A 6-year-old boy is brought to a primary care provider by his adoptive parents for evaluation of a 3-month history of jaw swelling. He has a travel history of recent immigration from equatorial Africa where his deceased mother was positive for HIV and died from related complications. On physical exam, extensive lymph node swelling on the left side of his jaw is noted. There is also an ulceration that appears to be infected. Fine needle biopsy of the lymph node yields a diagnosis of Burkitt’s lymphoma by the pathologist. Which of the following is most likely associated with the involvement of lymph nodes around his jaw?
Q82
A 74-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of a skin lesion on his right arm. The lesion first appeared 3 months ago and has since been slowly enlarging. Physical examination shows a 1.5-centimeter, faintly erythematous, raised lesion with irregular borders on the dorsum of the right forearm. A biopsy specimen is obtained. If present, which of the following histopathological features would be most consistent with carcinoma in situ?
Q83
A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after sustaining a gunshot wound to her shoulder. During the course of the physical exam, the physician notes her spleen is palpable 10 cm below the left costal margin. Additionally, radiography of her shoulder showed several 'punched-out' areas of lytic bone. While this was considered an incidental finding at the time, she was referred to her primary care physician for further workup. Subsequent biopsy of the spleen demonstrated that this patient’s splenomegaly was caused by an infiltrative process. Which of the following processes would most likely result in splenomegaly in this patient?
Q84
A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with increased fatigue. He states that he has been feeling very tired lately but today lost consciousness while walking up the stairs. He reports mild abdominal distension/discomfort, weight loss, a persistent cough, and multiple episodes of waking up drenched in sweat in the middle of the night. The patient does not see a primary care physician but admits to smoking 2 to 3 packs of cigarettes per day and drinking 1 to 3 alcoholic beverages per day. He recently traveled to Taiwan and Nicaragua. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 177/98 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, you note a fatigued appearing elderly man who is well-groomed. Cardiopulmonary exam reveals mild expiratory wheezes. Abdominal exam is notable for a non-pulsatile mass in the left upper quadrant. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 12 g/dL
Hematocrit: 36%
Leukocyte count: 105,500/mm^3
Platelet count: 197,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 92 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.4 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase score: 25 (range 20 - 100)
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 17 U/L
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q85
A previously healthy 50-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after she was observed having a seizure. On arrival, she is conscious and reports that she feels drowsy. An MRI of the brain shows a 4-cm, round, sharply demarcated mass. She undergoes resection of the mass. A photomicrograph of a section of the resected specimen is shown. This patient's mass is most likely derived from which of the following?
Q86
A 9-year-old boy presents with polydipsia, polyuria, and a serum osmolality of 325 mOsm/L. A neurologic examination reveals bitemporal hemianopia. The lesion is believed to be derived from Rathke's pouch remnants. Which of the following is the most likely histologic finding?
Q87
A 38-year-old man presents with concerns after finding out that his father was recently diagnosed with colon cancer. Family history is only significant for his paternal grandfather who also had colon cancer. A screening colonoscopy is performed, and a polyp is found in the ascending (proximal) colon, which on biopsy shows adenocarcinoma. A mutation in a gene that is responsible for which of the following cellular functions is the most likely etiology of this patient’s cancer?
Q88
A 71-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He has occasional fatigue but otherwise feels well. He has a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is a retired chemist. His only medication is ramipril. His temperature is 37.8°C (100°F), pulse is 72/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows nontender cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy. The spleen is palpated 7 cm below the costal margin. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 12,000/mm3 and a platelet count of 210,000/mm3. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
Q89
A 44-year-old woman presents for her annual physical checkup. She says she first noticed a mass in her right breast while taking a shower 3 months ago, which has progressively increased in size. She denies any weight loss, fever, night sweats, discharge from or change in her nipples. Her family history is negative for breast, ovarian, and endometrial cancer. She is afebrile, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a smooth, multinodular, firm 5 cm x 5 cm mass in the right breast that is mobile and painless. The skin over the mass appears to be stretched and shiny without ulcerations, erythema, or vascular demarcation. On follow-up 6 weeks later, an interval ultrasound of the right breast reveals a well-circumscribed hypoechoic mass with some cystic components that now measures 8 cm x 7 cm. A core needle biopsy of the mass is performed. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely expected to be confirmed by the core needle biopsy in this patient?
Q90
A 27-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of recurrent episodes of headaches, palpitations, and sweating. He was adopted shortly after birth and does not know his biological parents. His pulse is 103/min and blood pressure is 160/105 mm Hg. Physical examination shows multiple soft, yellow papules on the tip of the tongue. There is a 2-cm, firm thyroid nodule. He has long and slender upper extremities, and his elbows and knees can be hyperextended. The most likely cause of this patient's condition is a mutation in which of the following genes?
