A 6-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for a well-child visit. The mother reports that the baby has been feeding poorly and seems to tire easily. On examination, the infant is noted to be slightly tachypneic and has a grade III/VI holosystolic murmur heard best at the left lower sternal border. Which of the following echocardiographic findings is most likely in this patient?
Q222
An infant boy of unknown age and medical history is dropped off in the emergency department. The infant appears lethargic and has a large protruding tongue. Although the infant exhibits signs of neglect, he is in no apparent distress. The heart rate is 70/min, the respiratory rate is 30/min, and the temperature is 35.7°C (96.2°F). Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s physical exam findings?
Q223
A 45-year-old gravida 1, para 0 woman is brought to the hospital in labor at 39 weeks gestation. After 4 hours, she gives birth to a healthy appearing baby boy with APGAR scores of 7 at 1 minute and 9 at 5 minutes. She had limited prenatal screening but did have an ultrasound at 35 weeks that showed polyhydramnios. The next day, the neonate vomits greenish-yellow fluid after breastfeeding. This occurs 2 more times that day after feeding and several times between feedings. The next day, the neonate appears weak with difficulty latching to the breast and is dehydrated. The physician on duty is concerned and orders blood work, IV fluids, and the abdominal X-ray shown below. Which of the following disorders is most associated with the newborn’s condition?
Q224
A 4-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents with violent vomiting. It started about 3 days ago and has slowly gotten worse. He vomits after most feedings but seems to keep some formula down. His mother notes that he is eager to feed between episodes and seems to be putting on weight. Other than an uncomplicated course of chlamydia conjunctivitis, the infant has been healthy. He was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is up to date on all vaccines and is meeting all developmental milestones. The physical exam is significant for a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. What is the first-line confirmatory diagnostic test and associated finding?
Q225
A 2-day-old boy is evaluated in the newborn nursery after the nurse witnessed the child convulsing. The child was born at 39 weeks gestation to a healthy 32-year-old G1P0 woman. Initial examination after birth was notable for a cleft palate. The child’s temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 115/min, and respirations are 18/min. On exam, he appears somnolent. His face demonstrates periorbital fullness, hypoplastic nares, and small dysmorphic ears. A series of labs are drawn and shown below:
Hemoglobin: 13.1 g/dL
Hematocrit: 40%
Leukocyte count: 4,000/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 200,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 140 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 3.8 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BUN: 19 mg/dL
Glucose: 110 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Ca2+: 7.9 mg/dL
Phosphate: 4.7 mg/dL
This patient is deficient in a hormone that has which of the following functions?
Q226
A 2-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her parents because of clumsiness and difficulty walking. She began to walk at 12 months and continues to have difficulty standing still without support. She also appears to have difficulty grabbing objects in front of her. Over the past year, she has had 5 episodes of sinusitis requiring antibiotic treatment and was hospitalized twice for bacterial pneumonia. Physical examination shows an unstable, narrow-based gait and several hyperpigmented skin patches. Serum studies show decreased levels of IgA and IgG and an increased level of alpha-fetoprotein. Over the next 5 years, which of the following complications is this patient most likely to develop?
Q227
The medical student on the pediatric cardiology team is examining a 9-year-old girl who was referred by her primary care physician for unexplained hypertension. She is accompanied by her mother who reveals that the child is generally well but has been significantly less active than her peers for the past year. On exam, the medical student notes a thin girl in no apparent distress appearing slightly younger than stated age. Vital signs reveal a BP is 160/80, HR 80, RR 16. Physical exam is notable only for a clicking sound is noted around the time of systole but otherwise the cardiac exam is normal. Pedal pulses could not be palpated. Which of the following physical exam findings was most likely missed by both the medical student and primary care physician?
