A 1-month-old girl is brought to the physician for a follow-up examination. The mother has noticed that the girl's neck is always tilted to the right. She was delivered at term, and childbirth was complicated by a breech position. There is no family history of serious illness. She appears healthy. She is at 60th percentile for length and weight. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 42/min. Examination shows the head tilted toward the right, and the chin rotated towards the left. Range of motion of the neck is limited. There is a palpable, firm, well-circumscribed mass in the right lower side of the neck. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next best step in management?
Q132
A 4-month-old is noted to have a grade 3/6, harsh, systolic ejection murmur heard at the left upper sternal border. The mother reports that the child's lips occasionally turn blue during feeding. A cardiologist recommends surgery. Later, the physician remarks that the infant's congenital abnormality was related to a failure of neural crest cell migration. Prior to surgery, which of the following was a likely finding?
Q133
A 10-month-old boy is being treated for a rare kind of anemia and is currently being evaluated for a bone marrow transplant. The patient’s mother presents to an appointment with their pediatrician after having done some online research. She has learned that the majority of patients inherit this condition as an autosomal dominant mutation. As a result of the genetic mutation, there is impaired erythropoiesis, leading to macrocytic red blood cells without hypersegmented neutrophils. She also read that children who survive will eventually present with short stature and craniofacial abnormalities. Which of the following is true about this patient’s condition?
Q134
A 1-year-old boy presents to pediatrics clinic for a well-child visit. He has no complaints. He has a cleft palate and an abnormal facial appearance. He has been riddled with recurrent infections and is followed by cardiology for a ventricular septal defect (VSD). Vital signs are stable, and the patient's physical exam is benign. If this patient's medical history is part of a larger syndrome, what might one also discover that is consistent with the manifestations of this syndrome?
Q135
A 3-month-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother because of poor weight gain. She also reports a dusky blue discoloration to his skin during feedings and when crying. On examination, there is a harsh, systolic murmur heard over the left upper sternal border. An x-ray of the chest shows a boot-shaped heart. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Q136
An 8-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her parents for the evaluation of an episode of unconsciousness while at the playground that morning. She was unconscious for about 15 seconds and did not shake, bite her tongue, or lose bowel or bladder control. Her grandfather died suddenly at the age of 29 of an unknown heart condition; her parents are both healthy. An ECG shows sinus rhythm and a QT interval corrected for heart rate (QTc) of 470 milliseconds. Laboratory studies are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely additional finding in this patient?
Q137
A 2-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after his mother noticed maroon-colored stools in his diaper. He has not had any diarrhea or vomiting. The prenatal and birth histories are unremarkable, and he has had no recent trauma. He tolerates solid foods well. The vital signs include: temperature 37.0℃ (98.6℉), blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg, pulse 102/min, and respiratory rate 16/min. The weight is at the 50th percentile. The examination revealed an alert boy with pallor. The abdomen was mildly tender at the right iliac region without masses. There were no anal fissures or hemorrhoids. A stool guaiac test was positive. The laboratory results are as follows:
Complete blood count (CBC)
Leukocytes 7,500/uL
Hemoglobin 9 g/dL
Hematocrit 24%
Platelets 200,000/uL
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Q138
An 8-year-old girl is brought to the physician for a well-child examination. Since the age of 2 years, she has had multiple fractures after minor trauma. During the past year, she has fractured the left humerus and right clavicle after falls. Her father also has a history of recurrent fractures. She is at the 5th percentile for height and 20th percentile for weight. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows increased convexity of the thoracic spine. Forward bend test demonstrates asymmetry of the thoracolumbar region. There is a curvature of the tibias bilaterally, and the left leg is 2 cm longer than the right. There is increased mobility of the joints of the upper and lower extremities. Which of the following is the most likely additional finding?
Q139
A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 36 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of irritability, palpitations, heat intolerance, and frequent bowel movements for the last 5 months. She has received no prenatal care. Her pulse is 118/min and blood pressure is 133/80 mm Hg. She appears anxious. There is a fine tremor in the hands and ophthalmologic examination shows bilateral exophthalmos. The skin is warm and moist to touch. This patient's child is at risk for which of the following complications at birth?
