A 2-year-old male presents to the pediatrician for abdominal pain. The patient’s parents report that he has been experiencing intermittent abdominal pain for two days. Each episode lasts several minutes, and the patient seems to be entirely well between the episodes. The pain seems to improve when the patient squats on the ground with his knees to his chest. The patient’s parents also endorse decreased appetite for two days and report that his last bowel movement was yesterday. Three days ago, the patient had two episodes of blood-streaked stools, which then seemed to resolve. His parents were not concerned at the time because the patient did not seem to be in any pain. They deny any other recent upper respiratory or gastrointestinal symptoms. The patient’s past medical history is otherwise unremarkable. His temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 71/53 mmHg, pulse is 129/min, and respirations are 18/min. The patient is happily playing in his mother’s lap. His abdomen is soft and non-distended, and he is diffusely tender to palpation over the entire right side. A 2x4 cm cylindrical mass can be palpated in the right upper quadrant.
Which of the following is most likely to be found in this patient?
Q162
A 7-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his parents for a routine checkup. The parents note that the patient recently joined a baseball team and has had trouble keeping up with his teammates and gets short of breath with exertion. The patient has otherwise been healthy and has no known history of asthma or allergic reaction. Today, the patient’s temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 112/72 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 12/min. The physical exam is notable for a heart murmur that decreases when the patient bears down. Additionally, the hand grip and rapid squatting maneuvers increase the severity of the murmur. Which of the following is likely heard on auscultation?
Q163
A 2-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents several weeks after the family immigrated from Russia. The parents are worried because the child appears to have trouble seeing and has not started walking. The child was born at home and has never been evaluated by a physician. During the pregnancy, the mother had a week of fever, myalgia, diffuse rash, and bilateral nontender cervical adenopathy after the family adopted a new cat. An MRI of the head is shown. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
Q164
A 14-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents for a follow-up examination. Since early childhood, he has had recurrent respiratory infections that cause him to miss several weeks of school each year. Last month, he had received treatment for his seventh episode of sinusitis this year. He has always had bulky, foul-smelling, oily stools that are now increasing in frequency. His parents are concerned that he is too thin and not gaining weight appropriately. He has a good appetite and eats a variety of foods. He is in the 10th percentile for height and the 5th percentile for weight. Examination of the nasal cavity shows multiple nasal polyps. The lung fields are clear upon auscultation. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
Q165
A 2-day-old newborn boy has failed to pass meconium after 48 hours. There is an absence of stool in the rectal vault. Family history is significant for MEN2A syndrome. Which of the following confirms the diagnosis?
Q166
A 2-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother for a well-child examination. Cardiac auscultation is shown. When she clenches her fist forcefully for a sustained time, the intensity of the murmur increases. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's auscultation findings?
Q167
A previously healthy 2-month-old girl is brought to the emergency department because her lips turned blue while passing stools 30 minutes ago. She is at the 40th percentile for length and below the 35th percentile for weight. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 65%, which increases to 76% on administration of 100% oxygen. Physical examination shows perioral cyanosis and retractions of the lower ribs with respiration. Cardiac examination shows a harsh grade 2/6 systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur heard best at the left upper sternal border. Which of the following is most likely to improve this patient's symptoms?
Q168
A 5-year-old boy is brought to see his pediatrician because of painless swelling in both legs and around his eyes. His mother reports that it is worse in the morning and these symptoms have started 4 days ago. The child has just recovered from a severe upper respiratory tract infection 8 days ago. The boy was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is up to date on all vaccines and is meeting all developmental milestones. Today, his blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, the heart rate is 90/min, the respiratory rate is 22/min, and the temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F). On physical examination, his face is edematous and there is a 2+ pitting edema over both legs up to his hips. Laboratory results are shown.
Serum albumin 2.4 g/dL
Serum triglycerides 250 mg/dL
Serum cholesterol 300 mg/dL
Urine dipstick 4+ protein
Which of the following is the best initial therapy for this patient’s condition?