Neoplasia US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: A 6-year-old boy is brought to a primary care provider by his adoptive parents for evaluation of a 3-month history of jaw swelling. He has a travel history of recent immigration from equatorial Africa where his deceased mother was positive for HIV and died from related complications. On physical exam, extensive lymph node swelling on the left side of his jaw is noted. There is also an ulceration that appears to be infected. Fine needle biopsy of the lymph node yields a diagnosis of Burkitt’s lymphoma by the pathologist. Which of the following is most likely associated with the involvement of lymph nodes around his jaw?
A. Ethnicity of the patient
B. Close family member with HIV
C. Gender of the patient
D. Recent immigration from equatorial Africa (Correct Answer)
E. Infected ulcer
Explanation: ***Recent immigration from equatorial Africa***
- **Endemic Burkitt's lymphoma**, common in equatorial Africa, typically manifests as a **jaw mass** in children and is strongly associated with **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)**.
- The patient's history of immigration from this region directly links to the presentation of Burkitt's lymphoma in his jaw.
*Ethnicity of the patient*
- While certain ethnic groups may have higher predispositions to specific diseases, ethnicity itself is not the primary determinant for the **endemic presentation of Burkitt's lymphoma** in the jaw.
- The **geographical region** (equatorial Africa) is a more direct and stronger risk factor for this specific clinical picture.
*Close family member with HIV*
- HIV infection can increase the risk of **immunodeficiency-associated lymphomas**, but it doesn't specifically explain the characteristic **jaw involvement** seen in endemic Burkitt's lymphoma.
- The mother's HIV status indicates a potential compromised immune system in the patient, which can be a predisposing factor for lymphomas in general, but not specifically for the jaw location of Burkitt's lymphoma.
*Gender of the patient*
- **Burkitt's lymphoma** does not show a significant predilection for one gender over the other to explain the specific jaw involvement.
- The presentation is more tied to **geographic and immunological factors** than to the patient's gender.
*Infected ulcer*
- The infected ulcer is a **secondary complication** or a symptom that may arise from the rapidly growing tumor, indicating opportunistic infection, rather than the primary cause or association for the specific location of the lymphoma.
- It doesn't explain why the lymphoma initially presented in the **jaw lymph nodes**.
Question 82: A 74-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of a skin lesion on his right arm. The lesion first appeared 3 months ago and has since been slowly enlarging. Physical examination shows a 1.5-centimeter, faintly erythematous, raised lesion with irregular borders on the dorsum of the right forearm. A biopsy specimen is obtained. If present, which of the following histopathological features would be most consistent with carcinoma in situ?
A. Presence of epithelial cells in the dermis
B. Pleomorphism of cells in the stratum corneum
C. Increased nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio in the stratum spinosum
D. Full-thickness basal to apical cell polarity
E. Full-thickness nuclear atypia with intact basement membrane (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Full-thickness nuclear atypia with intact basement membrane***
- Carcinoma in situ (CIS) is characterized by **malignant changes confined to the epidermis** with **full-thickness involvement** of all viable epidermal layers.
- The **basement membrane remains intact**, meaning there is no invasion into the dermis.
- **Nuclear atypia, loss of maturation, and architectural disarray** extend from the basal layer to the superficial layers, but cancerous cells have not breached the basement membrane.
- This describes **Bowen's disease** (squamous cell carcinoma in situ), which is consistent with the clinical presentation of a slowly enlarging erythematous plaque on sun-exposed skin in an elderly patient.
*Presence of epithelial cells in the dermis*
- The presence of **epithelial cells in the dermis** indicates **invasive squamous cell carcinoma**, as it signifies breach of the basement membrane.
- Carcinoma in situ, by definition, is restricted to the **epidermis** and does not involve dermal invasion.
*Pleomorphism of cells in the stratum corneum*
- The **stratum corneum** consists of dead, anucleated keratinocytes, making nuclear **pleomorphism** impossible in this layer.
- Malignant changes occur in the **viable layers of the epidermis** (stratum basale, spinosum, granulosum), not in the cornified layer.
*Increased nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio in the stratum spinosum*
- While an **increased nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio** is seen in carcinoma in situ, this option implies changes limited to the stratum spinosum only.
- True carcinoma in situ requires **full-thickness** epidermal involvement, not changes confined to a single layer.
- Changes limited to one layer would suggest **dysplasia** rather than carcinoma in situ.
*Full-thickness basal to apical cell polarity*
- This describes **normal epidermal architecture** with ordered maturation of keratinocytes from basal to superficial layers.