Q228
A 2-day old male newborn delivered vaginally at 36 weeks to a 29-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, has generalized convulsions lasting 2 minutes. Previous to the event, he had difficulty feeding and was lethargic. Pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated. Apgar scores were 7 and 8 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. Pregnancy and delivery of the mother's first 2 children were also uncomplicated. Medications of the mother include folic acid and a multivitamin. The mother's immunizations are up-to-date. The infant appears icteric. His vital signs are within normal limits. The infant's weight and length are at the 5th percentile, and his head circumference at the 99th percentile for gestational age. There are several purpura of the skin. Ocular examination shows posterior uveitis. The patient does not pass his auditory screening tests. Cranial ultrasonography shows ventricular dilatation, as well as hyperechoic foci within the cortex, basal ganglia, and periventricular region. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q229
A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother for the evaluation of abdominal pain for one hour after drinking a bottle of toilet bowl cleaner. The mother reports that he vomited once on the way to the hospital and his vomit was non-bloody. The patient has pain with swallowing. He appears uncomfortable. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of 82%. Examination shows heavy salivation. Oral examination shows mild oral erythema in the area of the epiglottis, but no burns. An x-ray of the chest shows no abnormalities. The patient is admitted to the intensive care unit. He is intubated and oxygenation and intravenous fluid resuscitation are begun. All contaminated clothes are removed. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Q230
A 10-month-old boy is brought to the clinic with a history of recurrent episodes of stridor and wheezing. His mother reports that his wheezing is exacerbated by crying, feeding, and flexion of the neck, and is relieved by extension of the neck. Occasionally he vomits after feeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Congenital defects US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: A 6-month-old infant is brought to the clinic for a well-child visit. The mother reports that the baby has been feeding poorly and seems to tire easily. On examination, the infant is noted to be slightly tachypneic and has a grade III/VI holosystolic murmur heard best at the left lower sternal border. Which of the following echocardiographic findings is most likely in this patient?
A. Goose-neck deformity of left ventricular outflow tract
B. Increased left ventricular shortening fraction
C. Displacement of tricuspid valve leaflets inferiorly into right ventricle
D. Anterior movement of ventricular septum during systole (Correct Answer)
E. Decreased right ventricular end-diastolic dimension
Explanation: ***Anterior movement of ventricular septum during systole***
- The clinical presentation of poor feeding, easy fatigability, tachypnea, and a **holosystolic murmur at the left lower sternal border** strongly suggests a **ventricular septal defect (VSD)**.
- In VSD with a **significant left-to-right shunt**, increased blood flow into the right ventricle causes **right ventricular volume overload**.
- This RV volume overload can lead to **paradoxical septal motion**, where the interventricular septum moves **anteriorly (toward the RV) during systole** instead of the normal posterior motion.
- This occurs due to altered pressure-volume relationships and is seen in conditions causing RV volume overload including large VSDs, though the most characteristic echo finding would be direct visualization of the defect itself with LV dilation.
*Goose-neck deformity of left ventricular outflow tract*
- This finding is characteristic of **atrioventricular canal defects (endocardial cushion defects)**, where there is elongation and narrowing of the left ventricular outflow tract.
- While AV canal defects can present with heart failure, the holosystolic murmur in this case is most consistent with **isolated VSD** at the left lower sternal border, not the typical findings of AV canal defects.
*Increased left ventricular shortening fraction*
- Increased LV shortening fraction indicates **hyperdynamic left ventricular function**, typically seen in high-output states or early compensatory phases.
- While the LV in VSD may initially have preserved or even increased contractility, this is **not a characteristic echocardiographic finding** used to diagnose VSD; the primary findings are chamber dilation and direct visualization of the defect.
*Displacement of tricuspid valve leaflets inferiorly into right ventricle*
- This describes **Ebstein's anomaly**, where the tricuspid valve leaflets are abnormally attached within the RV cavity rather than at the annulus.
- Ebstein's anomaly presents with **cyanosis, arrhythmias**, and a different murmur pattern (tricuspid regurgitation), not the typical holosystolic murmur at the LLSB seen in VSD.