Q169
A 4-month-old male infant is brought in because he rejects food and is losing weight. He had several upper respiratory tract infections during the last 2 months. Upon examination, hepatosplenomegaly is noted, as well as mild hypotonia. During the next few weeks, hepatosplenomegaly progresses, the boy fails to thrive, and he continues to reject food. He has a blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg and heart rate of 84/min. Blood tests show pancytopenia and elevated levels of transaminases. Slit lamp examination shows bilateral cherry-red spots on the macula. Chest X-ray shows a reticulonodular pattern and calcified nodules. Biopsy of the liver shows foamy histiocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q170
A 6-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with acute intermittent umbilical abdominal pain that began that morning. The pain radiates to his right lower abdomen and occurs every 15–30 minutes. During these episodes of pain, the boy draws up his knees to the chest. The patient has had several episodes of nonbilious vomiting. He had a similar episode 3 months ago. His temperature is 37.7°C (99.86°F), pulse is 99/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows periumbilical tenderness with no masses palpated. Abdominal ultrasound shows concentric rings of bowel in transverse section. Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte Count 8,000/mm3
Hemoglobin 10.6 g/dL
Hematocrit 32%
Platelet Count 180,000/mm3
Serum
Sodium 143 mEq/L
Potassium 3.7 mEq/L
Chloride 88 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 28 mEq/L
Urea Nitrogen 19 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.3 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
Congenital defects US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 161: A 2-year-old male presents to the pediatrician for abdominal pain. The patient’s parents report that he has been experiencing intermittent abdominal pain for two days. Each episode lasts several minutes, and the patient seems to be entirely well between the episodes. The pain seems to improve when the patient squats on the ground with his knees to his chest. The patient’s parents also endorse decreased appetite for two days and report that his last bowel movement was yesterday. Three days ago, the patient had two episodes of blood-streaked stools, which then seemed to resolve. His parents were not concerned at the time because the patient did not seem to be in any pain. They deny any other recent upper respiratory or gastrointestinal symptoms. The patient’s past medical history is otherwise unremarkable. His temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 71/53 mmHg, pulse is 129/min, and respirations are 18/min. The patient is happily playing in his mother’s lap. His abdomen is soft and non-distended, and he is diffusely tender to palpation over the entire right side. A 2x4 cm cylindrical mass can be palpated in the right upper quadrant.
Which of the following is most likely to be found in this patient?
A. Purpuric rash on lower extremities
B. Meckel's diverticulum on technetium-99m scan
C. Target sign on abdominal ultrasound (Correct Answer)
D. Positive stool culture for Salmonella
E. Malrotation with midgut volvulus on upper GI series
Explanation: ***Target sign on abdominal ultrasound***
- This presentation is **classic for intussusception**: intermittent colicky abdominal pain with pain-free intervals, blood-streaked stools ("currant jelly stools"), and a palpable cylindrical/"sausage-shaped" mass in the right upper quadrant.
- The **target (doughnut) sign** on abdominal ultrasound is the **diagnostic hallmark** of intussusception, showing the telescoped bowel segment in cross-section.
- **Abdominal ultrasound** is the **first-line diagnostic test** for suspected intussusception with >95% sensitivity and specificity.
- The knee-to-chest position providing relief is a classic sign as it increases intra-abdominal pressure and may temporarily reduce the intussusception.
- Most cases in children under 2 years are **idiopathic** (due to lymphoid hyperplasia), making intussusception itself the primary diagnosis.
*Meckel's diverticulum on technetium-99m scan*
- **Meckel's diverticulum** classically presents with **painless rectal bleeding** in children under 2 years, not intermittent colicky pain.
- While Meckel's diverticulum can serve as a **lead point** for intussusception in children **over 1 year**, it accounts for only a small percentage of cases.
- A **technetium-99m pertechnetate scan** detects ectopic gastric mucosa in Meckel's diverticulum but is not the primary diagnostic test when clinical features strongly suggest intussusception.
- The palpable mass and intermittent pain pattern point to intussusception as the primary pathology requiring immediate diagnosis.
*Purpuric rash on lower extremities*
- **Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP)** can cause abdominal pain and gastrointestinal bleeding with a characteristic purpuric rash on lower extremities and buttocks.
- HSP typically presents with **palpable purpura**, arthralgias, and renal involvement, not a palpable abdominal mass.
- The **absence of rash** and presence of a classic triad (pain, mass, bloody stools) make intussusception far more likely.