Q140
A 45-day-old male infant is brought to a pediatrician by his parents with concerns of poor feeding and excessive perspiration for one week. On physical examination, his temperature is 37.7°C (99.8°F), pulse rate is 190/min, and respiratory rate is 70/min. Mild cyanosis is present over the lips, and over the nail beds. Oxygen is provided and his oxygen saturation is carefully monitored. The pediatrician orders a bedside echocardiogram of the infant. It reveals a single arterial trunk arising from 2 normally formed ventricles. The arterial trunk is separated from the ventricles by a single semilunar valve. There is a defect in the interventricular septum, and the arterial trunk overrides the defect. Which of the following congenital heart diseases can also present with similar clinical features?
Congenital defects US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: A 1-month-old girl is brought to the physician for a follow-up examination. The mother has noticed that the girl's neck is always tilted to the right. She was delivered at term, and childbirth was complicated by a breech position. There is no family history of serious illness. She appears healthy. She is at 60th percentile for length and weight. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 42/min. Examination shows the head tilted toward the right, and the chin rotated towards the left. Range of motion of the neck is limited. There is a palpable, firm, well-circumscribed mass in the right lower side of the neck. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next best step in management?
A. Botulinum toxin injection
B. X-ray of the cervical spine
C. Myotomy
D. CT scan of the neck
E. Stretching program (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Stretching program***
- This infant presents with signs and symptoms consistent with **congenital muscular torticollis**, including head tilt, chin rotation, and a palpable mass (hematoma) in the **sternocleidomastoid muscle**.
- For infants with congenital muscular torticollis due to muscle tightness, a **stretching program** and physical therapy are the primary and most effective initial treatments.
*Botulinum toxin injection*
- **Botulinum toxin injection** is typically reserved for older children or cases that do not respond to conservative management, as it is a more invasive treatment.
- It works by temporarily paralyzing the affected muscle to allow for improved stretching and range of motion, but it is not the first-line treatment for infants.
*X-ray of the cervical spine*
- An **X-ray of the cervical spine** would be indicated if there were concerns for underlying bony abnormalities or dislocations, which are not suggested by the classic presentation of congenital muscular torticollis with a palpable mass.
- While ruling out skeletal issues is important if torticollis persists or is atypical, the initial presentation points strongly to a muscular origin.
*Myotomy*
- **Myotomy** (surgical release of the sternocleidomastoid muscle) is considered a last resort for severe, persistent torticollis that has failed extensive non-surgical management, usually recommended after 1 year of age.
- It is an invasive procedure and is not appropriate as an initial management step.
*CT scan of the neck*
- A **CT scan of the neck** would involve radiation exposure and is generally not indicated for the initial diagnosis or management of typical congenital muscular torticollis.
- It might be considered if there is suspicion of atypical masses, bony anomalies, or neurological involvement not clarified by simpler imaging or clinical examination.
Question 132: A 4-month-old is noted to have a grade 3/6, harsh, systolic ejection murmur heard at the left upper sternal border. The mother reports that the child's lips occasionally turn blue during feeding. A cardiologist recommends surgery. Later, the physician remarks that the infant's congenital abnormality was related to a failure of neural crest cell migration. Prior to surgery, which of the following was a likely finding?
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Transposition of the great vessels
C. Tricuspid atresia
D. Coarctation of the aorta
E. Pulmonic stenosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pulmonic stenosis***
- The description of a **harsh, systolic ejection murmur** at the **left upper sternal border** is characteristic of Pulmonic stenosis.
- The **cyanosis during feeding** and the need for surgery suggest a **right-to-left shunt** or significant obstruction, and can be part of the tetralogy of Fallot, which is due to a **neural crest cell migration failure.**
*Atrial septal defect*
- Typically presents with a **systolic murmur at the left upper sternal border** due to increased pulmonary flow, but it is usually a **soft ejection murmur,** rarely harsh.
- While it can cause cyanosis in severe cases with pulmonary hypertension leading to shunt reversal, it is **not primarily linked to neural crest cell migration failure.**
*Transposition of the great vessels*
- This condition would typically present with **severe cyanosis** much earlier in infancy, often within days of birth.
- The murmur associated with transposition of the great arteries (TGA) can be variable but is not usually described as a harsh systolic ejection murmur specifically related to pulmonic outflow. TGA is also associated with **neural crest cell migration failure**.
*Tricuspid atresia*
- This condition leads to severe cyanosis and usually presents with a **single S2 heart sound** and often a **pansystolic or continuous murmur** depending on associated defects.