*Decreased right ventricular end-diastolic dimension*
- Decreased RV size suggests **RV hypoplasia** or severe obstruction (e.g., pulmonary atresia, critical pulmonary stenosis).
- In VSD with left-to-right shunt, the right ventricle receives **increased volume**, leading to RV dilation and **increased (not decreased)** RV end-diastolic dimension over time.
Question 222: An infant boy of unknown age and medical history is dropped off in the emergency department. The infant appears lethargic and has a large protruding tongue. Although the infant exhibits signs of neglect, he is in no apparent distress. The heart rate is 70/min, the respiratory rate is 30/min, and the temperature is 35.7°C (96.2°F). Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s physical exam findings?
A. Autosomal dominant mutation in the SERPING1 gene
B. Genetic imprinting disorder affecting chromosome 11p15.5
C. Type I hypersensitivity reaction
D. Excess growth hormone secondary to pituitary gland tumor
E. Congenital agenesis of an endocrine gland in the anterior neck (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Congenital agenesis of an endocrine gland in the anterior neck***
- This description is highly suggestive of **congenital hypothyroidism**, caused by **thyroid dysgenesis** (agenesis or hypoplasia of the thyroid gland).
- Symptoms include **lethargy**, **macroglossia** (large protruding tongue), **hypotonia**, **feeding difficulties**, **umbilical hernia**, and **hypothermia**, all consistent with the clinical picture.
*Autosomal dominant mutation in the SERPING1 gene*
- A mutation in the **SERPING1 gene** causes **hereditary angioedema**, characterized by recurrent episodes of unpredictable swelling in various body parts.
- While swelling can affect the tongue, it is typically episodic, painful, and often triggered, which is not suggested by the chronic lethargy and physical signs described.
*Genetic imprinting disorder affecting chromosome 11p15.5*
- This describes **Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome**, an overgrowth disorder caused by imprinting defects involving genes like **IGF2**, **H19**, and **CDKN1C** on chromosome 11p15.5.
- Features include **macroglossia**, **macrosomia**, **umbilical hernia**, **hemihyperplasia**, and increased risk of embryonal tumors like **Wilms tumor**.
- However, Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome does not typically present with profound **lethargy** and **hypothermia** as seen in congenital hypothyroidism.
*Type I hypersensitivity reaction*
- A **Type I hypersensitivity reaction** (e.g., anaphylaxis) could cause acute **angioedema** of the tongue, but this would be an acute, rapidly progressing, and life-threatening event.
- The infant's description of being "in no apparent distress" and exhibiting chronic signs like lethargy and hypothermia makes an acute allergic reaction unlikely.
*Excess growth hormone secondary to pituitary gland tumor*
- **Excess growth hormone** (gigantism in children, acromegaly in adults) can cause **macroglossia** and coarse facial features in the long term.
- However, it does not explain the associated **lethargia**, **hypothermia**, and profound developmental delay seen in congenital hypothyroidism in an infant.
Question 223: A 45-year-old gravida 1, para 0 woman is brought to the hospital in labor at 39 weeks gestation. After 4 hours, she gives birth to a healthy appearing baby boy with APGAR scores of 7 at 1 minute and 9 at 5 minutes. She had limited prenatal screening but did have an ultrasound at 35 weeks that showed polyhydramnios. The next day, the neonate vomits greenish-yellow fluid after breastfeeding. This occurs 2 more times that day after feeding and several times between feedings. The next day, the neonate appears weak with difficulty latching to the breast and is dehydrated. The physician on duty is concerned and orders blood work, IV fluids, and the abdominal X-ray shown below. Which of the following disorders is most associated with the newborn’s condition?
A. 47 XXY
B. Trisomy 21 (Correct Answer)
C. 45 XO
D. Trisomy 13
E. Trisomy 18
Explanation: ***Trisomy 21***
- The neonate's symptoms of **polyhydramnios** prenatally, followed by **bilious vomiting** and the **double-bubble sign** on abdominal X-ray (seen as dilated stomach and duodenum representing a duodenal atresia), are classic presentations of **duodenal atresia**.