*Malrotation with midgut volvulus on upper GI series*
- **Midgut volvulus** is a surgical emergency presenting with **sudden onset bilious vomiting**, severe constant abdominal pain, and rapid progression to shock.
- The **intermittent nature** of pain with complete resolution between episodes is **not consistent** with volvulus, which causes persistent severe pain.
- This patient's stable vital signs and playful demeanor between episodes rule out volvulus.
*Positive stool culture for Salmonella*
- **Salmonella gastroenteritis** causes bloody diarrhea, fever, and cramping abdominal pain but does **not** cause a palpable abdominal mass.
- The patient has **no fever**, no diarrhea, and the intermittent pain pattern with a palpable mass is pathognomonic for intussusception, not infectious enteritis.
- Bacterial gastroenteritis would not improve with positional changes like knee-to-chest position.
Question 162: A 7-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his parents for a routine checkup. The parents note that the patient recently joined a baseball team and has had trouble keeping up with his teammates and gets short of breath with exertion. The patient has otherwise been healthy and has no known history of asthma or allergic reaction. Today, the patient’s temperature is 98.2°F (36.8°C), blood pressure is 112/72 mmHg, pulse is 70/min, and respirations are 12/min. The physical exam is notable for a heart murmur that decreases when the patient bears down. Additionally, the hand grip and rapid squatting maneuvers increase the severity of the murmur. Which of the following is likely heard on auscultation?
A. Continuous murmur inferior to the left clavicle
B. Holosystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla
C. Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur radiating to carotids
D. Late systolic murmur with a midsystolic click
E. Holosystolic murmur at the lower left sternal border (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Holosystolic murmur at the lower left sternal border***
- This presentation is classic for a **ventricular septal defect (VSD)**, which is the most common congenital heart defect. The murmur is **holosystolic** and best heard at the **lower left sternal border**.
- The key physiological findings support VSD: the murmur **decreases with Valsalva** (decreased venous return → decreased left-to-right shunt) and **increases with handgrip and squatting** (increased systemic vascular resistance → increased left-to-right shunt across the defect).
- **Exertional dyspnea** in a previously healthy child can occur with moderate-sized VSDs due to increased pulmonary blood flow. Small VSDs may be asymptomatic until increased activity demands reveal the limitation.
*Continuous murmur inferior to the left clavicle*
- This describes a **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)**, which produces a continuous **"machinery-like" murmur** heard best in the infraclavicular area and under the left clavicle.
- While PDA can cause exertional symptoms, the murmur characteristics don't match the holosystolic pattern described, and the dynamic maneuver responses differ from this case.
*Holosystolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla*
- This is the classic presentation of **mitral regurgitation**. The murmur would **increase with squatting** (increased preload), but the location (apex radiating to axilla) doesn't match the lower left sternal border location described.
- Mitral regurgitation is uncommon in otherwise healthy children without rheumatic disease or structural abnormalities.
*Crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur radiating to carotids*
- This describes **aortic stenosis**, which produces an **ejection systolic murmur** that radiates to the carotids.
- Aortic stenosis has a crescendo-decrescendo (ejection) pattern, not holosystolic, and the location and radiation pattern don't match this patient's findings.
*Late systolic murmur with a midsystolic click*
- This is pathognomonic for **mitral valve prolapse (MVP)**. In MVP, the click and murmur **move earlier and become louder with Valsalva** (decreased ventricular volume allows earlier prolapse), which is opposite to this patient's findings.
- MVP is the opposite response: louder with Valsalva, softer with squatting.
Question 163: A 2-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents several weeks after the family immigrated from Russia. The parents are worried because the child appears to have trouble seeing and has not started walking. The child was born at home and has never been evaluated by a physician. During the pregnancy, the mother had a week of fever, myalgia, diffuse rash, and bilateral nontender cervical adenopathy after the family adopted a new cat. An MRI of the head is shown. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
A. Continuous machinery murmur
B. Spasticity of bilateral lower extremities (Correct Answer)
C. Loss of pain sensation in shawl distribution
D. Pupils do not react to light but constrict with accommodation
E. Tuft of hair over the lumbosacral area
Explanation: ***Spasticity of bilateral lower extremities***
- The patient's clinical presentation with **vision problems**, **developmental delay** (not walking at 2 years), and the mother's history of infection during pregnancy after adopting a cat (suggesting **Toxoplasma gondii** exposure) is highly indicative of **congenital toxoplasmosis**.