- While it is a severe congenital heart defect requiring surgery, it is **not directly linked to neural crest cell migration failure**.
*Coarctation of the aorta*
- This anomaly causes a **systolic murmur** heard best over the **back** or left infraclavicular area and can lead to differential cyanosis (lower body), but not typically generalized cyanosis during feeding in this manner.
- **Lower extremity hypertension** or disparity in pulses would be expected, which is not mentioned, and it is **not a neural crest cell migration defect**.
Question 133: A 10-month-old boy is being treated for a rare kind of anemia and is currently being evaluated for a bone marrow transplant. The patient’s mother presents to an appointment with their pediatrician after having done some online research. She has learned that the majority of patients inherit this condition as an autosomal dominant mutation. As a result of the genetic mutation, there is impaired erythropoiesis, leading to macrocytic red blood cells without hypersegmented neutrophils. She also read that children who survive will eventually present with short stature and craniofacial abnormalities. Which of the following is true about this patient’s condition?
A. Occurs due to auto-antibodies against the parietal cells of the stomach
B. Occurs due to a mutation in ribosomal protein genes (Correct Answer)
C. Occurs due to an inability to convert orotic acid to uridine monophosphate (UMP)
D. Splenectomy is a treatment option
E. Fetal hemoglobin level is elevated
Explanation: ***Occurs due to a mutation in ribosomal protein genes***
- The described condition is **Diamond-Blackfan anemia (DBA)**, which is typically inherited as an **autosomal dominant** trait due to mutations in genes encoding **ribosomal proteins**, particularly RPS19 (and other ribosomal protein genes like RPL5, RPL11).
- DBA is characterized by **macrocytic anemia** stemming from impaired erythropoiesis, often presenting in infancy, with normal neutrophil morphology, and can be associated with congenital anomalies including **short stature** and **craniofacial abnormalities**.
- This is the **most specific** answer as it directly identifies the underlying genetic etiology of the condition.
*Occurs due to auto-antibodies against the parietal cells of the stomach*
- This description corresponds to **pernicious anemia**, which causes **vitamin B12 deficiency** leading to macrocytic anemia with **hypersegmented neutrophils**.
- The clinical presentation explicitly states macrocytic red blood cells *without* hypersegmented neutrophils, and the inheritance pattern (autosomal dominant) with congenital anomalies does not fit pernicious anemia.
*Occurs due to an inability to convert orotic acid to uridine monophosphate (UMP)*
- This describes **orotic aciduria**, a rare inherited metabolic disorder caused by UMP synthase deficiency that leads to megaloblastic anemia.
- However, it does not present with the specific features of ribosomal protein gene mutations or the characteristic congenital anomalies (short stature, craniofacial abnormalities) seen in DBA.
- The anemia in orotic aciduria is typically responsive to uridine supplementation, and it is usually associated with **orotic acid crystals** in the urine.
*Splenectomy is a treatment option*
- **Splenectomy** is a treatment option for hemolytic anemias (e.g., hereditary spherocytosis, thalassemia with hypersplenism) where red blood cell destruction occurs primarily in the spleen.
- It is generally *not* a primary treatment for Diamond-Blackfan anemia, whose pathophysiology involves **bone marrow failure** due to impaired erythropoiesis rather than splenic destruction of red blood cells.
- DBA treatment focuses on corticosteroids, transfusions, and potentially bone marrow transplant.
*Fetal hemoglobin level is elevated*
- While this statement is actually **true** for Diamond-Blackfan anemia (elevated HbF is found in approximately 85% of DBA patients), it is a **supportive laboratory finding** rather than the underlying cause or defining pathophysiology.
- The question asks "which of the following is true," and while both the ribosomal protein mutation and elevated HbF are true, the **mutation in ribosomal protein genes** is the better answer as it represents the fundamental genetic defect causing the condition.
- Other conditions like beta-thalassemia and hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin (HPFH) also feature elevated HbF, making it less specific than the ribosomal protein gene mutation.
Question 134: A 1-year-old boy presents to pediatrics clinic for a well-child visit. He has no complaints. He has a cleft palate and an abnormal facial appearance. He has been riddled with recurrent infections and is followed by cardiology for a ventricular septal defect (VSD). Vital signs are stable, and the patient's physical exam is benign. If this patient's medical history is part of a larger syndrome, what might one also discover that is consistent with the manifestations of this syndrome?