- In carcinoma in situ, this **normal polarity is lost**, with architectural disarray and loss of orderly maturation throughout the epidermis.
Question 83: A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after sustaining a gunshot wound to her shoulder. During the course of the physical exam, the physician notes her spleen is palpable 10 cm below the left costal margin. Additionally, radiography of her shoulder showed several 'punched-out' areas of lytic bone. While this was considered an incidental finding at the time, she was referred to her primary care physician for further workup. Subsequent biopsy of the spleen demonstrated that this patient’s splenomegaly was caused by an infiltrative process. Which of the following processes would most likely result in splenomegaly in this patient?
A. Multiple myeloma (Correct Answer)
B. Budd-Chiari syndrome
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Myelofibrosis
E. Beta-thalassemia
Explanation: ***Multiple myeloma***
- **Multiple myeloma** is characterized by malignant plasma cell proliferation in the bone marrow, causing classic **"punched-out" lytic bone lesions** due to osteoclast-activating factors secreted by malignant plasma cells.
- While splenomegaly is less common than in other hematologic malignancies, **plasma cell infiltration of the spleen** can occur, causing splenomegaly with an **infiltrative process on biopsy**.
- The combination of **pathognomonic punched-out lytic bone lesions** + **infiltrative splenomegaly** is diagnostic of multiple myeloma with splenic involvement.
- Additional features typically include **anemia**, **hypercalcemia**, **renal insufficiency**, and elevated serum protein with monoclonal spike on electrophoresis.
*Myelofibrosis*
- **Myelofibrosis** is a myeloproliferative neoplasm causing **massive splenomegaly** due to extramedullary hematopoiesis and does cause infiltrative changes in the spleen.
- However, bone changes in myelofibrosis typically show **osteosclerosis** (increased bone density) or mixed sclerotic/lytic patterns, NOT the classic discrete "punched-out" lytic lesions described.
- The punched-out lytic lesions are the key distinguishing feature pointing to multiple myeloma, not myelofibrosis.
*Budd-Chiari syndrome*
- **Budd-Chiari syndrome** involves hepatic venous outflow obstruction, leading to **hepatomegaly**, **ascites**, and congestive splenomegaly due to portal hypertension.
- Splenomegaly is due to **passive congestion**, not an infiltrative process, and would not show infiltrative changes on biopsy.
- Does not cause lytic bone lesions.
*Beta-thalassemia*
- **Beta-thalassemia** can cause splenomegaly due to extramedullary hematopoiesis and hemolysis, with bone changes from marrow expansion.
- Bone changes show **widened medullary spaces** and "hair-on-end" appearance on skull X-ray, NOT discrete punched-out lytic lesions.
- The primary features are severe **microcytic anemia** and abnormal hemoglobin patterns, not plasma cell infiltration.
*Infectious mononucleosis*
- **Infectious mononucleosis** (EBV infection) causes acute splenomegaly due to **lymphoid hyperplasia** and immune response.
- This is a **self-limiting viral illness** that does not cause punched-out lytic bone lesions or chronic infiltrative splenomegaly.
- Biopsy would show reactive lymphoid hyperplasia, not malignant infiltration.
Question 84: A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with increased fatigue. He states that he has been feeling very tired lately but today lost consciousness while walking up the stairs. He reports mild abdominal distension/discomfort, weight loss, a persistent cough, and multiple episodes of waking up drenched in sweat in the middle of the night. The patient does not see a primary care physician but admits to smoking 2 to 3 packs of cigarettes per day and drinking 1 to 3 alcoholic beverages per day. He recently traveled to Taiwan and Nicaragua. His temperature is 99.5°F (37.5°C), blood pressure is 177/98 mmHg, pulse is 100/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On physical exam, you note a fatigued appearing elderly man who is well-groomed. Cardiopulmonary exam reveals mild expiratory wheezes. Abdominal exam is notable for a non-pulsatile mass in the left upper quadrant. Laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 12 g/dL
Hematocrit: 36%
Leukocyte count: 105,500/mm^3
Platelet count: 197,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 92 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.4 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.2 mg/dL
Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase score: 25 (range 20 - 100)
AST: 12 U/L
ALT: 17 U/L
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Leukemoid reaction
C. Acute myelogenous leukemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
E. Chronic myeloid leukemia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Chronic myeloid leukemia***
- The patient presents with **fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, and a persistent cough**, which are common symptoms of CML. The **extreme leukocytosis (105,500/mm^3)**, **non-pulsatile LUQ mass (splenomegaly)**, and a **low-normal leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score of 25** are highly indicative of CML.
