A 4-month-old boy is brought to the physician for a well-child examination. He was born at 36 weeks' gestation. The mother has had no prenatal care. His 6-year-old sister has a history of osteosarcoma. He is exclusively breast fed. He is at the 60th percentile for height and weight. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows inward deviation of the right eye. Indirect ophthalmoscopy shows a white reflex in the right eye and a red reflex in the left eye. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q212
A 2800-g (6-lb 3-oz) male newborn is born at 39 weeks’ gestation to a 22-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, after an uncomplicated labor and delivery. The mother did not receive prenatal care. She traveled to Brazil to visit relatives during the first trimester of her pregnancy. She has bipolar disorder treated with lithium. The newborn is at the 50th percentile for height, 25th percentile for weight, and 2nd percentile for head circumference. Neurologic examination shows spasticity of the upper and lower extremities. The wrists are fixed in flexion bilaterally. Deep tendon reflexes are 4+ and symmetric. Ophthalmoscopic examination shows focal pigmentary retinal mottling. Testing for otoacoustic emissions is negative. Which of the following measures during the mother’s pregnancy is most likely to have prevented this newborn's condition?
Q213
A 4-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his mother who is concerned about progressive leg weakness. His mother reports that the patient used to play outside with their neighbors for hours, but for the past few months she has seen him sitting on the sidewalk after 15 minutes because he’s too tired. The patient says his legs are “sleepy.” The patient’s mother has also had to remove the carpets from the house because the patient kept tripping over the edges. The mother reports that the patient is shy but cooperates well with his siblings and other children. He can say his first and last name and just started counting. His mother states he learned to fully walk by 15 months of age. He was hospitalized for bronchiolitis at 12 months of age, which resolved with supportive care. He had an uncomplicated orchiopexy surgery for undescended testes at 7 months of age. He has no other chronic medical conditions and takes no medications. He is up to date on his vaccinations including a flu vaccine 2 weeks ago. The patient’s mother has systemic lupus erythematous and his paternal uncle has dermatomyositis. On physical examination, bilateral calves are large in circumference compared to the thighs. Strength is 3/5 in bilateral quadriceps and 4/5 in bilateral calves. Sensation is intact. Achilles tendon reflexes are 1+ bilaterally. The patient can hop on one leg, but gets tired after 10 jumps. He has a slight waddling gait. Which of the following is the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis?
Q214
A 6-year-old African American boy presents with fever, jaundice, normochromic normocytic anemia and generalized bone pain. He has a history of similar recurrent bone pain in the past which was partially relieved by analgesics. His vital signs include: blood pressure 120/70 mm Hg, pulse 105/min, respiratory rate 40/min, temperature 37.7℃ (99.9℉), and oxygen saturation 98% in room air. On physical examination, the patient is in severe distress due to pain. He is pale, icteric and dehydrated. His abdomen is full, tense and some degree of guarding is present. Musculoskeletal examination reveals diffuse tenderness of the legs and arms. A complete blood count reveals the following:
Hb 6.5g/dL
Hct 18%
MCV 82.3 fL
Platelet 465,000/µL
WBC 9800/µL
Reticulocyte 7%
Total bilirubin 8.4 mg/dL
A peripheral blood smear shows target cells, elongated cells, and erythrocytes with nuclear remnants. Results from Hb electrophoresis are shown in the exhibit (see image). Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Q215
An 11-year-old male presents to the pediatrician with his mother for evaluation of difficulty walking. His mother reports that the patient was walking normally until about a year ago, when he started to complain of weakness in his legs. He seems to be less steady on his feet than before, and he has fallen twice at home. Prior to a year ago, the patient had no difficulty walking and was active on his school’s soccer team. He has no other past medical history. The patient is an only child, and his mother denies any family history of neurological disease. On physical examination, the patient has mildly slurred speech. He has a wide-based gait with symmetric weakness and decreased sensation in his lower extremities. The patient also has the physical exam findings seen in Figures A and B. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this patient’s presentation?