- **Duodenal atresia** is strongly associated with **Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)**, with approximately 30% of infants with duodenal atresia also having Down Syndrome.
*47 XXY*
- This karyotype corresponds to **Klinefelter syndrome**, which is characterized by **male hypogonadism**, infertility, and often tall stature.
- It is not typically associated with congenital gastrointestinal malformations like duodenal atresia or the symptoms described.
*45 XO*
- This karyotype refers to **Turner syndrome**, which affects females and is characterized by **short stature**, **gonadal dysgenesis**, and various congenital anomalies including cardiac and renal defects.
- It is not commonly associated with duodenal atresia or the clinical findings in this neonate, particularly not the bilious vomiting and specific X-ray finding.
*Trisomy 13*
- Also known as **Patau syndrome**, Trisomy 13 is a severe chromosomal disorder associated with **midline defects** (e.g., cleft lip/palate, holoprosencephaly), **polydactyly**, and severe intellectual disability.
- While it has multiple organ system involvement, **duodenal atresia** is not a characteristic feature, and the overall clinical picture does not align with Patau syndrome.
*Trisomy 18*
- Also known as **Edwards syndrome**, Trisomy 18 is characterized by severe developmental delays, **growth restriction**, **rocker-bottom feet**, and characteristic facial features.
- While it can involve multiple congenital anomalies, **duodenal atresia** is a less common association compared to its strong link with Trisomy 21, and the overall presentation is more consistent with Down Syndrome.
Question 224: A 4-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department by his parents with violent vomiting. It started about 3 days ago and has slowly gotten worse. He vomits after most feedings but seems to keep some formula down. His mother notes that he is eager to feed between episodes and seems to be putting on weight. Other than an uncomplicated course of chlamydia conjunctivitis, the infant has been healthy. He was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is up to date on all vaccines and is meeting all developmental milestones. The physical exam is significant for a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. What is the first-line confirmatory diagnostic test and associated finding?
A. Abdominal ultrasound; elongated pyloric channel and muscle hypertrophy (Correct Answer)
B. Barium upper GI series; GE junction and portion of the stomach in thorax
C. Air enema; filling defect and coil spring sign
D. Barium upper GI series; bird beak sign and corkscrewing
E. Abdominal X-ray; ‘double bubble’ sign
Explanation: ***Abdominal ultrasound; elongated pyloric channel and muscle hypertrophy***
- The clinical picture of **projectile vomiting** in a 4-week-old infant, **eagerness to feed** ("hungry vomiter"), and **palpable olive-shaped mass** in the right upper quadrant is classic for **pyloric stenosis**.
- **Abdominal ultrasonography** is the gold standard for diagnosis, revealing an **elongated pyloric channel** (>16mm) and thickened pyloric muscle (>3-4mm).
- Pyloric stenosis typically presents between 3-6 weeks of age with progressive non-bilious vomiting.
*Barium upper GI series; GE junction and portion of the stomach in thorax*
- A **barium upper GI series** showing the **GE junction and stomach in the thorax** would indicate a **hiatal hernia**, which is not consistent with the palpable mass or "hungry vomiter" presentation.
- While hiatal hernias can cause vomiting and reflux, they typically don't present with this specific type of projectile vomiting or a palpable abdominal mass.
*Air enema; filling defect and coil spring sign*
- An **air enema** showing a **filling defect** and **coil spring sign** is characteristic of **intussusception**, which usually presents with sudden onset of **crampy abdominal pain**, **currant jelly stools**, and a palpable mass in the right lower quadrant.
- The clinical presentation does not fit intussusception, which typically occurs in older infants (6-36 months) and has a more acute presentation.
*Barium upper GI series; bird beak sign and corkscrewing*
- A **barium upper GI series** showing a **bird beak sign** and **corkscrewing** is pathognomonic for **midgut volvulus**, a surgical emergency.