A. Kidney stones
B. A positive Chvostek's sign (Correct Answer)
C. B-cell deficiency
D. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes
E. A shortened QT Interval
Explanation: ***A positive Chvostek's sign***
- The constellation of **cleft palate**, **abnormal facial appearance**, **recurrent infections**, and a **ventricular septal defect (VSD)** strongly suggests **DiGeorge syndrome**.
- In DiGeorge syndrome, hypoparathyroidism leads to **hypocalcemia**, which can manifest as neuromuscular irritability, including a positive **Chvostek's sign** (facial muscle twitching upon tapping the facial nerve).
*Kidney stones*
- **Kidney stones** are typically associated with **hypercalcemia** or other metabolic disorders, not hypocalcemia seen in DiGeorge syndrome.
- While DiGeorge patients can have renal anomalies, **nephrolithiasis** is not a characteristic feature of the syndrome.
*B-cell deficiency*
- DiGeorge syndrome is characterized by **T-cell deficiency** due to thymic hypoplasia or aplasia, not primarily B-cell deficiency.
- While **B cells** may be secondarily affected due to lack of T-cell help, the primary immunodeficiency is related to T-lymphocytes.
*Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes*
- **Hypocalcemia** typically causes **hyperactive deep tendon reflexes** and increased neuromuscular excitability, not hypoactivity.
- **Hypoactive reflexes** might suggest conditions like hypothyroidism or certain neurological disorders.
*A shortened QT Interval*
- **Hypocalcemia** is associated with a **prolonged QT interval** on an electrocardiogram, not a shortened one.
- A **shortened QT interval** can occur in conditions like hypercalcemia or genetic channelopathies.
Question 135: A 3-month-old boy is brought to the physician by his mother because of poor weight gain. She also reports a dusky blue discoloration to his skin during feedings and when crying. On examination, there is a harsh, systolic murmur heard over the left upper sternal border. An x-ray of the chest shows a boot-shaped heart. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
A. Anatomic reversal of aorta and pulmonary artery
B. Hypoplasia of the left ventricle
C. Persistent connection between the aorta and pulmonary artery
D. Right ventricular outflow obstruction (Correct Answer)
E. Narrowing of the distal aortic arch
Explanation: ***Right ventricular outflow obstruction***
- The combination of **cyanosis** (dusky blue discoloration during feedings and crying — "tet spells"), a **harsh systolic murmur** at the left upper sternal border, **poor weight gain**, and a chest x-ray showing a **boot-shaped heart** in an infant strongly suggests **Tetralogy of Fallot (ToF)** with **right ventricular outflow obstruction**.
- The **boot-shaped heart** (coeur en sabot) on chest x-ray reflects **right ventricular hypertrophy** (upturned cardiac apex) and **pulmonary artery hypoplasia** (concave left heart border), with decreased pulmonary vascularity — all hallmarks of ToF.
- ToF consists of four defects: pulmonary stenosis (RVOTO), VSD, overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy. RVOTO drives the right-to-left shunt and cyanosis.
*Anatomic reversal of aorta and pulmonary artery*
- This describes **Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA)**, which presents with severe cyanosis from birth due to parallel (non-mixing) circuits, often without a prominent murmur.
- TGA classically shows an **"egg-on-a-string"** appearance on chest x-ray (narrow mediastinum), not a boot-shaped heart.
*Hypoplasia of the left ventricle*
- This refers to **Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome (HLHS)**, which causes profound cyanosis, circulatory shock, and heart failure shortly after birth as the ductus arteriosus closes.
- HLHS does not produce the boot-shaped cardiac silhouette or the specific murmur described here.
*Persistent connection between the aorta and pulmonary artery*
- This describes a **Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)**, which typically produces a **continuous "machinery" murmur** and, if large, causes left-to-right shunting with signs of pulmonary overcirculation.
- Isolated PDA does not cause primary cyanosis or the right ventricular outflow obstruction pattern seen here.
*Narrowing of the distal aortic arch*
- This is **Coarctation of the Aorta**, which causes **upper-extremity hypertension** and **diminished lower-extremity pulses**, sometimes with differential cyanosis if preductal.
- Coarctation involves left-sided outflow obstruction; its murmur is best heard over the back or left infraclavicular area, and it does not produce the boot-shaped heart or right-sided findings described.
