A 3-year-old male presents with his parents to a pediatrician for a new patient visit. The child was recently adopted and little is known about his prior medical or family history. The parents report that the child seems to be doing well, but they are concerned because the patient is much larger than any of the other 3-year-olds in his preschool class. They report that he eats a varied diet at home, and that they limit juice and snack foods. On physical exam, the patient is in the 73rd percentile for weight, 99th percentile for height, and 86th percentile for head circumference. He appears mildly developmentally delayed. He has a fair complexion and tall stature with a prominent sternum. The patient also has joint hypermobility and hyperelastic skin. He appears to have poor visual acuity and is referred to an ophthalmologist, who diagnoses upward lens subluxation of the right eye.
This child is most likely to develop which of the following complications?
Q152
A 15-month-old boy is brought to the pediatrician for immunizations and assessment. His parents report that he is eating well and produces several wet diapers every day. He is occasionally fussy, but overall a happy and curious child. The boy was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. On physical examination his vital signs are stable. His weight and height are above the 85th percentile for his age and sex. On chest auscultation, the pediatrician detects a loud harsh holosystolic murmur over the left lower sternal border. The first and second heart sounds are normal. An echocardiogram confirms the diagnosis of the muscular ventricular septal defect without pulmonary hypertension. Which of the following is the best management strategy for this patient?
Q153
A 7-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his mother who is worried about his clumsiness. She states that over the past 3 months she has noticed progressive weakness. He used to climb trees and run outside with his cousins, but now he says he gets “too tired.” She’s recently noticed him starting to “walk funny,” despite having “muscular legs.” Upon physical examination, the patient has calf muscle hypertrophy. He uses his arms to rise out of the chair. Labs are obtained that show an elevated creatine kinase. Genetic analysis detects a dystropin gene mutation. A muscle biopsy is performed that reveals reduced dystrophin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q154
A 5-day-old neonate is brought to the pediatrician by his parents for yellow skin for the past few days. His parents also reported that he remains quiet all day and does not even respond to sound. Further perinatal history reveals that he was born by cesarean section at 36 weeks of gestation, and his birth weight was 2.8 kg (6.1 lb). This baby is the second child of this couple, who are close relatives. Their first child died as the result of an infection at an early age. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse is 116/min, and respirations are 29/min. On physical examination, hypotonia is present. His laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.9 gm/dL
Leukocyte count 9,300/mm3
Platelet count 170,000/mm3
Unconjugated bilirubin 33 mg/dL
Conjugated bilirubin 0.9 mg/dL
Coombs test Negative
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
Q155
A 28-year-old G1P0 woman comes to the emergency department complaining that her water just broke. She reports irregular prenatal care due to her erratic schedule. She is also unsure of her gestational age but claims that her belly began to show shortly after she received her thyroidectomy for her Graves disease about 9 months ago. She denies any known fevers, chills, abnormal vaginal discharge/bleeding, or sexually transmitted infections. She develops frequent and regular contractions and subsequently goes into active labor. A fetus was later vaginally delivered with a fetal heart rate of 180 bpm. A neonatal physical examination demonstrates a lack of a sagittal cranial suture and an APGAR score of 8 and 8, at 1 and 5 minutes respectively. What findings would you expect in the baby?
Q156
A 3-year-old male is brought to the pediatrician for a check-up. The patient has a history of recurrent ear infections and several episodes of pneumonia. His mother reports the presence of scaly skin lesions on the face and in the antecubital and popliteal fossa since the patient was 2 months old. Physical examination also reveals bruising of the lower extremities and petechiae distributed evenly over the boy's entire body. A complete blood count reveals normal values except for a decreased platelet count of 45,000/mL. Which of the following findings would be expected on follow-up laboratory work-up of this patient's condition?