- The classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis includes **chorioretinitis** (causing vision problems), **hydrocephalus**, and **intracranial calcifications** (typically diffuse, unlike periventricular calcifications in CMV).
- **Spasticity** and **motor deficits** are common neurological sequelae resulting from brain damage caused by the parasitic infection, including damage to the **basal ganglia**, **cortical structures**, and development of **hydrocephalus**, which can be seen on the MRI.
- These upper motor neuron findings often manifest as **spastic diplegia or quadriplegia** in affected children.
*Continuous machinery murmur*
- A **continuous machinery murmur** is characteristic of a **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)**, which is commonly associated with **congenital rubella syndrome**, not toxoplasmosis.
- While other TORCH infections can have cardiac involvement, PDA is a highly specific finding for rubella; congenital toxoplasmosis typically does not cause significant cardiac defects.
*Loss of pain sensation in shawl distribution*
- **Loss of pain sensation in a shawl distribution** is characteristic of **syringomyelia**, a disorder involving a cyst within the spinal cord, which is not associated with congenital toxoplasmosis.
- This symptom reflects damage to the **spinothalamic tracts** at the cervical spinal cord level, representing a structural spinal cord abnormality unrelated to parasitic infection.
*Pupils do not react to light but constrict with accommodation*
- **Argyll Robertson pupils**, characterized by pupils that do not react to light but constrict with accommodation, are a classic sign of **neurosyphilis** (tertiary syphilis), not congenital toxoplasmosis.
- While syphilis is also a TORCH infection, this specific pupillary finding is pathognomonic for neurosyphilis and would not be expected in congenital toxoplasmosis.
*Tuft of hair over the lumbosacral area*
- A **tuft of hair over the lumbosacral area** is a cutaneous marker for **spina bifida occulta** or other forms of **neural tube defects**.
- This finding indicates a developmental anomaly of the spinal cord from failure of neural tube closure, which is not a manifestation of congenital toxoplasmosis.
Question 164: A 14-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents for a follow-up examination. Since early childhood, he has had recurrent respiratory infections that cause him to miss several weeks of school each year. Last month, he had received treatment for his seventh episode of sinusitis this year. He has always had bulky, foul-smelling, oily stools that are now increasing in frequency. His parents are concerned that he is too thin and not gaining weight appropriately. He has a good appetite and eats a variety of foods. He is in the 10th percentile for height and the 5th percentile for weight. Examination of the nasal cavity shows multiple nasal polyps. The lung fields are clear upon auscultation. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Positive methacholine challenge test
B. Hypersensitivity to aspirin
C. Selective IgA deficiency
D. Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies
E. Absent vas deferens (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Absent vas deferens***
- This symptom is highly suggestive of **cystic fibrosis (CF)**, as over 95% of males with CF have **congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens (CBAVD)**, leading to infertility.
- The patient's history of **recurrent respiratory infections** (sinusitis), **nasal polyps**, **malabsorption** (bulky, foul-smelling, oily stools), and **failure to thrive** (low height and weight percentiles) are all classic features of CF.
*Positive methacholine challenge test*
- A positive methacholine challenge test indicates **bronchial hyperreactivity**, often seen in **asthma**. While some patients with cystic fibrosis may develop asthma-like symptoms, this is not the most definitive or specific finding for CF.
- While patients with CF do experience chronic lung disease, conditions like **bronchiectasis** and recurrent infections are more characteristic than isolated bronchial hyperreactivity to methacholine.
*Hypersensitivity to aspirin*
- **Aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD)** involves a triad of asthma, recurrent rhinosinusitis with nasal polyposis, and aspirin sensitivity. While nasal polyps and recurrent sinusitis are present, the absence of asthma and the strong evidence for malabsorption point away from AERD.
- AERD is typically triggered by **NSAIDs** and causes acute respiratory symptoms, which is not the primary concern or most likely defining characteristic in this patient's presentation.