Q216
A 3-year-old is brought to the pediatrician by his mother because she is concerned about recent changes to his behavior. She states that he has seemed to regress in his motor development and has been having occasional brief episodes of uncontrollable shaking. During the subsequent work up, a muscle biopsy is obtained which demonstrates red ragged fibers and a presumptive diagnosis of a genetic disease made. The mother asks if her other son will be affected. What should be the physician's response?
Q217
A 15-year-old girl is brought to the physician because she has not yet had her first menstrual period. She reports that she frequently experiences cramping and pain in her legs during school sports. The patient is at the 20th percentile for height and 50th percentile for weight. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 70/min, and blood pressure is 155/90 mm Hg. Examination shows a high-arched palate with maloccluded teeth and a low posterior hairline. The patient has a broad chest with widely spaced nipples. Pelvic examination shows normal external female genitalia. There is scant pubic hair. Without appropriate treatment, this patient is at the greatest risk of developing which of the following complications?
Q218
A father brings his 1-year-old son into the pediatrician's office for a routine appointment. He states that his son is well but mentions that he has noticed an intermittent bulge on the right side of his son's groin whenever he cries or strains for bowel movement. Physical exam is unremarkable. The physician suspects a condition that may be caused by incomplete obliteration of the processus vaginalis. Which condition is caused by the same defective process?
Q219
A 3900-g (8.6-lb) newborn is delivered at 38 weeks' gestation to a 27-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, via spontaneous vaginal delivery. Immediately after delivery, he spontaneously cries, grimaces, and moves all four extremities. Over the next five minutes, he becomes cyanotic, dyspneic, and tachypneic. Mask ventilation with 100% oxygen is begun, but ten minutes after delivery the baby continues to appear cyanotic. His temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), pulse is 155/min, respirations are 65/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on 100% oxygen mask ventilation shows an oxygen saturation of 83%. Breath sounds are normal on the right and absent on the left. Heart sounds are best heard in the right midclavicular line. The abdomen appears concave. An x-ray of the chest is shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?
Q220
A 9-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents for an annual wellness examination. He is a relatively healthy boy who was born at term via vaginal delivery. He is meeting his developmental milestones and growth curves and is up-to-date on his immunizations. The father complains that he is picky with his food and would rather eat pizza. The patient denies any trouble at school, fevers, pain, or other concerns. A physical examination demonstrates a healthy boy with a grade 3 midsystolic ejection murmur at the second intercostal space that does not disappear when he sits up. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s findings?
Congenital defects US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 211: A 4-month-old boy is brought to the physician for a well-child examination. He was born at 36 weeks' gestation. The mother has had no prenatal care. His 6-year-old sister has a history of osteosarcoma. He is exclusively breast fed. He is at the 60th percentile for height and weight. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows inward deviation of the right eye. Indirect ophthalmoscopy shows a white reflex in the right eye and a red reflex in the left eye. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Screen for galactosemia
B. Fundus examination (Correct Answer)
C. Visual training exercises
D. CT scan of the eye
E. Serum rubella titers
Explanation: **Fundus examination**
- The presence of a **white reflex (leukocoria)** in the right eye is a critical finding that suggests serious ocular pathology, such as **retinoblastoma**, congenital cataract, or retinopathy of prematurity.
- A prompt **fundus examination** by an ophthalmologist is essential to identify the underlying cause and initiate appropriate treatment to preserve vision and potentially life, especially given the family history of osteosarcoma (which can be associated with retinoblastoma).
*Screen for galactosemia*
- Galactosemia can cause **cataracts**, leading to leukocoria; however, it's typically associated with other symptoms like **vomiting**, poor feeding, and **hepatomegaly**, which are not reported here.
- While screening might be considered, the immediate and most critical step is to investigate the white reflex directly.
*Visual training exercises*
- **Visual training exercises** are typically used for amblyopia or strabismus, a deviation of the eye (which is present here).
- However, they would only be considered *after* ruling out serious underlying causes of leukocoria, as the white reflex indicates a more urgent issue.
*CT scan of the eye*
- A **CT scan of the eye** could be used to evaluate for **intraocular tumors** like retinoblastoma or calcifications.