Q157
A 2-year-old boy is presented to the pediatrician due to poor weight gain and easy fatigability. His mother states that the patient barely engages in any physical activity as he becomes short of breath easily. The prenatal and birth histories are insignificant. Past medical history includes a few episodes of upper respiratory tract infection that were treated successfully. The patient is in the 10th percentile for weight and 40th percentile for height. The vital signs include: heart rate 122/min and respirations 32/min. Cardiac auscultation reveals clear lungs and a grade 2/6 holosystolic murmur loudest at the left lower sternal border. The remainder of the physical examination is negative for clubbing, cyanosis, and peripheral edema. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q158
A 1-year-old boy is brought to the physician for a well-child examination. He has no history of serious illness. His older sister had an eye disease that required removal of one eye at the age of 3 years. Examination shows inward deviation of the right eye. Indirect ophthalmoscopy shows a white reflex in the right eye and a red reflex in the left eye. The patient is at increased risk for which of the following conditions?
Q159
A 3-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician for a regular checkup by his mother. The patient's mother is concerned about a slight deviation of his left eye and she also notes that her child's left eye looks strange on the photos, especially if there is a flash. The patient is the first child in the family born to a 31-year-old woman. The boy was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is up to date on all vaccines and is meeting all developmental milestones. Family history is unremarkable. The eye examination shows left eye converging strabismus. The pupillary reflex cannot be elicited from an illumination of the left eye. Fundal examination findings are shown in the picture. On testing, visual evoked potential cannot be elicited from the left retina but is normal from the right retina. MRI of the orbits shows a retina-derived tumor in the left eye with an initial spread along the intrabulbar part of the optic nerve and vitreous seeding. The other eye is completely intact. Which of the following methods of treatment is indicated for this patient?
Q160
A newborn girl develops poor feeding and respiratory distress 4 days after delivery. She was born at a gestational age of 29 weeks. The child was born via cesarean section due to reduced movement and a non-reassuring fetal heart tracing. APGAR scores were 6 and 8 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. Her vitals are as follows:
Patient values Normal newborn values
Blood pressure 67/39 mm Hg 64/41 mm Hg
Heart rate 160/min 120–160/min
Respiratory rate 60/min 40–60/min
The newborn appears uncomfortable with a rapid respiratory rate and mild cyanosis of the fingers and toes. She also has nasal flaring and grunting. Her legs appear edematous. A chest X-ray shows evidence of congestive heart failure. An echocardiogram shows enlargement of the left atrium and ventricle. What medication would be appropriate to treat this infants condition?
Congenital defects US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 151: A 3-year-old male presents with his parents to a pediatrician for a new patient visit. The child was recently adopted and little is known about his prior medical or family history. The parents report that the child seems to be doing well, but they are concerned because the patient is much larger than any of the other 3-year-olds in his preschool class. They report that he eats a varied diet at home, and that they limit juice and snack foods. On physical exam, the patient is in the 73rd percentile for weight, 99th percentile for height, and 86th percentile for head circumference. He appears mildly developmentally delayed. He has a fair complexion and tall stature with a prominent sternum. The patient also has joint hypermobility and hyperelastic skin. He appears to have poor visual acuity and is referred to an ophthalmologist, who diagnoses upward lens subluxation of the right eye.
This child is most likely to develop which of the following complications?
A. Osteoarthritis
B. Wilms tumor
C. Medullary thyroid cancer
D. Aortic dissection (Correct Answer)
E. Thromboembolic stroke
Explanation: ***Aortic dissection***
- The constellation of **tall stature**, **prominent sternum**, **joint hypermobility**, **hyperelastic skin**, and **upward lens subluxation (ectopia lentis)** in a young child strongly suggests **Marfan syndrome**.
- **Aortic root dilation** and subsequent **aortic dissection** are the most serious cardiovascular complications in Marfan syndrome due to weakened connective tissue in the aortic wall caused by **fibrillin-1 deficiency**.
- This is the **leading cause of mortality** in untreated Marfan syndrome.
*Osteoarthritis*
- While joint hypermobility can contribute to **joint instability** and accelerate degenerative changes, typical **osteoarthritis** is less common as a primary, severe complication in childhood Marfan syndrome.
- Early-onset, severe osteoarthritis is not the major life-threatening complication associated with Marfan syndrome at this age.
*Wilms tumor*
- **Wilms tumor** is a type of kidney cancer typically associated with syndromes like **WAGR (Wilms tumor, Aniridia, Genitourinary anomalies, intellectual disability)** or **Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome**, none of which fit the patient's presentation.