*Selective IgA deficiency*
- **Selective IgA deficiency** is characterized by recurrent infections, particularly in the respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts. However, it does not typically cause the severe malabsorption with **fatty stools (steatorrhea)** or **nasal polyps** seen in this patient.
- Although it leads to recurrent infections, the pattern of symptoms including specific GI and respiratory involvement (sinusitis, nasal polyps, malabsorption) does not fit selective IgA deficiency as well as it fits CF.
*Anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies*
- These antibodies are a hallmark of **celiac disease**, which presents with malabsorption and failure to thrive. However, celiac disease does not explain the **recurrent respiratory infections** and **nasal polyps** present in this case.
- While celiac disease can cause gastrointestinal symptoms similar to CF, the presence of severe respiratory issues makes celiac disease a less likely primary diagnosis.
Question 165: A 2-day-old newborn boy has failed to pass meconium after 48 hours. There is an absence of stool in the rectal vault. Family history is significant for MEN2A syndrome. Which of the following confirms the diagnosis?
A. Barium enema demonstrating absence of a transition zone
B. Atrophic nerve fibers and increased acetylcholinesterase activity
C. Rectal manometry demonstrating relaxation of the internal anal sphincter with distension of the rectum
D. Genetic testing confirming mutation in the RET oncogene
E. Absence of ganglion cells demonstrated by rectal suction biopsy (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Absence of ganglion cells demonstrated by rectal suction biopsy***
- The **absence of ganglion cells** in the colorectum, particularly on a **rectal suction biopsy**, is the definitive diagnostic feature of **Hirschsprung disease**.
- This congenital condition is characterized by the **failure of neural crest cells to migrate** to the distal bowel, leading to an aganglionic segment that cannot relax, resulting in functional obstruction.
*Barium enema demonstrating absence of a transition zone*
- A **barium enema** is a useful initial imaging study for suspected **Hirschsprung disease**, often showing a **transition zone** between a constricted aganglionic segment and a dilated, normally innervated proximal bowel.
- The *absence* of a transition zone would make **Hirschsprung disease** *less likely* or could indicate **total colonic aganglionosis**, but it is not a direct confirmatory diagnostic finding and still requires biopsy.
*Atrophic nerve fibers and increased acetylcholinesterase activity*
- While increased **acetylcholinesterase activity** in hypertrophied nerve fibers is a characteristic finding in the muscularis mucosa and submucosa of aganglionic segments in **Hirschsprung disease**, the description of "*atrophic* nerve fibers" is incorrect.
- The abnormal nerve fibers are typically hypertrophic, and this finding from specialized staining on a biopsy supports the diagnosis but is not the primary confirmatory feature itself; the **absence of ganglion cells** is paramount.
*Rectal manometry demonstrating relaxation of the internal anal sphincter with distension of the rectum*
- **Rectal manometry** is used to assess the neuromuscular function of the rectum and anal sphincter. In **Hirschsprung disease**, there is a characteristic **failure of the internal anal sphincter to relax** when the rectum is distended.
- Demonstrating normal *relaxation* of the internal anal sphincter would effectively *rule out* **Hirschsprung disease**, as the **failure of relaxation** is a key physiological abnormality.
*Genetic testing confirming mutation in the RET oncogene*
- Mutations in the **RET oncogene** are associated with **Hirschsprung disease**, especially in familial cases and those associated with syndromic forms like **MEN2A**.
- While a positive genetic test can support the diagnosis and guide genetic counseling, it is **not sufficient for a definitive diagnosis** on its own, as penetrance is variable and the definitive diagnosis relies on histological confirmation of aganglionosis.
Question 166: A 2-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother for a well-child examination. Cardiac auscultation is shown. When she clenches her fist forcefully for a sustained time, the intensity of the murmur increases. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's auscultation findings?
A. Failure of the ductus arteriosus to close
B. Defect in the atrial septum
C. Fusion of the right and left coronary leaflets
D. Prolapse of the mitral valve
E. Defect in the ventricular septum (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Defect in the ventricular septum***
- A **ventricular septal defect (VSD)** causes a holosystolic, harsh murmur, often loudest at the **left lower sternal border**.
