heels and convex, rounded soles. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
Q79
A 2-day-old boy, born at 38-weeks gestation, presents with jaundice and microcephaly. Social history reveals his mother is an animal caretaker. The vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 75/40 mm Hg, pulse 150/min, respiratory rate 40/min, and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. Physical examination reveals hepatosplenomegaly. A CT and MRI of the head are significant for the following findings (see picture). Which of the following diseases contracted during pregnancy is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Q80
A 3000-g (6-lb 10-oz) male newborn delivered at 38 weeks' gestation develops respiratory distress shortly after birth. Physical examination shows low-set ears, retrognathia, and club feet. Within a few hours, the newborn dies. Examination of the liver at autopsy shows periportal fibrosis. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of the neonate's presentation?
Congenital defects US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: An 18-month-old boy is brought to the physician for a well-child examination. His mother is concerned because he is unable to walk on his own. He has been increasingly irritable over the past month, has been feeding poorly, and has had multiple episodes of vomiting. His immunizations are up-to-date. He is at the 50th percentile for height, 40th percentile for weight, and 98th percentile for head circumference. He appears lethargic. His vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a bulging anterior fontanelle. The child is unable to stand without support and falls if he attempts to walk. Muscle tone is increased and deep tendon reflexes are 4+ in the lower extremities. Examination of the back is unremarkable. An MRI of the brain shows symmetrical enlargement of all four ventricles. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment in this patient?
A. Cerebral aqueductoplasty
B. Acetazolamide therapy
C. Ventriculoperitoneal shunt (Correct Answer)
D. Furosemide therapy
E. Serial lumbar punctures
Explanation: ***Ventriculoperitoneal shunt***
- The patient presents with symptoms and signs of **hydrocephalus** (e.g., rapidly increasing head circumference, bulging fontanelle, vomiting, irritability, gait disturbance, hypertonia, hyperreflexia). An MRI showing **symmetrical enlargement of all four ventricles** confirms communicating hydrocephalus.
- A **ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt** is the most appropriate long-term treatment for symptomatic hydrocephalus, diverting CSF from the ventricles to the peritoneal cavity.
*Cerebral aqueductoplasty*
- This procedure is indicated for **aqueductal stenosis**, which causes **obstructive (non-communicating) hydrocephalus**, where only the ventricles proximal to the obstruction are dilated (e.g., third and lateral ventricles).
- The MRI in this case shows **symmetrical enlargement of all four ventricles**, indicating **communicating hydrocephalus**, making aqueductoplasty unsuitable.
*Acetazolamide therapy*
- **Acetazolamide** is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that can reduce CSF production, typically used in cases of **idiopathic intracranial hypertension** or as a temporary measure in some forms of hydrocephalus.
- However, in a symptomatic infant with significant hydrocephalus and rapid head growth, medical therapy alone is usually insufficient for long-term management and does not address the underlying CSF drainage issue.
*Furosemide therapy*
- **Furosemide**, a loop diuretic, can also reduce CSF production but is generally not considered a primary treatment for hydrocephalus, especially in symptomatic infants.
- Its effects on CSF reduction are often transient and not as robust as surgical intervention for established hydrocephalus with neurological deficits.
*Serial lumbar punctures*
- **Serial lumbar punctures** can temporarily relieve pressure in **communicating hydrocephalus**, especially in neonates or patients awaiting shunt placement.
- However, they are not a long-term solution for symptomatic hydrocephalus in an older infant with ongoing symptoms and a need for definitive management and are associated with risks of infection and discomfort.
Question 72: A newborn infant is resuscitated and transferred to the neonatal intensive care unit. The infant has notable limb deformities as well as low-set ears and a flattened nose. He was born at 34 weeks gestation to a healthy mother who received regular obstetric follow-up. Resuscitation was notable for difficulty maintaining oxygenation in the newborn. Despite appropriate interventions, the infant is still struggling to maintain adequate oxygenation. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this patient's symptoms?
A. PKD1 gene mutation
B. Cystic dilation of the collecting ducts in the kidney (Correct Answer)
C. Chromosomal abnormality
D. Maternal diabetes
E. Failure to administer betamethasone
Explanation: ***Cystic dilation of the collecting ducts in the kidney***
- This finding is characteristic of **autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD)**, which leads to **Potter sequence/Potter syndrome**.