- There is no known direct association between Wilms tumor and Marfan syndrome.
*Medullary thyroid cancer*
- **Medullary thyroid cancer** is a feature of **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2 (MEN 2) syndromes**, which also present with pheochromocytomas and parathyroid hyperplasia.
- The clinical features described in the patient are not consistent with MEN 2.
*Thromboembolic stroke*
- While Marfan syndrome can lead to cardiovascular issues, a **thromboembolic stroke** is not a primary or characteristic complication, especially in comparison to the high risk of aortic dissection.
- The main vascular pathology in Marfan is related to connective tissue weakness, not primarily hypercoagulability or mural thrombi leading to stroke.
- Thromboembolic complications are more characteristic of **homocystinuria**, which presents with **downward** lens subluxation.
Question 152: A 15-month-old boy is brought to the pediatrician for immunizations and assessment. His parents report that he is eating well and produces several wet diapers every day. He is occasionally fussy, but overall a happy and curious child. The boy was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. On physical examination his vital signs are stable. His weight and height are above the 85th percentile for his age and sex. On chest auscultation, the pediatrician detects a loud harsh holosystolic murmur over the left lower sternal border. The first and second heart sounds are normal. An echocardiogram confirms the diagnosis of the muscular ventricular septal defect without pulmonary hypertension. Which of the following is the best management strategy for this patient?
A. Surgical closure of the defect using cardiopulmonary bypass
B. Reassurance of the parents and regular follow-up (Correct Answer)
C. Oral digoxin and regular follow-up
D. Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis
E. Transcatheter occlusion closure of the defect
Explanation: **Reassurance of the parents and regular follow-up**
- Most **small muscular VSDs (Ventricular Septal Defects)**, especially in asymptomatic children with normal growth and no signs of heart failure or pulmonary hypertension, **close spontaneously**.
- Given the patient's normal development, stable vital signs, good feeding, and lack of pulmonary hypertension, a conservative approach with **monitoring for spontaneous closure** is appropriate.
*Surgical closure of the defect using cardiopulmonary bypass*
- **Surgical VSD closure** is typically reserved for large defects causing **symptoms, growth failure, pulmonary hypertension**, or those that fail to close spontaneously.
- The patient in the scenario is asymptomatic and thriving, which does not warrant an invasive procedure at this time.
*Oral digoxin and regular follow-up*
- **Digoxin** is a medication used to improve **cardiac contractility** and manage symptoms of **heart failure**, which this patient does not exhibit.
- It would only be considered if there were signs of **congestive heart failure** due to a large VSD, which is not the case here.
*Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis*
- Current guidelines from the American Heart Association (AHA) generally **do not recommend routine antibiotic prophylaxis** for VSDs unless there's a history of infective endocarditis or uncorrected cyanotic heart disease.
- The risk of **infective endocarditis** is very low in isolated VSDs and the potential side effects of prophylactic antibiotics outweigh the benefits.
*Transcatheter occlusion closure of the defect*
- **Transcatheter closure** is an option for certain types of VSDs, often **muscular VSDs**, but typically for those that are **larger, symptomatic**, and have not closed spontaneously.
- Similar to surgical closure, this invasive procedure is not indicated for an **asymptomatic, thriving child** with a muscular VSD that is likely to close on its own.
Question 153: A 7-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his mother who is worried about his clumsiness. She states that over the past 3 months she has noticed progressive weakness. He used to climb trees and run outside with his cousins, but now he says he gets “too tired.” She’s recently noticed him starting to “walk funny,” despite having “muscular legs.” Upon physical examination, the patient has calf muscle hypertrophy. He uses his arms to rise out of the chair. Labs are obtained that show an elevated creatine kinase. Genetic analysis detects a dystropin gene mutation. A muscle biopsy is performed that reveals reduced dystrophin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Fragile X syndrome
B. Pompe disease
C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy (Correct Answer)
D. Spinal muscular atrophy
E. Becker muscular dystrophy
Explanation: ***Duchenne muscular dystrophy***
- This 7-year-old presents with classic features of **Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)**: **progressive proximal muscle weakness**, **calf pseudohypertrophy**, **Gowers' sign** (using arms to rise from a chair), and **markedly elevated creatine kinase**.