- While volvulus can cause bilious vomiting and abdominal distension, the presentation of non-bilious vomiting with a palpable pyloric mass is more typical of pyloric stenosis.
*Abdominal X-ray; 'double bubble' sign*
- An **abdominal X-ray** revealing a **'double bubble' sign** is indicative of **duodenal atresia** or **annular pancreas**, leading to complete duodenal obstruction.
- This condition typically presents with **bilious vomiting** shortly after birth (within first day of life) and does not involve a palpable hypertrophied pylorus.
Question 225: A 2-day-old boy is evaluated in the newborn nursery after the nurse witnessed the child convulsing. The child was born at 39 weeks gestation to a healthy 32-year-old G1P0 woman. Initial examination after birth was notable for a cleft palate. The child’s temperature is 99°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg, pulse is 115/min, and respirations are 18/min. On exam, he appears somnolent. His face demonstrates periorbital fullness, hypoplastic nares, and small dysmorphic ears. A series of labs are drawn and shown below:
Hemoglobin: 13.1 g/dL
Hematocrit: 40%
Leukocyte count: 4,000/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 200,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 140 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 3.8 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BUN: 19 mg/dL
Glucose: 110 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.0 mg/dL
Ca2+: 7.9 mg/dL
Phosphate: 4.7 mg/dL
This patient is deficient in a hormone that has which of the following functions?
A. Inhibits 25-hydroxylase
B. Activates 1-alpha-hydroxylase (Correct Answer)
C. Activates 24-hydroxylase
D. Inhibits 1-alpha-hydroxylase
E. Activates 25-hydroxylase
Explanation: ***Activates 1-alpha-hydroxylase***
- This patient presents with **hypocalcemia** (Ca2+ 7.9 mg/dL), **cleft palate**, and characteristic facial dysmorphism (**periorbital fullness, hypoplastic nares, small dysmorphic ears**), along with seizures. These features are classic for **DiGeorge syndrome**, which involves **thymic and parathyroid aplasia/hypoplasia**.
- The deficiency in **parathyroid hormone (PTH)**, due to parathyroid hypoplasia, impairs the activation of **1-alpha-hydroxylase** in the kidneys. This enzyme is crucial for converting **25-hydroxyvitamin D** to its active form, **1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D (calcitriol)**, which is essential for calcium absorption and regulation.
*Inhibits 25-hydroxylase*
- **25-hydroxylase** is responsible for the initial hydroxylation of vitamin D in the liver, forming **25-hydroxyvitamin D**. This enzyme's activity is not directly inhibited by PTH or a lack thereof.
- The patient's condition primarily involves a disruption in the later steps of vitamin D activation and calcium regulation due to parathyroid dysfunction, not inhibition of early hydroxylation.
*Activates 25-hydroxylase*
- **25-hydroxylase**, involved in the first step of vitamin D activation in the liver, is not activated by parathyroid hormone. Its activity is largely dependent on substrate availability.
- The primary hormonal regulation of vitamin D activation occurs at the **1-alpha-hydroxylase** step in the kidneys, which is precisely where PTH exerts its influence.
*Activates 24-hydroxylase*
- **24-hydroxylase** is an enzyme that inactivates **1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D** by converting it to 1,24,25-trihydroxyvitamin D, or inactivates 25-hydroxyvitamin D to 24,25-dihydroxyvitamin D. This enzyme is typically *induced* by high levels of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D and is not activated by PTH.
- Its activation would lead to further reduction in active vitamin D and calcium levels, but it is not the primary mechanism by which PTH deficiency causes hypocalcemia.
*Inhibits 1-alpha-hydroxylase*
- **Parathyroid hormone (PTH)** *activates* **1-alpha-hydroxylase**, leading to increased production of active vitamin D and higher serum calcium.