- However, a **fundus examination** is typically the initial diagnostic step to visualize the retina and determine the nature of the white reflex, guiding subsequent imaging if needed.
*Serum rubella titers*
- **Congenital rubella syndrome** can cause cataracts (leukocoria) and other ocular abnormalities.
- However, there are no other signs suggestive of congenital rubella infection (e.g., microcephaly, congenital heart defects, hearing loss), and testing for it is not the most immediate or highest priority given the acute finding of leukocoria.
Question 212: A 2800-g (6-lb 3-oz) male newborn is born at 39 weeks’ gestation to a 22-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, after an uncomplicated labor and delivery. The mother did not receive prenatal care. She traveled to Brazil to visit relatives during the first trimester of her pregnancy. She has bipolar disorder treated with lithium. The newborn is at the 50th percentile for height, 25th percentile for weight, and 2nd percentile for head circumference. Neurologic examination shows spasticity of the upper and lower extremities. The wrists are fixed in flexion bilaterally. Deep tendon reflexes are 4+ and symmetric. Ophthalmoscopic examination shows focal pigmentary retinal mottling. Testing for otoacoustic emissions is negative. Which of the following measures during the mother’s pregnancy is most likely to have prevented this newborn's condition?
A. Use of mosquito repellant (Correct Answer)
B. Discontinuation of mood stabilizer
C. Administration of antibiotic therapy
D. Avoid consumption of undercooked meat
E. Daily intake of prenatal vitamins
Explanation: ***Use of mosquito repellant***
- The constellation of **microcephaly** (2nd percentile for head circumference), **spasticity**, **fixed joint contractures** (wrists in flexion), **retinal mottling**, and **hearing loss** (negative otoacoustic emissions) in a newborn whose mother traveled to Brazil during the first trimester is highly suggestive of **congenital Zika syndrome**.
- **Zika virus** is primarily transmitted by mosquitoes, and preventing mosquito bites with repellents is the most effective way to prevent infection in endemic areas.
*Discontinuation of mood stabilizer*
- The mother's lithium use is likely for bipolar disorder, but fetal exposure to **lithium** is typically associated with **Ebstein's anomaly** (a congenital heart defect), not the neurological and ocular findings described here.
- The newborn's symptoms do not align with known effects of lithium toxicity or teratogenicity.
*Administration of antibiotic therapy*
- **Bacterial infections** during pregnancy can cause congenital abnormalities, but the specific cluster of symptoms (microcephaly, spasticity, retinal mottling, hearing loss) is not typical for a bacterial congenital infection that would be preventable by routine antibiotic therapy.
- This clinical picture strongly points towards a **viral etiology**, specifically Zika.
*Avoid consumption of undercooked meat*
- Avoiding undercooked meat is crucial for preventing **toxoplasmosis**, a parasitic infection that can cause congenital disease, presenting with hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications, and chorioretinitis.
- While some symptoms overlap, the prominent microcephaly and travel history to Brazil are more indicative of Zika, and **toxoplasmosis** typically involves more widespread brain calcifications and hydrocephalus rather than primarily microcephaly and spasticity with retinal mottling.
*Daily intake of prenatal vitamins*
- **Prenatal vitamins**, especially **folic acid**, are essential for preventing **neural tube defects** (e.g., spina bifida, anencephaly), which are structural abnormalities of the brain and spinal cord.
- The presented symptoms of microcephaly, spasticity, and ocular/auditory issues are characteristic of a congenital infection rather than a vitamin deficiency-related developmental anomaly.