- Genetic analysis confirms a **dystrophin gene mutation**, and muscle biopsy shows **reduced dystrophin**, consistent with DMD where dystrophin is absent or severely reduced (<3% of normal).
- The **age of presentation (7 years)** is typical for DMD, as many boys are diagnosed between ages 3-7 when motor delays become apparent in school settings; the recent 3-month history of rapid decline is characteristic of DMD's progressive course.
- Boys with DMD typically lose ambulation by age 12 and require wheelchair assistance, distinguishing it from the milder Becker variant.
*Becker muscular dystrophy*
- While also caused by a **dystrophin gene mutation**, Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD) presents **later** (typically age 8-25) with a **much milder and slower progression**.
- In BMD, dystrophin is **reduced but functional** (3-20% or more of normal, often abnormal in size), not severely deficient as in this case.
- Patients with BMD remain ambulatory into their 20s-30s or beyond, which contrasts with this patient's relatively early onset and rapid 3-month decline.
- The clinical tempo and age of onset in this case are more consistent with Duchenne than Becker.
*Fragile X syndrome*
- This is a genetic disorder primarily characterized by **intellectual disability**, **developmental delays**, **autism spectrum features**, and distinct physical features (long face, large ears, macroorchidism).
- It does not present with **progressive muscle weakness**, **calf pseudohypertrophy**, **elevated CK**, or **dystrophin gene mutations**.
*Pompe disease*
- This is a **lysosomal storage disorder** caused by deficiency of **acid alpha-glucosidase (GAA)**, leading to glycogen accumulation in lysosomes.
- While it can cause **muscle weakness** and elevated CK, infantile-onset Pompe presents with **cardiomyopathy** and **hypotonia** ("floppy infant"), and late-onset Pompe presents with limb-girdle weakness and respiratory failure.
- Pompe does **not involve dystrophin mutations** or **calf pseudohypertrophy**.
*Spinal muscular atrophy*
- This disorder results from **loss of motor neurons** in the spinal cord due to **SMN1 gene mutations**, causing muscle weakness and atrophy.
- SMA presents with **hypotonia**, **areflexia**, and **muscle atrophy** (not hypertrophy), with **fasciculations** of the tongue in some cases.
- It does **not involve dystrophin mutations**, **calf pseudohypertrophy**, or markedly elevated CK levels.
Question 154: A 5-day-old neonate is brought to the pediatrician by his parents for yellow skin for the past few days. His parents also reported that he remains quiet all day and does not even respond to sound. Further perinatal history reveals that he was born by cesarean section at 36 weeks of gestation, and his birth weight was 2.8 kg (6.1 lb). This baby is the second child of this couple, who are close relatives. Their first child died as the result of an infection at an early age. His temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F), pulse is 116/min, and respirations are 29/min. On physical examination, hypotonia is present. His laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.9 gm/dL
Leukocyte count 9,300/mm3
Platelet count 170,000/mm3
Unconjugated bilirubin 33 mg/dL
Conjugated bilirubin 0.9 mg/dL
Coombs test Negative
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?
A. Liver transplantation
B. Exchange transfusion (Correct Answer)
C. Discontinue the breast feeding
D. Phenobarbital
E. No treatment is required
Explanation: ***Exchange transfusion***
- A critically high **unconjugated bilirubin level** (33 mg/dL) in a 5-day-old neonate with signs of **acute bilirubin encephalopathy** (hypotonia, lethargy, abnormal auditory response) requires **immediate exchange transfusion**.
- **Exchange transfusion** is the most effective method for rapidly reducing dangerously high bilirubin levels and is indicated when bilirubin exceeds exchange thresholds (~25-30 mg/dL) or when neurological symptoms are present.
- This procedure removes bilirubin-laden blood and replaces it with fresh blood, providing immediate reduction in bilirubin levels to prevent irreversible kernicterus.
- Intensive phototherapy should be initiated simultaneously but is insufficient as monotherapy at this critical level.