- A deficiency in PTH (as seen in DiGeorge syndrome) therefore leads to *decreased* activation of 1-alpha-hydroxylase, not an inhibition.
Question 226: A 2-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her parents because of clumsiness and difficulty walking. She began to walk at 12 months and continues to have difficulty standing still without support. She also appears to have difficulty grabbing objects in front of her. Over the past year, she has had 5 episodes of sinusitis requiring antibiotic treatment and was hospitalized twice for bacterial pneumonia. Physical examination shows an unstable, narrow-based gait and several hyperpigmented skin patches. Serum studies show decreased levels of IgA and IgG and an increased level of alpha-fetoprotein. Over the next 5 years, which of the following complications is this patient most likely to develop?
A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B. Pes cavus
C. Cardiac rhabdomyoma
D. Chronic eczema
E. Conjunctival telangiectasias (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Conjunctival telangiectasias**
- The constellation of symptoms including **clumsiness**, **ataxia** (difficulty walking, unstable gait), recurrent **sinusitis** and **pneumonia** (immunodeficiency), **hyperpigmented skin patches**, **decreased IgA and IgG**, and **increased alpha-fetoprotein** is highly indicative of **ataxia-telangiectasia**.
- **Telangiectasias** are a hallmark feature of this disease, progressively appearing in the **conjunctiva**, skin, and other areas, usually between the ages of 3 to 6 years, explaining why they are the most likely complication to develop in the next 5 years.
*Chronic lymphocytic leukemia*
- While patients with ataxia-telangiectasia have an increased risk of malignancy, particularly **lymphomas** and **leukemias**, chronic lymphocytic leukemia is typically a disease of older adults and less common in childhood compared to other lymphoid malignancies.
- The most common hematologic malignancies in ataxia-telangiectasia are acute lymphoblastic leukemia and non-Hodgkin lymphoma, not chronic lymphocytic leukemia.
*Pes cavus*
- **Pes cavus** (high arch foot) is a foot deformity that can be associated with various neurological conditions, but it is not a direct or defining feature of ataxia-telangiectasia.
- The neurological manifestations in ataxia-telangiectasia primarily involve progressive cerebellar ataxia.
*Cardiac rhabdomyoma*
- **Cardiac rhabdomyomas** are benign tumors of the heart and are most commonly associated with **tuberous sclerosis complex**, not ataxia-telangiectasia.
- There is no direct link between ataxia-telangiectasia and the development of cardiac rhabdomyomas.
*Chronic eczema*
- While patients with immunodeficiencies, including ataxia-telangiectasia, can have increased susceptibility to skin infections or inflammatory conditions due to impaired immune function, **chronic eczema** is not a specific or hallmark complication of ataxia-telangiectasia.
- The skin manifestations of ataxia-telangiectasia are more typically related to telangiectasias and hyperpigmentation rather than widespread eczema.
Question 227: The medical student on the pediatric cardiology team is examining a 9-year-old girl who was referred by her primary care physician for unexplained hypertension. She is accompanied by her mother who reveals that the child is generally well but has been significantly less active than her peers for the past year. On exam, the medical student notes a thin girl in no apparent distress appearing slightly younger than stated age. Vital signs reveal a BP is 160/80, HR 80, RR 16. Physical exam is notable only for a clicking sound is noted around the time of systole but otherwise the cardiac exam is normal. Pedal pulses could not be palpated. Which of the following physical exam findings was most likely missed by both the medical student and primary care physician?
A. Long philtrum
B. Prominent occiput
C. Webbed neck (Correct Answer)
D. Cleft palate
E. Single palmar crease
Explanation: ***Webbed neck***
- The combination of **hypertension** with **unpalpable pedal pulses** and a **systolic click** in a pediatric patient strongly suggests **coarctation of the aorta**.
- **Webbed neck** (or **pterygium colli**) is a classic phenotypic feature associated with **Turner syndrome**, which frequently co-occurs with coarctation of the aorta.