- **Potter sequence** results from severe **oligohydramnios** (often due to bilateral renal disease causing inadequate urine production), leading to:
- **Pulmonary hypoplasia** (lungs cannot expand properly without adequate amniotic fluid)
- **Characteristic facial features** (Potter facies): low-set ears, flattened nose, recessed chin
- **Limb deformities** (positional abnormalities from mechanical compression in utero)
- The **persistent difficulty maintaining oxygenation despite appropriate interventions** is the key clinical clue - this indicates **structural pulmonary hypoplasia**, not simply respiratory distress from prematurity or other causes that would respond to treatment.
- Potter sequence is the most likely diagnosis given this specific constellation of findings.
*Chromosomal abnormality*
- While **trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)** or **trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome)** can present with multiple congenital anomalies including facial dysmorphisms and limb deformities, they typically have additional characteristic findings (cardiac defects, rocker-bottom feet, holoprosencephaly, etc.).
- The **specific triad** of Potter facies + limb deformities + **refractory respiratory distress due to pulmonary hypoplasia** is pathognomonic for Potter sequence, not chromosomal abnormalities.
- Chromosomal abnormalities would not typically cause the severe oligohydramnios that leads to pulmonary hypoplasia.
*Maternal diabetes*
- Maternal diabetes can cause **macrosomia**, **hypoglycemia**, **respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)**, and rarely congenital anomalies (cardiac, neural tube defects).
- It does not cause the specific pattern of **Potter facies** (low-set ears, flattened nose) and **limb deformities** seen in Potter sequence.
- The mother is described as healthy with regular obstetric follow-up, making uncontrolled diabetes unlikely.
*PKD1 gene mutation*
- **PKD1 mutation** causes **autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)**, which typically presents in **adulthood** with hypertension, flank pain, and progressive renal failure.
- While rare severe cases can present in utero, PKD1 mutation does not cause the **cystic dilation of collecting ducts** - that finding is specific to **ARPKD** (associated with PKHD1 gene mutation).
- ADPKD involves cysts throughout the cortex and medulla, not specifically in collecting ducts.
*Failure to administer betamethasone*
- **Betamethasone** is given to mothers at risk of preterm delivery (before 34 weeks) to accelerate **fetal lung maturity** and reduce the severity of **respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)**.
- While this infant is preterm (34 weeks) and has respiratory distress, betamethasone failure would cause RDS due to **surfactant deficiency**, which typically **responds to surfactant administration and respiratory support**.
- This does not explain the **structural pulmonary hypoplasia** (indicated by refractory oxygenation issues) or the **facial and limb deformities**.
- Betamethasone is typically given before 34 weeks; at 34 weeks, the benefit is limited.
Question 73: A 6-month-old male presents with a painless, enlarged left scrotum. After examining the patient, you suspect this enlargement is secondary to serous fluid entering and accumulating in the scrotum through a patent processus vaginalis. Which of the following would be the most useful next step in confirming the diagnosis of this patient’s condition?
A. Standard urinalysis
B. Transillumination test followed by scrotal ultrasound (Correct Answer)
C. Evaluation of cremasteric reflex on physical exam
D. Measurement of AFP and hCG levels
E. Measurement of serum testosterone levels
Explanation: ***Transillumination test followed by scrotal ultrasound***
- The **transillumination test** is a quick and effective bedside tool to differentiate between fluid-filled hydroceles (which transilluminate brightly) and solid masses like hernias or tumors (which do not).
- If transillumination suggests a fluid collection, a **scrotal ultrasound** will confirm the presence and nature of the fluid, rule out other masses, and assess testicular anatomy.
*Standard urinalysis*
- A standard urinalysis assesses kidney function and detects urinary tract infections but provides no information about scrotal contents or the **patency of the processus vaginalis**.
- This test is unrelated to diagnosing a **hydrocele** or inguinal hernia.
*Evaluation of cremasteric reflex on physical exam*
- The **cremasteric reflex** assesses nerve integrity and can be absent in conditions like testicular torsion, but it does not help differentiate between a hydrocele, hernia, or other scrotal masses.
- An intact reflex wouldn't rule out the suspected condition, and an absent reflex wouldn't confirm it.
*Measurement of AFP and hCG levels*
- **Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)** and **beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)** are tumor markers primarily used in cases of suspected testicular cancer or germ cell tumors.
- These markers are not indicated for the diagnosis of a **painless, transilluminating scrotal enlargement** in an infant, which is highly suggestive of a hydrocele.