- CML characteristically shows a **low LAP score (typically <20)**, which distinguishes it from a leukemoid reaction. This patient's LAP of 25, while technically within the normal range (20-100), is at the lower end and consistent with CML.
- CML is a myeloproliferative disorder characterized by the **Philadelphia chromosome (BCR-ABL fusion gene)**, leading to uncontrolled proliferation of myeloid cells.
*Tuberculosis*
- While **fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, and cough** can be present in tuberculosis, the **dramatically elevated leukocyte count** and **splenomegaly** are not characteristic findings of TB.
- Tuberculosis would typically show a more prominent respiratory symptomology (e.g., hemoptysis) and imaging findings consistent with lung involvement, and its diagnosis would be confirmed by microbiologic studies.
*Leukemoid reaction*
- A leukemoid reaction is a **reactive leukocytosis (>50,000/mm^3)** often triggered by severe infection or inflammation, but it would present with an **elevated leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) score (typically >100)**, which contradicts the patient's low-normal LAP score of 25.
- Unlike CML, a leukemoid reaction does not typically cause **splenomegaly** to the extent that it forms a palpable mass.
*Acute myelogenous leukemia*
- AML typically presents with **malignant myeloid blasts** in the peripheral blood (often >20%) and bone marrow, and patients are usually more acutely ill with symptoms related to **pancytopenia** (e.g., severe anemia, thrombocytopenia with bleeding), which are not present in this case.
- While AML can cause leukocytosis, it is characterized by a **predominance of immature blast cells** rather than the mature granulocytes seen in CML.
*Acute lymphoblastic leukemia*
- ALL is primarily a disease of **lymphoid progenitor cells** and is more common in children, though it can occur in adults. It is characterized by the presence of **lymphoblasts** in the blood and bone marrow.
- While it can cause fatigue and weight loss, the **extremely high leukocyte count composed primarily of mature myeloid cells** and **prominent splenomegaly** are inconsistent with ALL.
Question 85: A previously healthy 50-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 30 minutes after she was observed having a seizure. On arrival, she is conscious and reports that she feels drowsy. An MRI of the brain shows a 4-cm, round, sharply demarcated mass. She undergoes resection of the mass. A photomicrograph of a section of the resected specimen is shown. This patient's mass is most likely derived from which of the following?
A. Neurons
B. Arachnoid cells (Correct Answer)
C. Schwann cells
D. Oligodendrocytes
E. Astrocytes
Explanation: ***Arachnoid cells***
- The description of a **round, sharply demarcated mass** in an adult, often presenting with seizures, is highly characteristic of a **meningioma**.
- Meningiomas are **benign tumors** that arise from the meninges, specifically the **arachnoid cap cells** (meningothelial cells).
- These tumors are typically **well-circumscribed**, extra-axial masses that compress adjacent brain tissue.
*Neurons*
- Tumors derived from neurons, such as **gangliogliomas** or **central neurocytomas**, are less common and typically do not present as sharply demarcated masses in this location.
- While neurons are the primary functional cells of the brain, most primary brain tumors arise from **glial or mesenchymal cells**, not neurons themselves.
*Schwann cells*
- Tumors of Schwann cells are known as **schwannomas** (or acoustic neuromas if arising from cranial nerves).
- Schwannomas typically occur along **cranial nerves** (especially CN VIII) in the cerebellopontine angle, presenting with hearing loss or balance issues, which is not described here.
*Oligodendrocytes*
- Tumors originating from oligodendrocytes are **oligodendrogliomas**, which are typically **infiltrative glial tumors** rather than sharply demarcated masses.
- They often present with calcifications ("fried egg" appearance on histology) and have a different appearance, not matching the classic presentation of a benign, encapsulated mass.
*Astrocytes*
- Astrocytes give rise to various **astrocytomas** (e.g., glioblastoma, pilocytic astrocytoma), which are generally **infiltrative** and poorly demarcated.
- While they can present with seizures, their typical MRI appearance and histological features differ from the described well-circumscribed mass.
Question 86: A 9-year-old boy presents with polydipsia, polyuria, and a serum osmolality of 325 mOsm/L. A neurologic examination reveals bitemporal hemianopia. The lesion is believed to be derived from Rathke's pouch remnants. Which of the following is the most likely histologic finding?
A. Lymphocytic infiltrate
B. Cystic spaces (Correct Answer)
C. Branching papillae
D. Immune complex deposition
E. Liquefactive necrosis
Explanation: ***Cystic spaces***
- The described symptoms (polydipsia, polyuria, bitemporal hemianopia) in a child, along with a lesion derived from **Rathke's pouch remnants**, strongly suggest **craniopharyngioma**.