*Long philtrum*
- A **long philtrum** is a craniofacial feature sometimes associated with certain genetic syndromes like **fetal alcohol syndrome** or **Marfan syndrome**, but it is not specifically linked to coarctation of the aorta or Turner syndrome.
- While these syndromes can have cardiovascular manifestations, a long philtrum does not directly point to the specific findings presented.
*Prominent occiput*
- A **prominent occiput** is a non-specific finding that can be seen in various conditions, including some **chromosomal abnormalities** or **skeletal dysplasias**.
- It is not a characteristic feature of **Turner syndrome** or **coarctation of the aorta**.
*Cleft palate*
- **Cleft palate** is a birth defect affecting the roof of the mouth, often associated with a wide range of genetic or environmental factors.
- While patients with cleft palate can have associated congenital heart defects, it is not a direct or common association with **Turner syndrome** or **coarctation of the aorta**.
*Single palmar crease*
- A **single palmar crease** (simian crease) is a dermatoglyphic feature often associated with **Down syndrome** (Trisomy 21).
- While Down syndrome is associated with various congenital heart defects (e.g., AV septal defect), it is not typically associated with **coarctation of the aorta** or **Turner syndrome**.
Question 228: A 2-day old male newborn delivered vaginally at 36 weeks to a 29-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, has generalized convulsions lasting 2 minutes. Previous to the event, he had difficulty feeding and was lethargic. Pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated. Apgar scores were 7 and 8 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. Pregnancy and delivery of the mother's first 2 children were also uncomplicated. Medications of the mother include folic acid and a multivitamin. The mother's immunizations are up-to-date. The infant appears icteric. His vital signs are within normal limits. The infant's weight and length are at the 5th percentile, and his head circumference at the 99th percentile for gestational age. There are several purpura of the skin. Ocular examination shows posterior uveitis. The patient does not pass his auditory screening tests. Cranial ultrasonography shows ventricular dilatation, as well as hyperechoic foci within the cortex, basal ganglia, and periventricular region. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Congenital toxoplasmosis (Correct Answer)
B. Congenital rubella infection
C. Congenital parvovirus infection
D. Congenital varicella infection
E. Congenital syphilis infection
Explanation: ***Congenital toxoplasmosis***
- The constellation of **hydrocephalus** (ventricular dilatation, large head circumference), **intracranial calcifications** (hyperechoic foci), and **chorioretinitis/uveitis** is pathognomonic for congenital toxoplasmosis.
- Other supporting features include **seizures**, **icterus**, **purpura** (thrombocytopenia), and **growth restriction** (weight and length at 5th percentile).
*Congenital rubella infection*
- Characterized by a triad of **cataracts**, **sensorineural hearing loss** (failed auditory screening), and **patent ductus arteriosus** or other cardiac defects.
- While rubella can cause microcephaly and purpura, the classic ocular finding is cataracts, not uveitis, and intracranial calcifications are not typical.
*Congenital parvovirus infection*
- Primarily causes **fetal hydrops**, **severe anemia**, and **myocarditis** due to its tropism for erythroid progenitor cells.
- It is not associated with intracranial calcifications, uveitis, or hydrocephalus as seen in this case.
*Congenital varicella infection*
- Typically results in **skin scarring** (zigzag pattern), **limb hypoplasia**, **chorioretinitis**, and **neurological defects** such as cortical atrophy, but not significant hydrocephalus or extensive calcifications.
- The absence of characteristic skin scarring and the presence of hydrocephalus and extensive calcifications make this diagnosis less likely.
*Congenital syphilis infection*
- Can present with varied symptoms, including **hepatosplenomegaly**, **bone abnormalities** (e.g., periostitis), **blueberry muffin rash** (due to dermal erythropoiesis), and **snuffles**.
- While it can cause neurological symptoms, the classic triad of hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications, and chorioretinitis is not typical for congenital syphilis.