Question 213: A 4-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his mother who is concerned about progressive leg weakness. His mother reports that the patient used to play outside with their neighbors for hours, but for the past few months she has seen him sitting on the sidewalk after 15 minutes because he’s too tired. The patient says his legs are “sleepy.” The patient’s mother has also had to remove the carpets from the house because the patient kept tripping over the edges. The mother reports that the patient is shy but cooperates well with his siblings and other children. He can say his first and last name and just started counting. His mother states he learned to fully walk by 15 months of age. He was hospitalized for bronchiolitis at 12 months of age, which resolved with supportive care. He had an uncomplicated orchiopexy surgery for undescended testes at 7 months of age. He has no other chronic medical conditions and takes no medications. He is up to date on his vaccinations including a flu vaccine 2 weeks ago. The patient’s mother has systemic lupus erythematous and his paternal uncle has dermatomyositis. On physical examination, bilateral calves are large in circumference compared to the thighs. Strength is 3/5 in bilateral quadriceps and 4/5 in bilateral calves. Sensation is intact. Achilles tendon reflexes are 1+ bilaterally. The patient can hop on one leg, but gets tired after 10 jumps. He has a slight waddling gait. Which of the following is the most appropriate test to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Genetic testing (Correct Answer)
B. Creatine kinase level
C. Muscle biopsy
D. Nerve conduction study
E. Acetylcholine receptor antibody level
Explanation: ***Genetic testing***
- **Genetic testing** for mutations in the **dystrophin gene** is the **definitive confirmatory test** for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD).
- The clinical presentation of **progressive proximal weakness**, **calf pseudohypertrophy**, **waddling gait**, **delayed motor milestones** (walking at 15 months), and **easy fatigability** in a young boy is classic for DMD.
- **Deletion or duplication analysis** of the dystrophin gene identifies mutations in approximately **98% of DMD cases**, making it the most appropriate test to **confirm the diagnosis**.
- Current DMD care guidelines (2018) recommend genetic testing as the primary confirmatory diagnostic test.
*Creatine kinase level*
- **Elevated CK** (typically 10-100 times normal) is a hallmark finding in DMD and is often the **initial screening test**.
- While highly sensitive, **CK elevation is not specific** to DMD—it can be elevated in other muscular dystrophies, inflammatory myopathies, and even after vigorous exercise.
- CK levels confirm muscle damage but do not establish the specific diagnosis of DMD, making it an excellent screening tool but not a confirmatory test.
*Muscle biopsy*
- **Muscle biopsy** can demonstrate **dystrophic changes** (fiber size variation, necrosis, regeneration, endomysial fibrosis) and **absence or reduction of dystrophin protein** on immunohistochemistry.
- This was historically the gold standard but is **more invasive** than genetic testing and is now typically reserved for cases where **genetic testing is inconclusive** or atypical presentations.
*Nerve conduction study*
- **Nerve conduction studies** evaluate peripheral nerve function and are used to diagnose **neuropathies** (e.g., Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease).
- This patient has a **myopathy** (primary muscle disease), not a neuropathy, so NCS would be **normal** and not helpful for diagnosis.
*Acetylcholine receptor antibody level*
- **Acetylcholine receptor antibodies** are positive in **myasthenia gravis**, a neuromuscular junction disorder.
- Myasthenia gravis presents with **fluctuating weakness** (worse with activity, improves with rest), often with **ptosis and diplopia**, which does not match this presentation of progressive proximal muscle weakness.
Question 214: A 6-year-old African American boy presents with fever, jaundice, normochromic normocytic anemia and generalized bone pain. He has a history of similar recurrent bone pain in the past which was partially relieved by analgesics. His vital signs include: blood pressure 120/70 mm Hg, pulse 105/min, respiratory rate 40/min, temperature 37.7℃ (99.9℉), and oxygen saturation 98% in room air. On physical examination, the patient is in severe distress due to pain. He is pale, icteric and dehydrated. His abdomen is full, tense and some degree of guarding is present. Musculoskeletal examination reveals diffuse tenderness of the legs and arms. A complete blood count reveals the following:
Hb 6.5g/dL
Hct 18%
MCV 82.3 fL
Platelet 465,000/µL
WBC 9800/µL
Reticulocyte 7%
Total bilirubin 8.4 mg/dL
A peripheral blood smear shows target cells, elongated cells, and erythrocytes with nuclear remnants. Results from Hb electrophoresis are shown in the exhibit (see image). Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
A. Von-Gierke’s disease
B. Sickle cell trait
C. Sickle cell disease (Correct Answer)
D. HbC
E. G6PD deficiency
Explanation: ***Sickle cell disease***
- **Sickle cell disease** is characterized by recurrent episodes of **vaso-occlusive crises**, presenting as severe bone pain and abdominal pain due to tissue ischemia, consistent with this patient's symptoms and history.