- **Clenching the fist forcefully increases systemic vascular resistance (afterload)**, which enhances the left-to-right shunting through a VSD, thereby **increasing the intensity** of the murmur.
*Failure of the ductus arteriosus to close*
- A **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)** typically presents with a **continuous "machinery-like" murmur**, not one that increases with clenching a fist.
- The murmur of a PDA is usually best heard in the **pulmonary area** (left upper sternal border).
*Defect in the atrial septum*
- An **atrial septal defect (ASD)** usually causes a **systolic ejection murmur** over the pulmonic area due to increased flow across the pulmonary valve, and a **fixed split S2**.
- Its intensity is generally **not significantly altered by acute changes in systemic vascular resistance** like clenching a fist.
*Fusion of the right and left coronary leaflets*
- This description is characteristic of a **bicuspid aortic valve** leading to **aortic stenosis**.
- Aortic stenosis typically causes a **systolic ejection murmur** that **decreases** in intensity with maneuvers that increase afterload (like clenching a fist) due to reduced stroke volume.
*Prolapse of the mitral valve*
- **Mitral valve prolapse (MVP)** is characterized by a **mid-systolic click** followed by a **late-systolic murmur**.
- **Increasing afterload** (clenching a fist) would typically **delay the click and shorten the murmur**, or make it softer, as it *reduces* the degree of prolapse.
Question 167: A previously healthy 2-month-old girl is brought to the emergency department because her lips turned blue while passing stools 30 minutes ago. She is at the 40th percentile for length and below the 35th percentile for weight. Pulse oximetry on room air shows an oxygen saturation of 65%, which increases to 76% on administration of 100% oxygen. Physical examination shows perioral cyanosis and retractions of the lower ribs with respiration. Cardiac examination shows a harsh grade 2/6 systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur heard best at the left upper sternal border. Which of the following is most likely to improve this patient's symptoms?
A. Hyperextension of the neck
B. Elevation of the lower extremities
C. Cooling of the face
D. Knee to chest positioning (Correct Answer)
E. Administration of indomethacin
Explanation: ***Knee to chest positioning***
- Knee-to-chest positioning increases **systemic vascular resistance (SVR)**, forcing more blood flow through the narrowed pulmonary artery and improving pulmonary blood flow and oxygenation by reducing the right-to-left shunt.
- This maneuver is a hallmark intervention for a **tet spell** in infants with Tetralogy of Fallot, characterized by cyanosis, dyspnea, and decreased oxygen saturation, triggered by activities that increase right-to-left shunting.
*Hyperextension of the neck*
- This maneuver is primarily used to **open the airway** in cases of airway obstruction, not to improve cardiac shunting or oxygenation in congenital heart disease.
- It would not address the underlying pathophysiology of a tet spell, which involves fixed right ventricular outflow tract obstruction and right-to-left shunting.
*Elevation of the lower extremities*
- Elevating the lower extremities primarily aims to **increase venous return** to the heart, which might be done in cases of hypovolemia or shock.
- Increasing venous return would typically worsen a tet spell by increasing the right ventricular preload, potentially exacerbating the right-to-left shunt across the ventricular septal defect.
*Cooling of the face*
- Cooling the face can induce a **diving reflex**, which can cause bradycardia and peripheral vasoconstriction.
- While it causes vasoconstriction, face cooling is not a primary or effective intervention for improving oxygenation in the context of a tet spell.
*Administration of indomethacin*
- Indomethacin is a prostaglandin inhibitor used to **close a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)** in preterm infants.
- In Tetralogy of Fallot, the ductus arteriosus may be critical for blood flow to the lungs in severe cases, and closing it could worsen pulmonary blood flow and increase cyanosis.
Question 168: A 5-year-old boy is brought to see his pediatrician because of painless swelling in both legs and around his eyes. His mother reports that it is worse in the morning and these symptoms have started 4 days ago. The child has just recovered from a severe upper respiratory tract infection 8 days ago. The boy was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is up to date on all vaccines and is meeting all developmental milestones. Today, his blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, the heart rate is 90/min, the respiratory rate is 22/min, and the temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F). On physical examination, his face is edematous and there is a 2+ pitting edema over both legs up to his hips. Laboratory results are shown.