*Phototherapy*
- While **intensive phototherapy** is an important treatment for neonatal hyperbilirubinemia, it works too slowly for this emergency situation.
- Phototherapy alone is inadequate when bilirubin levels exceed exchange transfusion thresholds and neurological signs are present.
- It should be used as an adjunct to exchange transfusion but cannot be the sole initial intervention at this critical bilirubin level.
*Liver transplantation*
- **Liver transplantation** is reserved for end-stage liver disease or severe hepatic failure, not for hyperbilirubinemia management.
- The underlying issue here is likely hemolysis or metabolic disorder (suggested by consanguinity), not structural liver failure requiring transplantation.
*Discontinue breastfeeding*
- Discontinuing breastfeeding is insufficient for bilirubin levels of 33 mg/dL with neurological symptoms.
- While breast milk jaundice can contribute to prolonged hyperbilirubinemia, this represents an acute emergency requiring immediate intervention beyond feeding modifications.
*Phenobarbital*
- **Phenobarbital** induces hepatic glucuronyl transferase and can help with chronic unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia (e.g., Crigler-Najjar syndrome type II).
- Its onset of action is too slow (days to weeks) for acute management of severe hyperbilirubinemia with neurological symptoms.
*No treatment is required*
- A bilirubin of 33 mg/dL with neurological symptoms (hypotonia, impaired auditory response) represents **acute bilirubin encephalopathy**, a medical emergency.
- Without immediate treatment, this progresses to **chronic kernicterus** with irreversible brain damage, cerebral palsy, hearing loss, and developmental disabilities.
Question 155: A 28-year-old G1P0 woman comes to the emergency department complaining that her water just broke. She reports irregular prenatal care due to her erratic schedule. She is also unsure of her gestational age but claims that her belly began to show shortly after she received her thyroidectomy for her Graves disease about 9 months ago. She denies any known fevers, chills, abnormal vaginal discharge/bleeding, or sexually transmitted infections. She develops frequent and regular contractions and subsequently goes into active labor. A fetus was later vaginally delivered with a fetal heart rate of 180 bpm. A neonatal physical examination demonstrates a lack of a sagittal cranial suture and an APGAR score of 8 and 8, at 1 and 5 minutes respectively. What findings would you expect in the baby?
A. Pericardial effusion
B. Group B streptococcus in blood
C. Low hemoglobin
D. High levels of free T4 and total T3 (Correct Answer)
E. High thyroid-stimulating hormone
Explanation: ***High levels of free T4 and total T3***
- This patient likely has **neonatal thyrotoxicosis** due to transplacental passage of **thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSIs)** from her mother with a history of Graves' disease and thyroidectomy.
- The fetal heart rate of 180 bpm and the lack of a sagittal cranial suture (suggesting **craniosynostosis**, a known complication of neonatal hyperthyroidism) are consistent with severe **hyperthyroidism** and elevated thyroid hormone levels.
*Pericardial effusion*
- While hyperthyroidism can cause **cardiac complications** like high-output cardiac failure, **pericardial effusion** is not a typical or expected finding in neonatal thyrotoxicosis.
- Pericardial effusion is more commonly associated with conditions like **congestive heart failure** of other etiologies, **hypothyroidism**, or infections.
*Group B streptococcus in blood*
- The mother denies any known fevers, chills, abnormal vaginal discharge, or STIs, and there is no indication of **chorioamnionitis** or other risk factors for **Group B Streptococcus (GBS)** infection.
- While GBS can cause neonatal sepsis, the clinical presentation and maternal history strongly point towards an **endocrine disorder** rather than an infection.
*Low hemoglobin*
- **Anemia** is not a characteristic feature of **neonatal thyrotoxicosis**.
- Hyperthyroidism can sometimes be associated with **increased red blood cell turnover** but usually does not lead to clinically significant low hemoglobin levels in neonates.
*High thyroid-stimulating hormone*
- **High TSH** levels would indicate **hypothyroidism**, not hyperthyroidism.
- In neonatal thyrotoxicosis, due to elevated thyroid hormone levels, the **pituitary's TSH secretion is suppressed**, leading to low or undetectable TSH levels.