Question 229: A 3-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother for the evaluation of abdominal pain for one hour after drinking a bottle of toilet bowl cleaner. The mother reports that he vomited once on the way to the hospital and his vomit was non-bloody. The patient has pain with swallowing. He appears uncomfortable. Pulse oximetry shows an oxygen saturation of 82%. Examination shows heavy salivation. Oral examination shows mild oral erythema in the area of the epiglottis, but no burns. An x-ray of the chest shows no abnormalities. The patient is admitted to the intensive care unit. He is intubated and oxygenation and intravenous fluid resuscitation are begun. All contaminated clothes are removed. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Administer activated charcoal
B. Dilute the ingested agent
C. Obtain upper endoscopy (Correct Answer)
D. Perform gastric lavage
E. Obtain barium upper gastrointestinal series
Explanation: ***Obtain upper endoscopy***
- An **upper endoscopy** is crucial in evaluating the extent of injury to the **esophagus and stomach** after caustic ingestion.
- This procedure helps in grading the severity of the burn, determining appropriate management, and predicting long-term complications such as **stricture formation**.
*Administer activated charcoal*
- **Activated charcoal** is ineffective in binding **caustic agents** such as acids or alkalis.
- Furthermore, its administration could obscure endoscopic visualization and potentially lead to **aspiration**, which is already a concern in this patient.
*Dilute the ingested agent*
- While dilution might seem intuitive, it can be harmful as it may induce **vomiting**, leading to re-exposure of the esophagus to the caustic agent.
- Dilution can also generate heat, potentially worsening the **thermal injury**.
*Perform gastric lavage*
- **Gastric lavage** is contraindicated in cases of caustic ingestion due to the risk of **perforation** of already damaged tissues.
- It could also induce vomiting and re-expose the esophagus to the caustic substance, increasing the risk of aspiration.
*Obtain barium upper gastrointestinal series*
- A **barium swallow** is not recommended in the acute phase of caustic ingestion due to the risk of **barium extravasation** if there is a perforation.
- It is typically reserved for later evaluation of potential **strictures** once the acute injury has resolved.
Question 230: A 10-month-old boy is brought to the clinic with a history of recurrent episodes of stridor and wheezing. His mother reports that his wheezing is exacerbated by crying, feeding, and flexion of the neck, and is relieved by extension of the neck. Occasionally he vomits after feeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Laryngomalacia
B. Congenital subglottic stenosis
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
D. Double aortic arch (Correct Answer)
E. Recurrent viral wheeze
Explanation: ***Double aortic arch***
- A **double aortic arch** forms a complete vascular ring around the trachea and esophagus, causing symptoms that worsen with feeding and neck flexion due to increased pressure on these structures.
- The characteristic relief with neck extension and symptoms like stridor, wheezing, and vomiting after feeding are classic signs of airway and esophageal compression by a **vascular ring**.
*Laryngomalacia*
- This condition involves the **collapse of supraglottic structures** during inspiration, typically causing inspiratory stridor, which is often louder when supine or agitated.
- While symptoms can worsen with feeding and crying, the hallmark relief with neck extension and vomiting after feeding due to esophageal compression are not typical features.
*Congenital subglottic stenosis*
- This involves a **narrowing of the airway** below the vocal cords, leading to inspiratory and expiratory stridor, and often biphasic stridor.
- The symptoms are usually persistent and are not characteristically relieved by neck extension or exacerbated by feeding and crying in such a distinct manner.
*Gastroesophageal reflux disease*
- While GERD can cause recurrent vomiting, cough, and even wheezing due to aspiration, it typically does not present with stridor.
- The clear correlation of worsening with neck flexion and relief with neck extension strongly points away from isolated GERD as the primary cause.
*Recurrent viral wheeze*
- This common condition in infants involves episodes of wheezing that are often triggered by **viral respiratory infections**.
- It usually lacks the specific exacerbating and relieving factors related to neck position and feeding, such as relief with neck extension and concurrent vomiting after feeding.