Serum albumin 2.4 g/dL
Serum triglycerides 250 mg/dL
Serum cholesterol 300 mg/dL
Urine dipstick 4+ protein
Which of the following is the best initial therapy for this patient’s condition?
A. Enalapril
B. Prednisolone (Correct Answer)
C. Prednisolone and cyclophosphamide
D. Albumin infusion
E. Oral antibiotic
Explanation: **Prednisolone**
- The patient presents with **edema**, **proteinuria (4+ protein)**, **hypoalbuminemia (2.4 g/dL)**, and **hyperlipidemia (triglycerides 250 mg/dL, cholesterol 300 mg/dL)**, which are the classic hallmarks of **nephrotic syndrome**.
- Given his age (5 years old) and recent upper respiratory tract infection, **minimal change disease (MCD)** is the most likely cause of nephrotic syndrome in children, and **corticosteroids** like prednisolone are the first-line treatment.
*Enalapril*
- **Enalapril** is an **ACE inhibitor** used to reduce proteinuria by decreasing glomerular pressure, but it is not the primary treatment for inducing remission in minimal change disease.
- While it may be used as an adjunct in patients with persistent proteinuria or hypertension, it is not the best initial monotherapy for acute presentation of nephrotic syndrome.
*Prednisolone and cyclophosphamide*
- **Cyclophosphamide** is an **immunosuppressant** reserved for patients who are **steroid-resistant** or **frequently relapsing** on steroid therapy.
- It is not indicated as initial therapy for a first presentation of nephrotic syndrome in a child, where prednisolone alone is usually effective.
*Albumin infusion*
- **Albumin infusion** is used to temporarily increase intravascular volume and reduce severe edema, particularly in cases of severe hypoalbuminemia with hypovolemia or refractory edema.
- It is typically not used as a sole initial therapy because it does not address the underlying pathology (proteinuria) and its effects are transient.
*Oral antibiotic*
- An **oral antibiotic** would be indicated if there was evidence of a bacterial infection, such as **peritonitis** or **skin infections**, which are complications of nephrotic syndrome.
- While the patient had a recent URI, there are no current signs or symptoms of a bacterial infection that would warrant antibiotic treatment as the initial therapy for the nephrotic syndrome.
Question 169: A 4-month-old male infant is brought in because he rejects food and is losing weight. He had several upper respiratory tract infections during the last 2 months. Upon examination, hepatosplenomegaly is noted, as well as mild hypotonia. During the next few weeks, hepatosplenomegaly progresses, the boy fails to thrive, and he continues to reject food. He has a blood pressure of 100/70 mm Hg and heart rate of 84/min. Blood tests show pancytopenia and elevated levels of transaminases. Slit lamp examination shows bilateral cherry-red spots on the macula. Chest X-ray shows a reticulonodular pattern and calcified nodules. Biopsy of the liver shows foamy histiocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Niemann-Pick disease type A (Correct Answer)
B. Tay-Sachs disease
C. Gaucher disease
D. Wolman disease
E. GM1 gangliosidosis
Explanation: ***Niemann-Pick disease type A***
- This presentation of a 4-month-old with **failure to thrive**, progressive **hepatosplenomegaly**, **hypotonia**, recurrent infections, **pancytopenia**, elevated transaminases, **cherry-red spots** on the macula, and **foamy histiocytes** in the liver biopsy is characteristic of Niemann-Pick disease type A.
- Niemann-Pick disease type A is a **lysosomal storage disorder** caused by a deficiency of the enzyme **sphingomyelinase**, leading to the accumulation of **sphingomyelin** in various tissues.
- The **foamy histiocytes** (lipid-laden macrophages) are a hallmark finding, and the **reticulonodular pattern** on chest X-ray represents pulmonary infiltration.
*Incorrect: Tay-Sachs disease*
- While Tay-Sachs disease also presents with **cherry-red spots** and progressive neurological deterioration in infancy, it is caused by **hexosaminidase A deficiency**.
- Key differences: Tay-Sachs typically does **not** cause **hepatosplenomegaly** or **foamy histiocytes** in the liver; the primary pathology is neuronal accumulation of GM2 ganglioside.
- Patients usually present with developmental regression, exaggerated startle response, and hypotonia, but without the prominent organomegaly seen here.