Question 156: A 3-year-old male is brought to the pediatrician for a check-up. The patient has a history of recurrent ear infections and several episodes of pneumonia. His mother reports the presence of scaly skin lesions on the face and in the antecubital and popliteal fossa since the patient was 2 months old. Physical examination also reveals bruising of the lower extremities and petechiae distributed evenly over the boy's entire body. A complete blood count reveals normal values except for a decreased platelet count of 45,000/mL. Which of the following findings would be expected on follow-up laboratory work-up of this patient's condition?
A. Increased IgM on quantitative immunoglobulin serology
B. Decreased CD43 expression on flow cytometry (Correct Answer)
C. Decreased IgE on quantitative immunoglobulin serology
D. Decreased CD8/CD4 ratio on flow cytometry
E. Decreased CD18 expression on flow cytometry
Explanation: ***Decreased CD43 expression on flow cytometry***
- This patient presents with classic symptoms of **Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS)**: recurrent infections, eczema (scaly skin lesions in flexural areas), and thrombocytopenia with small platelets leading to bleeding manifestations (bruising, petechiae). WAS is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by mutations in the *WAS* gene, which encodes the **WASp protein (Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome protein)**.
- The WASp protein is crucial for actin polymerization in hematopoietic cells. In WAS, the deficiency or dysfunction of WASp leads to **abnormal glycosylation of CD43 (sialophorin)**, a cell surface glycoprotein. This results in **decreased or abnormal CD43 expression on flow cytometry**, which serves as a diagnostic marker for this condition.
- The characteristic findings include small platelets, impaired T-cell function, and the clinical triad of thrombocytopenia, eczema, and immunodeficiency.
*Increased IgM on quantitative immunoglobulin serology*
- Patients with WAS typically have **decreased IgM** levels and elevated IgA and IgE levels, not increased IgM.
- This immunoglobulin profile is a characteristic feature that distinguishes WAS from other immunodeficiency disorders.
*Decreased IgE on quantitative immunoglobulin serology*
- Patients with WAS usually present with **elevated IgE levels**, contributing to the eczematous skin lesions and allergic manifestations.
- A decreased IgE level would be inconsistent with the typical immunoglobulin profile found in WAS.
*Decreased CD8/CD4 ratio on flow cytometry*
- While T-cell function can be impaired in WAS, a **decreased CD8/CD4 ratio** is more commonly associated with conditions like **HIV infection** due to CD4+ T-cell depletion.
- WAS primarily affects actin cytoskeleton rearrangement, impacting T-cell function and platelet production, but doesn't typically result in this specific T-cell subset imbalance.
*Decreased CD18 expression on flow cytometry*
- **Decreased CD18 expression** is characteristic of **Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency (LAD)**, an X-linked disorder presenting with recurrent bacterial infections, impaired wound healing, and delayed umbilical cord separation.
- This condition has a different clinical presentation than the one described, lacking the eczema and thrombocytopenia seen in WAS.
Question 157: A 2-year-old boy is presented to the pediatrician due to poor weight gain and easy fatigability. His mother states that the patient barely engages in any physical activity as he becomes short of breath easily. The prenatal and birth histories are insignificant. Past medical history includes a few episodes of upper respiratory tract infection that were treated successfully. The patient is in the 10th percentile for weight and 40th percentile for height. The vital signs include: heart rate 122/min and respirations 32/min. Cardiac auscultation reveals clear lungs and a grade 2/6 holosystolic murmur loudest at the left lower sternal border. The remainder of the physical examination is negative for clubbing, cyanosis, and peripheral edema. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
B. Atrial septal defect (ASD)
C. Coarctation of aorta
D. Ventricular septal defect (VSD) (Correct Answer)
E. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
Explanation: ***Ventricular septal defect (VSD)***
- A **holosystolic murmur** loudest at the **left lower sternal border**, poor weight gain, and easy fatigability in a 2-year-old are classic signs of a **VSD**.
- The symptoms arise from significant **left-to-right shunting**, leading to pulmonary overcirculation and heart failure symptoms.
*Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)*
- TOF typically presents with **cyanosis** and **TET spells**, which are absent in this patient.
- The murmur in TOF is usually an **ejection systolic murmur**, not holosystolic, and often associated with a single loud S2.
*Atrial septal defect (ASD)*
- An ASD typically presents with a **fixed, split S2** and an **ejection systolic murmur** at the upper left sternal border due to increased flow across the pulmonic valve.
- Symptoms like poor weight gain and easy fatigability are less common in early childhood unless the shunt is very large.
*Coarctation of aorta*
- This condition is characterized by **femoral-radial delay** and **differential blood pressures** between the upper and lower extremities.
- The murmur is typically heard in the **back** or subclavicular region, and symptoms usually include poor feeding, lethargy, and sometimes heart failure.
*Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)*
- PDA is classically associated with a **continuous "machinery-like" murmur** loudest below the left clavicle.
- While it can cause poor weight gain and fatigability, the type of murmur described is not consistent with a PDA.
Question 158: A 1-year-old boy is brought to the physician for a well-child examination. He has no history of serious illness. His older sister had an eye disease that required removal of one eye at the age of 3 years. Examination shows inward deviation of the right eye. Indirect ophthalmoscopy shows a white reflex in the right eye and a red reflex in the left eye. The patient is at increased risk for which of the following conditions?
A. Gastric cancer
B. Neuroblastoma
C. Wilms tumor
D. Basal cell carcinoma
E. Osteosarcoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Osteosarcoma***
- The presence of **retinoblastoma**, indicated by the **white reflex** (leukocoria) in the right eye and an older sibling with a history of enucleation for eye disease, suggests a heritable form of retinoblastoma.
- Patients with **heritable retinoblastoma** (especially those with germline mutations in the *RB1* tumor suppressor gene) are at significantly increased risk for developing other primary tumors, with **osteosarcoma** being the most common secondary malignancy.
*Gastric cancer*
- While gastric cancer is a serious malignancy, it is **not commonly associated** with germline *RB1* mutations or heritable retinoblastoma.
- There is no direct genetic link or epidemiological evidence supporting an increased risk of gastric cancer in retinoblastoma patients.
*Neuroblastoma*
- **Neuroblastoma** is a childhood cancer originating from neuroblasts, often presenting in the adrenal glands or sympathetic nervous system.
- It is **not typically linked** to retinoblastoma or *RB1* mutations; its genetic associations involve other genes such as MYCN amplification.
*Wilms tumor*
- **Wilms tumor**, a kidney cancer in children, is primarily associated with genetic conditions such as WAGR syndrome (Wilms tumor, aniridia, genitourinary anomalies, intellectual disability) involving the WT1 gene.
- It does **not have a direct genetic association** with retinoblastoma or the RB1 gene.
*Basal cell carcinoma*
- **Basal cell carcinoma** is the most common type of skin cancer, primarily caused by UV radiation exposure.
- It is **not a secondary malignancy commonly seen** in patients with heritable retinoblastoma. Such patients are more prone to sarcomas and other solid tumors.
Question 159: A 3-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician for a regular checkup by his mother. The patient's mother is concerned about a slight deviation of his left eye and she also notes that her child's left eye looks strange on the photos, especially if there is a flash. The patient is the first child in the family born to a 31-year-old woman. The boy was born at 39 weeks gestation via spontaneous vaginal delivery. He is up to date on all vaccines and is meeting all developmental milestones. Family history is unremarkable. The eye examination shows left eye converging strabismus. The pupillary reflex cannot be elicited from an illumination of the left eye. Fundal examination findings are shown in the picture. On testing, visual evoked potential cannot be elicited from the left retina but is normal from the right retina. MRI of the orbits shows a retina-derived tumor in the left eye with an initial spread along the intrabulbar part of the optic nerve and vitreous seeding. The other eye is completely intact. Which of the following methods of treatment is indicated for this patient?
A. Laser coagulation
B. Brachytherapy
C. Chemotherapy
D. Eye enucleation (Correct Answer)
E. Cryotherapy
Explanation: ***Eye enucleation***
* The presence of **retinoblastoma** with spreading along the **intrabulbar part of the optic nerve** and **vitreous seeding** indicates advanced disease where eye salvaging treatments are unlikely to succeed and carry a high risk of systemic metastasis.