Question 136: An 8-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her parents for the evaluation of an episode of unconsciousness while at the playground that morning. She was unconscious for about 15 seconds and did not shake, bite her tongue, or lose bowel or bladder control. Her grandfather died suddenly at the age of 29 of an unknown heart condition; her parents are both healthy. An ECG shows sinus rhythm and a QT interval corrected for heart rate (QTc) of 470 milliseconds. Laboratory studies are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most likely additional finding in this patient?
A. Oblique palpebral fissures
B. Subvalvular ventricular outflow obstruction murmur
C. Sensorineural hearing loss (Correct Answer)
D. Brachial-femoral pulse delay
E. Skin folds between the mastoid process and acromion
Explanation: ***Sensorineural hearing loss***
- This patient presents with an episode of syncope, a **prolonged QTc interval** (470 ms; normal <450 ms in prepubertal females, diagnostic threshold >460 ms), and a family history of **sudden cardiac death**, highly suggestive of **Long QT syndrome (LQTS)**.
- **Jervell and Lange-Nielsen syndrome** is a specific form of LQTS (autosomal recessive) characterized by both **prolonged QT interval** and **congenital sensorineural hearing loss**, making this the most likely additional finding.
*Oblique palpebral fissures*
- **Oblique palpebral fissures**, along with epicanthal folds and a flat facial profile, are characteristic features of **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)**.
- These features are not typically associated with cardiac arrhythmias or Long QT syndrome, and there is no other information to suggest a chromosomal abnormality.
*Subvalvular ventricular outflow obstruction murmur*
- A **subvalvular ventricular outflow obstruction murmur** is indicative of conditions like **hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)**.
- While HOCM can cause syncope and sudden cardiac death, the primary finding in this patient is a **prolonged QTc interval**, which is characteristic of LQTS, not HOCM.
*Brachial-femoral pulse delay*
- A **brachial-femoral pulse delay** is the classic physical exam finding for **coarctation of the aorta**, a congenital narrowing of the aorta.
- There is no clinical information to suggest coarctation, and it does not explain the prolonged QTc interval and family history of sudden cardiac death.
*Skin folds between the mastoid process and acromion*
- **Skin folds between the mastoid process and acromion** (webbed neck or pterygium colli) are a classic sign of **Turner syndrome (XO)** or **Noonan syndrome**.
- These conditions are not primarily associated with a prolonged QTc interval and exert their cardiac effects through structural defects like coarctation or pulmonary stenosis, not typically primary arrhythmias.
Question 137: A 2-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department after his mother noticed maroon-colored stools in his diaper. He has not had any diarrhea or vomiting. The prenatal and birth histories are unremarkable, and he has had no recent trauma. He tolerates solid foods well. The vital signs include: temperature 37.0℃ (98.6℉), blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg, pulse 102/min, and respiratory rate 16/min. The weight is at the 50th percentile. The examination revealed an alert boy with pallor. The abdomen was mildly tender at the right iliac region without masses. There were no anal fissures or hemorrhoids. A stool guaiac test was positive. The laboratory results are as follows:
Complete blood count (CBC)
Leukocytes 7,500/uL
Hemoglobin 9 g/dL
Hematocrit 24%
Platelets 200,000/uL
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
A. Colonoscopy
B. Stool culture and leukocytes
C. Technetium-99m pertechnetate scan (Correct Answer)
D. Abdominal ultrasound
E. Elimination of cow’s milk from the diet
Explanation: ***Technetium-99m pertechnetate scan***
- This patient's presentation with **painless maroon-colored stools** and **anemia** in a 2-year-old strongly suggests a **Meckel's diverticulum** with ectopic gastric mucosa.
- A **Technetium-99m pertechnetate scan** specifically identifies **ectopic gastric mucosa**, which is the bleeding source in 90% of symptomatic Meckel's diverticula.
*Colonoscopy*
- A colonoscopy would be appropriate for evaluating sources of lower GI bleeding such as **polyps, inflammatory bowel disease**, or **vascular malformations**.
- However, it is unlikely to identify a Meckel's diverticulum, which is located in the **small intestine** and is the most probable cause of bleeding in this age group and presentation.
*Stool culture and leukocytes*
- These tests are used to diagnose **infectious colitis**, which typically presents with **diarrhea, fever, and abdominal pain**, none of which are prominent in this case aside from mild tenderness.