*Incorrect: Gaucher disease*
- While Gaucher disease also presents with **hepatosplenomegaly** and can cause bone marrow involvement leading to **pancytopenia**, it typically does **not** feature **cherry-red spots** or such severe early neurological regression.
- It is caused by a deficiency of **glucocerebrosidase**, leading to accumulation of glucocerebroside in **Gaucher cells** (not foamy histiocytes).
- The infantile neuronopathic form (type 2) can present early but lacks cherry-red spots.
*Incorrect: Wolman disease*
- Wolman disease is a lysosomal storage disorder caused by **lysosomal acid lipase deficiency**, presenting with hepatosplenomegaly, failure to thrive, and foamy histiocytes.
- Key distinguishing feature: **bilateral adrenal calcifications** on imaging, which are pathognomonic for Wolman disease but not mentioned in this case.
- Does **not** typically cause cherry-red spots on fundoscopic examination.
*Incorrect: GM1 gangliosidosis*
- GM1 gangliosidosis can present with hepatosplenomegaly, developmental delay, and **cherry-red spots** (in about 50% of cases).
- However, it is characterized by distinctive **coarse facial features**, **skeletal dysplasia** (dysostosis multiplex), and **vacuolated lymphocytes** on blood smear.
- The **foamy histiocytes** and prominent pulmonary involvement are more characteristic of Niemann-Pick disease type A.
Question 170: A 6-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department with acute intermittent umbilical abdominal pain that began that morning. The pain radiates to his right lower abdomen and occurs every 15–30 minutes. During these episodes of pain, the boy draws up his knees to the chest. The patient has had several episodes of nonbilious vomiting. He had a similar episode 3 months ago. His temperature is 37.7°C (99.86°F), pulse is 99/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows periumbilical tenderness with no masses palpated. Abdominal ultrasound shows concentric rings of bowel in transverse section. Laboratory studies show:
Leukocyte Count 8,000/mm3
Hemoglobin 10.6 g/dL
Hematocrit 32%
Platelet Count 180,000/mm3
Serum
Sodium 143 mEq/L
Potassium 3.7 mEq/L
Chloride 88 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 28 mEq/L
Urea Nitrogen 19 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.3 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?
A. Acute appendicitis
B. Malrotation with volvulus
C. Intestinal adhesions
D. Intestinal polyps
E. Meckel diverticulum (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Meckel diverticulum***
- A **Meckel diverticulum** can serve as a **lead point for intussusception**, which is strongly suggested by the description of acute intermittent abdominal pain, drawing knees to the chest, and the ultrasound finding of concentric rings of bowel (**target sign**).
- The history of a similar episode 3 months ago points to a recurrent problem, and a Meckel diverticulum is the most common congenital anomaly of the small intestine that can cause such recurrent symptoms, often manifesting as a lead point for intussusception or bleeding.
*Incorrect Option: Acute appendicitis*
- While appendicitis causes abdominal pain, it is typically **persistent and localized to the right lower quadrant** (often migrating from periumbilical), not intermittent and widespread as described.
- The ultrasound finding of **concentric rings of bowel** is characteristic of intussusception, not appendicitis.
*Incorrect Option: Malrotation with volvulus*
- **Malrotation with volvulus** typically presents with **bilious vomiting** and severe, constant pain due to intestinal ischemia, which is not described in this patient.
- The intermittent nature of the pain and the specific ultrasound findings are more indicative of intussusception rather than volvulus.
*Incorrect Option: Intestinal adhesions*
- **Intestinal adhesions** can cause intermittent abdominal pain and bowel obstruction, but usually, a history of **previous abdominal surgery** is present, which is not mentioned here.
- Adhesions typically lead to a **mechanical obstruction pattern** on imaging, not the "target sign" characteristic of intussusception.
*Incorrect Option: Intestinal polyps*
- **Intestinal polyps**, especially in children, can act as **lead points for intussusception**, similar to a Meckel diverticulum.
- However, the description of **intermittent pain**, the age of the patient, and the lack of specific mention of bleeding make **Meckel diverticulum** a more common and direct underlying cause for recurrent intussusception in this age group without other associated symptoms like significant rectal bleeding often seen with polyps.