*Measurement of serum testosterone levels*
- **Serum testosterone levels** are used to evaluate hormonal imbalances, developmental disorders, or delayed puberty.
- This measurement offers no diagnostic value for a **scrotal fluid accumulation** in an infant and would not help differentiate a hydrocele from other scrotal conditions.
Question 74: A 5-year-old boy is brought to his neurologist for continued treatment of muscle spasms. His past medical history is significant for a brain abnormality that was detected neonatally when it presented with an enlarged posterior fossa as well as a malformed cerebellar vermis. Since birth, he has had developmental delay, high muscle tone, difficulty with coordination, and speech delay. He has been treated with a number of therapies to relax his muscle tone such as baclofen. Which of the following conditions is associated with this patient's most likely condition?
A. Syringomyelia
B. Hydrocephalus (Correct Answer)
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
D. Polyhydramnios
E. Vocal cord paralysis
Explanation: ***Hydrocephalus***
- The patient's presentation with an **enlarged posterior fossa** and a **malformed cerebellar vermis** indicates **Dandy-Walker malformation**, which is frequently complicated by **hydrocephalus**.
- Hydrocephalus results from impaired cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flow due to the posterior fossa abnormalities, leading to increased intracranial pressure and worsening neurological symptoms.
*Syringomyelia*
- **Syringomyelia** is characterized by a **fluid-filled cyst (syrinx)** within the spinal cord, often associated with Chiari malformations, but it is not the primary abnormality described here.
- While it can cause neurological deficits, it doesn't directly explain the **enlarged posterior fossa** or **malformed cerebellar vermis**.
*Fetal alcohol syndrome*
- **Fetal alcohol syndrome** is caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy and is associated with distinct facial features, growth restriction, and developmental delays, but not specifically with **Dandy-Walker malformation** or its characteristic brain abnormalities.
- It is a **teratogenic condition** with a different set of diagnostic criteria.
*Polyhydramnios*
- **Polyhydramnios** refers to an **excess amount of amniotic fluid** during pregnancy. While it can be associated with various fetal anomalies, it is a prenatal finding and not a direct neurological condition or complication of Dandy-Walker malformation itself.
- It is related to impaired fetal swallowing or increased urination, not inherently to specific brain malformations.
*Vocal cord paralysis*
- **Vocal cord paralysis** is a disorder affecting the movement of the vocal cords, which can be caused by various neurological conditions or injury, but it is not a direct or common association with **Dandy-Walker malformation**.
- It is a specific symptom rather than a primary condition linked to the broader neurological picture described.
Question 75: A 2-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother because of an 8-hour history of difficulty feeding and decreased arousability. His mother says that the symptoms began after he rolled over and fell from the bed. His vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows tense fontanelles. Fundoscopy shows bilateral optic disc swelling with dot-and-blot hemorrhages extending to the ora serrata. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Basilar skull fracture
C. Periventricular hemorrhage
D. Epidural hematoma
E. Subdural hematoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Subdural hematoma***
- The presentation of **tense fontanelles**, decreased arousability, and difficulty feeding in an infant following a reported fall, combined with **bilateral optic disc swelling** and **dot-and-blot hemorrhages extending to the ora serrata** (classic signs of **retinal hemorrhages**) is highly suspicious for a **subdural hematoma** due to **abusive head trauma (shaken baby syndrome)**.
- **Retinal hemorrhages**, particularly those extending to the ora serrata, are very specific for **abusive head trauma**, which commonly causes subdural hematomas from tearing of bridging veins.
*Bacterial meningitis*
- While bacterial meningitis can cause **tense fontanelles** and decreased arousability, it would typically present with **fever**, **irritability**, and often **neck stiffness**, which are not mentioned.
- **Retinal hemorrhages** as described are not typical features of bacterial meningitis.
*Basilar skull fracture*
- A basilar skull fracture can cause neurological symptoms, but the presence of **tense fontanelles** and specifically **retinal hemorrhages** are not typical consequences.
- It might present with signs like **Battle's sign** or **raccoon eyes** if severe, which are not described.
*Periventricular hemorrhage*
- **Periventricular hemorrhage** is most common in **premature infants** and typically presents with symptoms such as apnea, bradycardia, and lethargy, often without obvious trauma.