- The **peripheral blood smear** showing **target cells**, **elongated cells (sickle cells)**, and **erythrocytes with nuclear remnants (Howell-Jolly bodies)**, along with **normochromic normocytic anemia**, elevated reticulocytes (indicating hemolysis), and hyperbilirubinemia, are classic findings in sickle cell disease.
*Von-Gierke’s disease*
- **Von-Gierke's disease** is a **glycogen storage disorder** primarily affecting the liver and kidneys, causing **hypoglycemia**, elevated lactate, and hepatomegaly, none of which are consistent with the patient's presentation.
- It does not explain the **anemia**, **jaundice**, or characteristic red blood cell morphology observed in this patient.
*Sickle cell trait*
- **Sickle cell trait** (heterozygous HbAS) is generally **asymptomatic**, as individuals usually produce enough normal hemoglobin to prevent significant sickling.
- While it can manifest under extreme conditions (e.g., severe hypoxia), it would not cause the severe, recurrent vaso-occlusive crises, marked anemia, and extensive hemolytic signs seen here.
*HbC*
- **Hemoglobin C disease** can cause a **mild chronic hemolytic anemia** and splenomegaly, but typically presents with less severe clinical manifestations compared to sickle cell disease.
- The characteristic red blood cell morphology for HbC includes numerous **target cells** and **HbC crystals**, but not prominent elongated sickle cells, and the severity of pain crises is usually much lower.
*G6PD deficiency*
- **G6PD deficiency** causes **hemolytic anemia** triggered by specific oxidative stressors (e.g., certain drugs, infections, fava beans), leading to **Heinz bodies** and **bite cells** on peripheral smear.
- It does not typically cause recurrent vaso-occlusive crises or the specific elongated and sickle-shaped cells seen in this patient's smear.
Question 215: An 11-year-old male presents to the pediatrician with his mother for evaluation of difficulty walking. His mother reports that the patient was walking normally until about a year ago, when he started to complain of weakness in his legs. He seems to be less steady on his feet than before, and he has fallen twice at home. Prior to a year ago, the patient had no difficulty walking and was active on his school’s soccer team. He has no other past medical history. The patient is an only child, and his mother denies any family history of neurological disease. On physical examination, the patient has mildly slurred speech. He has a wide-based gait with symmetric weakness and decreased sensation in his lower extremities. The patient also has the physical exam findings seen in Figures A and B. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of this patient’s presentation?
A. Genetic mutation on chromosome 11q22
B. Trinucleotide (CGG) repeat expansion on chromosome X
C. Trinucleotide (CTG) repeat expansion on chromosome 19
D. Trinucleotide (GAA) repeat expansion on chromosome 9 (Correct Answer)
E. Infection with gram-negative rods
Explanation: ***Trinucleotide (GAA) repeat expansion on chromosome 9***
- The patient's presentation with **progressive ataxia**, dysarthria (**slurred speech**), symmetric leg weakness, sensory deficits, and *pes cavus* (depicted in visual aids, though not explicitly described) is highly suggestive of **Friedreich's ataxia**.
- **Friedreich's ataxia** is caused by a **GAA trinucleotide repeat expansion** in the *FXN* gene on chromosome 9, leading to reduced frataxin protein and mitochondrial dysfunction.
*Genetic mutation on chromosome 11q22*
- A mutation on chromosome 11q22 is associated with **Ataxia-telangiectasia**, which presents with ataxia, but also **oculocutaneous telangiectasias** and immunodeficiency, not mentioned in this case.
- While both conditions cause ataxia, the absence of telangiectasias and the specific type of genetic defect differentiate it from Friedreich's ataxia.
*Trinucleotide (CGG) repeat expansion on chromosome X*
- A **trinucleotide (CGG) repeat expansion on the X chromosome** is characteristic of **Fragile X syndrome**, which primarily causes intellectual disability and behavioral issues, not progressive ataxia and spasticity.