- The patient's **painless maroon-colored stools** are more indicative of a structural anomaly rather than an infection.
*Abdominal ultrasound*
- An abdominal ultrasound can detect **intussusception** or other **abdominal masses**, but it is generally not the primary diagnostic tool for identifying a Meckel's diverticulum.
- While it might show features indirectly, it lacks the specificity of a **Meckel's scan** for ectopic gastric mucosa.
*Elimination of cow’s milk from the diet*
- **Cow's milk protein-induced proctocolitis** can cause bloody stools in infants, but it typically presents earlier in infancy, and the blood is usually **streaky red** rather than maroon.
- The age of the patient (2 years) and the nature of the bleeding (maroon stool, suggesting upper GI bleeding or slow transit from the small bowel) make this diagnosis less likely.
Question 138: An 8-year-old girl is brought to the physician for a well-child examination. Since the age of 2 years, she has had multiple fractures after minor trauma. During the past year, she has fractured the left humerus and right clavicle after falls. Her father also has a history of recurrent fractures. She is at the 5th percentile for height and 20th percentile for weight. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows increased convexity of the thoracic spine. Forward bend test demonstrates asymmetry of the thoracolumbar region. There is a curvature of the tibias bilaterally, and the left leg is 2 cm longer than the right. There is increased mobility of the joints of the upper and lower extremities. Which of the following is the most likely additional finding?
A. Dislocated lens
B. Cerebral berry aneurysm
C. Increased head circumference
D. Widely spaced permanent teeth
E. Hearing impairment (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hearing impairment***
- This patient's presentation with **recurrent fractures**, short stature, spinal deformity (**kyphoscoliosis**), and joint hypermobility, along with a family history of fractures, is highly suggestive of **osteogenesis imperfecta (OI)**.
- **Hearing impairment** (sensorineural or conductive due to ossicle abnormalities) is a common additional finding in many types of OI, particularly Type I.
*Dislocated lens*
- **Lens dislocation** (ectopia lentis) is a characteristic feature of **Marfan syndrome**, not primarily osteogenesis imperfecta.
- While both conditions are connective tissue disorders, the constellation of symptoms (especially multiple fractures) points away from Marfan syndrome.
*Cerebral berry aneurysm*
- **Cerebral berry aneurysms** are associated with conditions like **Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)** and **Ehlers-Danlos syndrome type IV**, not typically osteogenesis imperfecta.
- The primary features of this patient's presentation do not align with the risk factors for berry aneurysms.
*Increased head circumference*
- **Increased head circumference** (macrocephaly) can be seen in various conditions, but it is not a hallmark feature of osteogenesis imperfecta.
- It might suggest hydrocephalus or other neurological disorders, which are not indicated by the patient's symptoms.
*Widely spaced permanent teeth*
- **Widely spaced teeth** and other dental anomalies (like **opalescent dentin** due to **dentinogenesis imperfecta**) can occur in some types of OI, but "widely spaced permanent teeth" specifically is a less defining or universal feature compared to hearing impairment.
- While dental issues are relevant, **hearing impairment** is a more prominent and often earlier manifestation in many OI cases.
Question 139: A 25-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 36 weeks' gestation comes to the physician because of irritability, palpitations, heat intolerance, and frequent bowel movements for the last 5 months. She has received no prenatal care. Her pulse is 118/min and blood pressure is 133/80 mm Hg. She appears anxious. There is a fine tremor in the hands and ophthalmologic examination shows bilateral exophthalmos. The skin is warm and moist to touch. This patient's child is at risk for which of the following complications at birth?
A. Bradycardia and annular rash
B. Umbilical hernia and erosive scalp lesion
C. Mechanical holosystolic murmur and tetany
D. Macrosomia and shoulder dystocia
E. Microcephaly and stridor (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Microcephaly and stridor***
- This mother has **Graves' disease** (hyperthyroidism with exophthalmos), which produces **thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor antibodies (TRAb)** that can cross the placenta.
- TRAb can cause **fetal/neonatal hyperthyroidism** and **fetal goiter**, which may compress the trachea leading to **stridor** and respiratory distress at birth—this is a well-recognized complication.
- **Note:** Microcephaly is not typically associated with maternal Graves' disease; the primary neonatal risks include goiter, tachycardia, and craniosynostosis. However, among the given options, this is the most appropriate answer due to the presence of stridor.