- While it can cause increased intracranial pressure, the distinctive **retinal hemorrhages** seen here are not characteristic of periventricular hemorrhage.
*Epidural hematoma*
- An **epidural hematoma** is typically caused by arterial bleeding, often after a skull fracture, and usually presents with a **lucid interval** followed by rapid neurological deterioration.
- While it can cause increased intracranial pressure and tense fontanelles, the specific **retinal hemorrhages** described are more indicative of **subdural hematoma** from non-accidental trauma.
Question 76: A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her parents for a 1-year history of gradual loss of speech and motor skills. Pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated, and development was normal until the age of 3 years. Her parents say she used to run and speak in short sentences but now is only able to walk slowly and cannot form sentences. She avoids eye contact and constantly rubs her hands together. There are no dysmorphic facial features. Neurologic examination shows marked cognitive and communicative delay. She has a broad-based gait and is unable to hold or pick up toys on her own. Which of the following mutations is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
A. Partial deletion of short arm of chromosome 5
B. Mutation in MECP2 gene on X-chromosome (Correct Answer)
C. CGG trinucleotide repeat in FMR1 gene on X-chromosome
D. Partial deletion of long arm of chromosome 7
E. CTG trinucleotide repeat in DMPK gene on chromosome 19
Explanation: ***Mutation in MECP2 gene on X-chromosome***
- The patient's presentation with **normal early development** followed by **regression of speech and motor skills**, social withdrawal, and characteristic **hand-wringing stereotypies** in a 4-year-old girl is highly suggestive of **Rett syndrome**.
- **Rett syndrome** is overwhelmingly caused by a mutation in the **MECP2 gene** (methyl-CpG binding protein 2) located on the X-chromosome.
- Rett syndrome is an X-linked dominant disorder that almost exclusively affects females, as the mutation is typically lethal in males.
*Partial deletion of short arm of chromosome 5*
- This chromosomal abnormality is associated with **Cri-du-chat syndrome**, characterized by a **high-pitched cry** resembling a cat, intellectual disability, and microcephaly, which are not the primary features described here.
- Patients with Cri-du-chat typically present with severe developmental delay from birth and **dysmorphic facial features**, unlike the regression pattern seen in this patient.
*CGG trinucleotide repeat in FMR1 gene on X-chromosome*
- This mutation causes **Fragile X syndrome**, which is characterized by intellectual disability, **large ears**, prominent jaw, and **macroorchidism** in males.
- While it causes developmental delay and often presents with features of autism, it typically does not involve a distinct period of **normal development followed by regression** as seen in this patient.
*Partial deletion of long arm of chromosome 7*
- Deletions on the long arm of chromosome 7 are associated with various conditions, but a well-known example is **Williams syndrome** caused by a microdeletion at 7q11.23.
- Williams syndrome involves intellectual disability, distinctive **"elfin" facial features**, and cardiovascular problems (e.g., supravalvular aortic stenosis), which do not align with the patient's symptoms of developmental regression and hand stereotypies.
*CTG trinucleotide repeat in DMPK gene on chromosome 19*
- This mutation is responsible for **Myotonic dystrophy type 1**, an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by progressive muscle weakness and myotonia, often presenting in adolescence or adulthood.
- It does not present with a period of normal development followed by global developmental regression and specific hand stereotypies in early childhood.
Question 77: A 4-year-old-female presents with a flattened, reddish 2 cm lump located at the base of the tongue. The patient's mother reports her having trouble swallowing, often leading to feeding difficulties. The mother also reports lethargy, constipation, dry skin, and hypothermia. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient’s presentation?