* **Enucleation** is the primary treatment for advanced retinoblastoma to remove the tumor completely and prevent local recurrence and metastatic spread, especially when the optic nerve is involved.
*Laser coagulation*
* **Laser coagulation** is typically used for very **small tumors** without vitreous or subretinal seeding, where the disease is localized and early.
* In this case, the tumor's size, optic nerve involvement, and vitreous seeding make laser coagulation ineffective and insufficient.
*Brachytherapy*
* **Brachytherapy** (plaque radiotherapy) is considered for **medium-sized tumors** that are localized and not involving significant parts of the optic nerve, often to preserve some vision.
* The extensive spread to the optic nerve and vitreous in this patient's case contraindicates brachytherapy as it would be unable to eradicate all tumor cells and increase the risk of recurrence and metastasis.
*Chemotherapy*
* **Chemotherapy** is often used as a **chemoreduction** strategy to shrink large tumors before local treatment or as adjuvant therapy for high-risk features like optic nerve invasion beyond the lamina cribrosa, or for metastatic disease.
* While systemic chemotherapy might be part of a comprehensive treatment plan for retinoblastoma with optic nerve invasion, the primary treatment for this advanced stage with *vitreous seeding* and *intrabulbar optic nerve spread* is typically enucleation to prevent life-threatening systemic spread.
*Cryotherapy*
* **Cryotherapy** is effective for **small, peripheral tumors** and is applied to freeze and destroy tumor cells.
* It is unsuitable for large tumors, especially those with optic nerve involvement and vitreous seeding, due to the inability to cover the entire tumor extent and the increased risk of incomplete tumor destruction.
Question 160: A newborn girl develops poor feeding and respiratory distress 4 days after delivery. She was born at a gestational age of 29 weeks. The child was born via cesarean section due to reduced movement and a non-reassuring fetal heart tracing. APGAR scores were 6 and 8 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. Her vitals are as follows:
Patient values Normal newborn values
Blood pressure 67/39 mm Hg 64/41 mm Hg
Heart rate 160/min 120–160/min
Respiratory rate 60/min 40–60/min
The newborn appears uncomfortable with a rapid respiratory rate and mild cyanosis of the fingers and toes. She also has nasal flaring and grunting. Her legs appear edematous. A chest X-ray shows evidence of congestive heart failure. An echocardiogram shows enlargement of the left atrium and ventricle. What medication would be appropriate to treat this infants condition?
A. Indomethacin (Correct Answer)
B. Alprostadil
C. Dexamethasone
D. Methadone
E. Caffeine
Explanation: ***Indomethacin***
- The premature infant presents with **respiratory distress**, poor feeding, and signs of **congestive heart failure** (pulmonary edema, cardiomegaly), consistent with a **patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)**.
- **Indomethacin** is a **prostaglandin synthesis inhibitor** that works by blocking cyclooxygenase, leading to ductal constriction and closure, which is the primary treatment for PDA.
*Alprostadil*
- **Alprostadil** (prostaglandin E1) is used to **maintain ductal patency** in infants with duct-dependent congenital heart defects (e.g., severe coarctation of the aorta, hypoplastic left heart syndrome).
- Administering alprostadil in a PDA would worsen the condition by preventing ductal closure.
*Dexamethasone*
- **Dexamethasone** is a corticosteroid typically used in neonates to **prevent or treat bronchopulmonary dysplasia** or to accelerate **lung maturation** in preterm labor.
- It does not directly affect the closure of a patent ductus arteriosus.
*Methadone*
- **Methadone** is an opioid used primarily for pain management or in the treatment of **neonatal abstinence syndrome** (NAS).
- It has no role in the direct management of cardiac conditions like patent ductus arteriosus.
*Caffeine*
- **Caffeine** is a common treatment for **apnea of prematurity** as it stimulates the respiratory drive.
- While this infant is premature, caffeine does not address the underlying cardiovascular issue of a patent ductus arteriosus.