*Bradycardia and annular rash*
- **Bradycardia** and **annular rash** are characteristic of **neonatal lupus erythematosus**, caused by transplacental passage of maternal anti-Ro/SSA and anti-La/SSB antibodies.
- This is not associated with maternal hyperthyroidism or Graves' disease.
*Umbilical hernia and erosive scalp lesion*
- **Umbilical hernia** is common in conditions like **congenital hypothyroidism** or Down syndrome.
- **Erosive scalp lesions** (aplasia cutis congenita) may be seen with methimazole exposure during pregnancy, but this combination is not a typical complication of untreated maternal Graves' disease.
*Mechanical holosystolic murmur and tetany*
- A **holosystolic murmur** suggests **ventricular septal defect (VSD)**, and **tetany** suggests **hypocalcemia**.
- While neonatal thyrotoxicosis can cause tachyarrhythmias, these specific findings are not characteristic complications of maternal Graves' disease.
*Macrosomia and shoulder dystocia*
- **Macrosomia** and **shoulder dystocia** are classic complications of **maternal gestational diabetes**, where maternal hyperglycemia leads to fetal hyperinsulinemia and excessive growth.
- Maternal hyperthyroidism typically causes **low birth weight** or **intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)**, not macrosomia.
Question 140: A 45-day-old male infant is brought to a pediatrician by his parents with concerns of poor feeding and excessive perspiration for one week. On physical examination, his temperature is 37.7°C (99.8°F), pulse rate is 190/min, and respiratory rate is 70/min. Mild cyanosis is present over the lips, and over the nail beds. Oxygen is provided and his oxygen saturation is carefully monitored. The pediatrician orders a bedside echocardiogram of the infant. It reveals a single arterial trunk arising from 2 normally formed ventricles. The arterial trunk is separated from the ventricles by a single semilunar valve. There is a defect in the interventricular septum, and the arterial trunk overrides the defect. Which of the following congenital heart diseases can also present with similar clinical features?
A. Infracardiac total anomalous pulmonary venous return
B. Pulmonary atresia with intact ventricular septum
C. Severe Ebstein anomaly
D. Double-inlet ventricle with unobstructed pulmonary flow
E. Transposition of the great arteries with ventricular septal defect and pulmonary stenosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Transposition of the great arteries with ventricular septal defect and pulmonary stenosis***
- The described echocardiogram findings point to **Truncus Arteriosus**, characterized by a single great artery overriding a **ventricular septal defect (VSD)** and severe **cyanosis**.
- **Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)** with a VSD and pulmonary stenosis also presents with profound cyanosis, heart failure symptoms (poor feeding, tachypnea, tachycardia), and can lead to similar **hemodynamic instability** due to mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood and outflow tract obstruction.
*Infracardiac total anomalous pulmonary venous return*
- This condition involves all pulmonary veins draining into the systemic venous circulation below the diaphragm, often into the **portal vein** or **ductus venosus**.
- While it causes severe cyanosis and cardiopulmonary distress in infancy, the **echocardiogram findings** (single arterial trunk, VSD) are distinct from the typical features of infracardiac TAPVR, which would show abnormal pulmonary venous connection at the systemic level rather than a single great artery.
*Pulmonary atresia with intact ventricular septum*
- This involves a **complete obstruction of the pulmonary valve**, preventing blood flow from the right ventricle to the pulmonary artery, leading to severe cyanosis.
- However, the echocardiogram description of a **single arterial trunk overriding a VSD** is not consistent with pulmonary atresia with an intact ventricular septum.
*Severe Ebstein anomaly*
- This anomaly is characterized by apical displacement of the **tricuspid valve leaflets**, leading to severe tricuspid regurgitation and functional hypoplasia of the right ventricle.
- While it can cause cyanosis and heart failure, the echocardiogram findings of a single arterial trunk and overriding VSD are not typical of **Ebstein anomaly**.
*Double-inlet ventricle with unobstructed pulmonary flow*
- A double-inlet ventricle means both atria connect to a single functional ventricle, but with **unobstructed pulmonary flow**, there would likely be less severe cyanosis (or none) and more symptoms of **congestive heart failure** due to pulmonary overcirculation.
- This condition's echocardiogram findings are also distinct from the described single arterial trunk and overriding VSD, which are characteristic of **Truncus Arteriosus**.