A. Week-long course of penicillin
B. No treatment is necessary, counsel mother on alternative feeding techniques
C. Thyroid hormone replacement therapy with levothyroxine (Correct Answer)
D. Combination therapy of methimazole and Beta-blockers
E. Radioactive iodine ablation
Explanation: ***Thyroid hormone replacement therapy with levothyroxine***
- The patient's symptoms of **lethargy, constipation, dry skin, and hypothermia** are classic signs of **hypothyroidism**
- The **flattened, reddish 2 cm lump at the base of the tongue** causing **dysphagia** is highly suggestive of a **lingual thyroid**, a developmental anomaly where thyroid tissue fails to descend from the base of the tongue during embryonic development
- In **90% of lingual thyroid cases**, this ectopic tissue represents the **only functioning thyroid tissue** in the body, leading to hypothyroidism
- **Levothyroxine replacement** is the first-line management, addressing the hypothyroidism and often reducing the size of the lingual thyroid mass, improving swallowing difficulties
- Surgical excision is reserved for cases where medical management fails or severe airway/swallowing obstruction persists
*Week-long course of penicillin*
- Penicillin is an **antibiotic** used to treat **bacterial infections**
- The patient's symptoms indicate an **endocrine disorder** (hypothyroidism) and **developmental anomaly** (lingual thyroid), not an infectious process
- No signs of infection such as fever, leukocytosis, or acute inflammation are present
*No treatment is necessary, counsel mother on alternative feeding techniques*
- Given the **significant systemic symptoms** of hypothyroidism (lethargy, constipation, dry skin, hypothermia) and feeding difficulties, **treatment is clearly necessary**
- **Untreated congenital hypothyroidism** in a child leads to severe developmental delays, intellectual disability, and growth retardation (cretinism)
- While feeding techniques may help with dysphagia, they do not address the underlying hypothyroidism requiring urgent treatment
*Combination therapy of methimazole and Beta-blockers*
- **Methimazole** (antithyroid medication) and **beta-blockers** are used to treat **hyperthyroidism** (overactive thyroid)
- The patient's symptoms (lethargy, constipation, hypothermia, dry skin) are characteristic of **hypothyroidism** (underactive thyroid), making antithyroid therapy completely inappropriate
- This would further suppress thyroid function and worsen the patient's condition
*Radioactive iodine ablation*
- **Radioactive iodine (I-131) ablation** is used to treat **hyperthyroidism** (Graves' disease, toxic nodules) or **thyroid cancer**
- It is a **destructive treatment** that eliminates thyroid tissue
- In this patient with a **lingual thyroid likely representing the only functioning thyroid tissue**, ablation would cause **complete thyroid failure** and severe, permanent hypothyroidism
- Radioactive iodine is also **contraindicated in children** except for specific cases of thyroid cancer
Question 78: A 2720-g (6-lb) female newborn is delivered at term to a 39-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2. Examination in the delivery room shows micrognathia, prominent occiput with flattened nasal bridge, and pointy low-set ears. The eyes are upward slanting with small palpebral fissures. The fists are clenched with fingers tightly flexed. The index finger overlaps the third finger and the fifth finger overlaps the fourth. A 3/6 holosystolic murmur is heard at the lower left sternal border. The nipples are widely spaced and the feet have prominent heels and convex, rounded soles. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
A. Deletion of Chromosome 5p
B. Trisomy 13
C. Fetal alcohol syndrome
D. Trisomy 18 (Correct Answer)
E. Trisomy 21
Explanation: **_Trisomy 18_**
- The constellation of findings, including **micrognathia**, prominent occiput, **low-set ears**, short palpebral fissures, **clenched fists with overlapping fingers**, widely spaced nipples, and **rocker-bottom feet**, are classic signs of **Edwards syndrome (Trisomy 18)**.
- The **holosystolic murmur** suggests a **ventricular septal defect (VSD)**, which is commonly associated with Trisomy 18.
*Deletion of Chromosome 5p*
- This is associated with **Cri-du-chat syndrome**, characterized by a **cat-like cry**, microcephaly, and intellectual disability.
- The classic features described in the case, such as rocker-bottom feet and overlapping fingers, are not typical of Cri-du-chat syndrome.
*Trisomy 13*
- This is **Patau syndrome**, characterized by **polydactyly**, cleft lip/palate, microphthalmia, and cutis aplasia.
- While it shares some features of severe developmental abnormalities, the specific hand posture and ear/facial anomalies point away from Trisomy 13.
*Fetal alcohol syndrome*
- This condition presents with **facial dysmorphology** (short palpebral fissures, thin upper lip, smooth philtrum), growth restriction, and intellectual disability.
- It does not typically include the prominent occiput, micrognathia, or characteristic finger positioning and foot deformities seen in this patient.
*Trisomy 21*
- Also known as **Down syndrome**, characterized by features such as **epicanthal folds**, upslanting palpebral fissures, a single palmar crease, and hypotonia.
- While some features like a VSD can overlap, the specific facial features and skeletal anomalies (e.g., clenched fists with overlapping fingers, rocker-bottom feet) are distinctly different from Down syndrome.