- While some individuals with Fragile X-associated tremor/ataxia syndrome (FXTAS) can present with ataxia later in life, it is typically in older males and does not fit the described childhood onset and specific neurological findings here.
*Trinucleotide (CTG) repeat expansion on chromosome 19*
- A **trinucleotide (CTG) repeat expansion on chromosome 19** is the genetic basis for **Myotonic dystrophy type 1**, characterized by muscle weakness, myotonia, and cataracts.
- While it causes muscle weakness, the presenting features of ataxia, dysarthria, and specific sensory deficits are not typical for myotonic dystrophy type 1.
*Infection with gram-negative rods*
- An infection with **gram-negative rods** could potentially lead to neurological complications like **Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)**, characterized by ascending paralysis, often preceded by an infection.
- However, GBS is typically an acute, monophasic illness with rapid progression over days to weeks, unlike the chronic, progressive course over a year described in this patient.
Question 216: A 3-year-old is brought to the pediatrician by his mother because she is concerned about recent changes to his behavior. She states that he has seemed to regress in his motor development and has been having occasional brief episodes of uncontrollable shaking. During the subsequent work up, a muscle biopsy is obtained which demonstrates red ragged fibers and a presumptive diagnosis of a genetic disease made. The mother asks if her other son will be affected. What should be the physician's response?
A. There is a 50% chance he will be affected
B. There is a 100% chance he will be affected, and the severity will be the same
C. There is a 25% chance he will be affected
D. There is a 100% chance he will be affected, but the severity may be different (Correct Answer)
E. He will be unaffected
Explanation: ***There is a 100% chance he will be affected, but the severity may be different***
- The patient's symptoms (motor regression, seizures, red ragged fibers on muscle biopsy) are classic for a **mitochondrial disorder**, which are inherited via **maternal inheritance**.
- All children of an affected mother will inherit the affected mitochondria; however, the **heteroplasmy** (proportion of mutated mitochondria inherited) can vary, leading to different disease severities.
*There is a 50% chance he will be affected*
- This inheritance pattern is typical for **autosomal dominant** disorders, or occasionally X-linked disorders in males.
- Mitochondrial disorders do not follow autosomal dominant inheritance, as they are exclusively inherited from the mother.
*There is a 100% chance he will be affected, and the severity will be the same*
- While there is a 100% chance of inheriting the mutated mitochondria from an affected mother, the **phenotypic expression and severity can vary widely** due to heteroplasmy.
- The proportion of mutated mitochondria can differ in various tissues and between offspring, leading to variable clinical manifestations.
*There is a 25% chance he will be affected*
- This represents the risk of inheritance for an **autosomal recessive** disorder when both parents are carriers.
- Mitochondrial inheritance does not follow an autosomal recessive pattern.
*He will be unaffected*
- This would only be true if the mother's mitochondrial DNA were not affected or if the inheritance pattern allowed for some children to be completely spared, which is not the case for mitochondrial disorders.
- Since the mother is the carrier of the mitochondrial mutation, all her children will inherit the mutated mitochondria.
Question 217: A 15-year-old girl is brought to the physician because she has not yet had her first menstrual period. She reports that she frequently experiences cramping and pain in her legs during school sports. The patient is at the 20th percentile for height and 50th percentile for weight. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 70/min, and blood pressure is 155/90 mm Hg. Examination shows a high-arched palate with maloccluded teeth and a low posterior hairline. The patient has a broad chest with widely spaced nipples. Pelvic examination shows normal external female genitalia. There is scant pubic hair. Without appropriate treatment, this patient is at the greatest risk of developing which of the following complications?
A. Severe acne
B. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
C. Pathologic fractures (Correct Answer)
D. Pulmonary stenosis
E. Ectopia lentis
Explanation: ***Pathologic fractures***
- Turner syndrome is associated with **estrogen deficiency**, which leads to **reduced bone mineral density** and increased risk of **osteoporosis** and **pathologic fractures**.