Question 79: A 2-day-old boy, born at 38-weeks gestation, presents with jaundice and microcephaly. Social history reveals his mother is an animal caretaker. The vital signs include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 75/40 mm Hg, pulse 150/min, respiratory rate 40/min, and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. Physical examination reveals hepatosplenomegaly. A CT and MRI of the head are significant for the following findings (see picture). Which of the following diseases contracted during pregnancy is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Syphilis
C. Varicella
D. CMV (Correct Answer)
E. Rubella
Explanation: ***CMV***
- The combination of **jaundice**, **microcephaly**, **hepatosplenomegaly**, and **periventricular calcifications** on neuroimaging (as seen in the image) is highly characteristic of congenital CMV infection.
- While other congenital infections can cause some of these symptoms, the specific pattern of **periventricular calcifications** is a hallmark of CMV.
*Toxoplasmosis*
- Congenital toxoplasmosis also causes **microcephaly** and **hydrocephalus**, but the calcifications are typically **scattered throughout the brain parenchyma**, not predominantly periventricular.
- While **hepatosplenomegaly** and **jaundice** can occur, the neuroimaging findings help differentiate it from CMV.
*Syphilis*
- Congenital syphilis can present with **hepatosplenomegaly** and **jaundice**, but typically involves findings like **maculopapular rash**, **bone abnormalities** (e.g., osteochondritis), and **snuffles**, which are not mentioned.
- **Intracranial calcifications** are not a typical feature of congenital syphilis.
*Varicella*
- Congenital varicella syndrome is rare and typically presents with **skin scarring (cicatricial lesions)**, **limb hypoplasia**, and **ophthalmologic abnormalities**.
- **Microcephaly** and **intracranial calcifications** are not primary features, nor is significant **hepatosplenomegaly** or **jaundice**.
*Rubella*
- Congenital rubella syndrome (CRS) classical triad includes **cataracts/glaucoma**, **sensorineural hearing loss**, and **congenital heart defects** (e.g., PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis).
- While **microcephaly** and **hepatosplenomegaly** can occur, the characteristic **periventricular calcifications** seen in the image are not typical for CRS.
Question 80: A 3000-g (6-lb 10-oz) male newborn delivered at 38 weeks' gestation develops respiratory distress shortly after birth. Physical examination shows low-set ears, retrognathia, and club feet. Within a few hours, the newborn dies. Examination of the liver at autopsy shows periportal fibrosis. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of the neonate's presentation?
A. Mutation on the short arm of chromosome 16
B. Valvular obstruction of urine outflow
C. Bilateral hypoplasia of kidneys
D. Nondisjunction of chromosome 18
E. Cystic dilation of collecting duct (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cystic dilation of collecting duct***
- The combination of **renal dysfunction** (implied by Potter sequence features and periportal fibrosis) and **respiratory distress** points to **autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD)**.
- ARPKD is characterized by **cystic dilation of collecting ducts** and often presents with **Potter sequence** (low-set ears, retrognathia, limb deformities like club feet) due to oligohydramnios, and **hepatic fibrosis**.
*Mutation on the short arm of chromosome 16*
- A mutation on the short arm of chromosome 16 (specifically, the *PKD1* gene) is associated with **autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)**.
- ADPKD typically presents later in adulthood with large renal cysts, hypertension, and renal failure, and is not usually the cause of neonatal death with Potter sequence.
*Valvular obstruction of urine outflow*
- **Posterior urethral valves (PUV)** can cause **obstructive uropathy** leading to decreased urine output, oligohydramnios, and Potter sequence, as well as renal dysplasia.
- While PUV can lead to similar features, the presence of **periportal fibrosis** strongly points away from a purely obstructive cause and towards a genetic renal-hepatic syndrome like ARPKD.
*Bilateral hypoplasia of kidneys*
- **Bilateral renal hypoplasia** refers to underdeveloped kidneys that are too small and may cause renal insufficiency and Potter sequence.
- However, it does not typically include the **periportal hepatic fibrosis** seen in this neonate, which is a hallmark of ARPKD.
*Nondisjunction of chromosome 18*
- **Trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)**, caused by nondisjunction of chromosome 18, is associated with various congenital anomalies, including low-set ears, retrognathia, and limb deformities, and can lead to early death.
- However, Trisomy 18 does not typically cause **periportal fibrosis** of the liver, and while renal anomalies can occur, **cystic dilation of collecting ducts** as a primary cause of death is more specific to ARPKD in this context.