- The patient's features (primary amenorrhea, short stature, low posterior hairline, widely spaced nipples, and high-arched palate) are classic for **Turner syndrome** (45,XO).
*Severe acne*
- Severe acne is typically associated with **androgen excess**, which is not characteristic of Turner syndrome; rather, **estrogen deficiency** is the primary hormonal imbalance.
- While acne can occur, it is not a hallmark complication or a direct consequence of the underlying chromosomal abnormality in Turner syndrome.
*Obsessive-compulsive disorder*
- While individuals with Turner syndrome may experience **psychological challenges** or learning disabilities, obsessive-compulsive disorder is not a specifically elevated risk or characteristic complication.
- Neurodevelopmental profiles in Turner syndrome often include difficulties in **spatial-visual skills** and executive function, rather than a direct predisposition to OCD itself.
*Pulmonary stenosis*
- **Cardiac anomalies** are common in Turner syndrome, but the most frequent are **bicuspid aortic valve** and **coarctation of the aorta**, not pulmonary stenosis.
- While other cardiac defects can occur, pulmonary stenosis is less characteristic compared to left-sided obstructive lesions.
*Ectopia lentis*
- **Ectopia lentis** (dislocation of the lens) is a characteristic feature of **Marfan syndrome** due to abnormalities in fibrillin-1.
- This condition is not associated with Turner syndrome, which primarily involves chromosomal abnormalities and related developmental issues.
Question 218: A father brings his 1-year-old son into the pediatrician's office for a routine appointment. He states that his son is well but mentions that he has noticed an intermittent bulge on the right side of his son's groin whenever he cries or strains for bowel movement. Physical exam is unremarkable. The physician suspects a condition that may be caused by incomplete obliteration of the processus vaginalis. Which condition is caused by the same defective process?
A. Diaphragmatic hernia
B. Femoral hernia
C. Testicular torsion
D. Hydrocele (Correct Answer)
E. Varicocele
Explanation: ***Hydrocele***
- The patient's symptoms (intermittent groin bulge with crying/straining) are classic for an **indirect inguinal hernia**, which, like a hydrocele, results from an **incompletely obliterated processus vaginalis**.
- A **hydrocele** involves the accumulation of **serous fluid** within the persistent processus vaginalis, as opposed to abdominal contents in a hernia.
*Diaphragmatic hernia*
- This condition involves the protrusion of abdominal contents into the chest cavity through a defect in the **diaphragm**.
- It is unrelated to the obliteration of the processus vaginalis but rather to **diaphragmatic development**.
*Femoral hernia*
- A femoral hernia involves protrusion through the **femoral canal**, inferior to the inguinal ligament.
- It does not involve the processus vaginalis and is more common in **multiparous women**.
*Testicular torsion*
- This condition is a surgical emergency caused by the **twisting of the spermatic cord**, compromising blood supply to the testis.
- It is not related to the processus vaginalis but often involves an inadequately fixed testis (bell-clapper deformity).
*Varicocele*
- A varicocele is an abnormal dilation of the **pampiniform venous plexus** within the spermatic cord.
- It is caused by incompetent valves in the testicular veins and not by a patent processus vaginalis.
Question 219: A 3900-g (8.6-lb) newborn is delivered at 38 weeks' gestation to a 27-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, via spontaneous vaginal delivery. Immediately after delivery, he spontaneously cries, grimaces, and moves all four extremities. Over the next five minutes, he becomes cyanotic, dyspneic, and tachypneic. Mask ventilation with 100% oxygen is begun, but ten minutes after delivery the baby continues to appear cyanotic. His temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), pulse is 155/min, respirations are 65/min, and blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg. Pulse oximetry on 100% oxygen mask ventilation shows an oxygen saturation of 83%. Breath sounds are normal on the right and absent on the left. Heart sounds are best heard in the right midclavicular line. The abdomen appears concave. An x-ray of the chest is shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?
A. Intubation and mechanical ventilation (Correct Answer)
B. Surfactant administration
C. Chest tube placement
D. Extracorporeal life support
E. Surgical repair
Explanation: ***Intubation and mechanical ventilation***
- The patient's presentation with **cyanosis**, **dyspnea**, **tachypnea**, **absent breath sounds on the left**, **shifted heart sounds (dextrocardia)**, **concave abdomen**, and **bowel loops in the left hemithorax on X-ray** is highly suggestive of **congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH)**.
- **Intubation** and **mechanical ventilation** are crucial initial steps for **respiratory support** and to prevent further expansion of bowel gas with positive pressure ventilation, which can worsen lung compression.
*Surfactant administration*
- **Surfactant** is primarily used for **respiratory distress syndrome** in preterm infants with underdeveloped lungs, characterized by diffuse bilateral lung disease.
- While CDH can lead to **pulmonary hypoplasia**, surfactant alone would not address the underlying anatomical defect or the severe respiratory compromise from bowel in the chest.
*Chest tube placement*
- **Chest tube placement** is indicated for **pneumothorax** or **pleural effusion**.
- While a pneumothorax can cause respiratory distress, the X-ray and other clinical signs clearly point to CDH, not a pneumothorax requiring chest tube drainage.
*Extracorporeal life support*
- **Extracorporeal life support (ECLS)**, such as **ECMO**, is a highly advanced intervention reserved for severe respiratory or cardiac failure refractory to conventional management.
- It is a consideration for CDH if mechanical ventilation fails, but it is not the *initial* appropriate step in management.
*Surgical repair*
- **Surgical repair** is the definitive treatment for CDH, as it involves repositioning the abdominal organs and closing the diaphragmatic defect.
- However, it is an **elective procedure** performed once the infant is **stabilized**, as immediate surgery carries high risks due to the critically ill state of the neonate.
Question 220: A 9-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents for an annual wellness examination. He is a relatively healthy boy who was born at term via vaginal delivery. He is meeting his developmental milestones and growth curves and is up-to-date on his immunizations. The father complains that he is picky with his food and would rather eat pizza. The patient denies any trouble at school, fevers, pain, or other concerns. A physical examination demonstrates a healthy boy with a grade 3 midsystolic ejection murmur at the second intercostal space that does not disappear when he sits up. What is the most likely explanation for this patient’s findings?
A. Physiologic conditions outside the heart
B. Inflammation of the visceral and parietal pericardium
C. Failure of the septum primum to fuse with the endocardial cushions
D. Defect of the septum secundum (Correct Answer)
E. Prolonged patency of the ductus arteriosus
Explanation: **Defect of the septum secundum**
- A **grade 3 midsystolic ejection murmur** that does not disappear when sitting up in an otherwise healthy 9-year-old child is characteristic of an **atrial septal defect (ASD)**.
- Defects of the **septum secundum** are the most common type of ASD, allowing blood to shunt from the left to the right atrium, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow and the generation of such a murmur.
*Physiologic conditions outside the heart*
- A **physiologic murmur** (also known as a Still's murmur) is typically described as a grade 1-2 innocent murmur that often disappears or changes with positional changes (e.g., sitting up).
- The **grade 3 intensity** and persistence with positional changes make a common physiologic murmur less likely in this case.
*Inflammation of the visceral and parietal pericardium*
- **Pericarditis** typically presents with chest pain that can worsen with inspiration and lying down, and a characteristic **pericardial friction rub**, not a midsystolic ejection murmur.
- This condition is unlikely in an otherwise healthy child with no other systemic symptoms or signs of inflammation.
*Failure of the septum primum to fuse with the endocardial cushions*
- This describes a **primum ASD**, which is a type of ASD often associated with **endocardial cushion defects** and other congenital heart anomalies, such as cleft mitral valve.
- While it is a type of ASD, the description typically refers to the larger, more clinically significant defects and doesn't explicitly refer to the most common type of ASD, which is the septum secundum defect.
*Prolonged patency of the ductus arteriosus*
- A **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)** produces a **continuous, machine-like murmur** that is typically heard best at the left upper sternal border.
- The murmur described in the patient is a **midsystolic ejection murmur**, which is distinct from the continuous murmur of a PDA.