- Histologically, craniopharyngiomas are characterized by **cystic spaces** filled with thick, oily, "motor oil" like fluid rich in cholesterol crystals, along with adamantinomatous or papillary epithelial components.
- The **adamantinomatous variant** (most common in children) features prominent cystic spaces, wet keratin, and calcifications.
*Lymphocytic infiltrate*
- While some tumors can have lymphocytic infiltrates, it is not a primary defining feature of **craniopharyngioma**.
- **Lymphocytic infiltrates** are more characteristic of inflammatory or autoimmune conditions, or certain lymphoid neoplasms.
*Branching papillae*
- Although a **papillary variant** of craniopharyngioma exists (typically in adults), **branching papillae** are not the characteristic histologic finding, especially in a pediatric patient.
- The adamantinomatous type (seen in children) is defined by **cystic spaces** with cholesterol crystals and wet keratin, not papillary architecture.
- This pattern is more characteristic of tumors like **papillary thyroid carcinoma** or certain renal cell carcinomas.
*Immune complex deposition*
- **Immune complex deposition** is associated with autoimmune diseases or certain kidney disorders, such as glomerulonephritis.
- It is not a pathologic hallmark of **craniopharyngioma**.
*Liquefactive necrosis*
- **Liquefactive necrosis** is a type of tissue death characterized by the dissolution of dead cells and formation of a viscous liquid mass.
- While some tumors may undergo necrosis, it is not the primary or specific histological finding for diagnosing **craniopharyngioma**, which is more defined by its cystic and epithelial characteristics.
Question 87: A 38-year-old man presents with concerns after finding out that his father was recently diagnosed with colon cancer. Family history is only significant for his paternal grandfather who also had colon cancer. A screening colonoscopy is performed, and a polyp is found in the ascending (proximal) colon, which on biopsy shows adenocarcinoma. A mutation in a gene that is responsible for which of the following cellular functions is the most likely etiology of this patient’s cancer?
A. DNA mismatch repair (Correct Answer)
B. Signal transduction
C. Cytoskeletal stability
D. Inhibits progression from G1 to S phase
E. Inhibitor of apoptosis
Explanation: ***DNA mismatch repair***
- The patient's presentation with **early-onset colon cancer** (38 years old), location in the **proximal colon** (ascending colon), and a **strong family history** of colon cancer in his father and paternal grandfather are highly suggestive of **Lynch syndrome (hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer or HNPCC)**.
- Lynch syndrome is caused by inherited mutations in **DNA mismatch repair (MMR) genes**, such as *MLH1, MSH2, MSH6*, and *PMS2*, leading to microsatellite instability and an increased risk of various cancers, particularly colorectal and endometrial.
*Signal transduction*
- Mutations in **signal transduction genes (e.g., *KRAS*, *BRAF*)** are common in sporadic colorectal cancer and lead to constitutive activation of cell growth pathways through the RAS/MAPK signaling cascade.
- While mutations in these genes are important in colorectal cancer pathogenesis, they typically do not explain the **familial aggregation, early onset, and proximal location** seen in this patient, which are hallmarks of Lynch syndrome.
*Cytoskeletal stability*
- Genes involved in cytoskeletal stability are crucial for cell structure and migration, but their primary dysfunction is not the direct cause of inherited colorectal cancer syndromes like Lynch syndrome.
- While some advanced cancers may show changes in cytoskeletal proteins, this is not the fundamental genetic defect underlying this specific familial cancer presentation.
*Inhibits progression from G1 to S phase*
- Proteins that inhibit progression from G1 to S phase are typically **tumor suppressor genes**, such as **retinoblastoma protein (Rb)** or **p53**.
- Loss of function in these genes promotes uncontrolled cell division, but mutations in *Rb* or *p53* are not the primary cause of Lynch syndrome; rather, it is characterized by defects in **DNA repair**.
*Inhibitor of apoptosis*
- Genes that inhibit apoptosis (programmed cell death) are often **oncogenes** (e.g., *BCL-2*) or genes that, when mutated, lead to resistance to apoptotic signals.
- While resistance to apoptosis is a hallmark of cancer, the fundamental defect in Lynch syndrome is impaired **DNA repair**, not primarily a direct inhibition of apoptosis.
Question 88: A 71-year-old man comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. He has occasional fatigue but otherwise feels well. He has a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He is a retired chemist. His only medication is ramipril. His temperature is 37.8°C (100°F), pulse is 72/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows nontender cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy. The spleen is palpated 7 cm below the costal margin. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 12,000/mm3 and a platelet count of 210,000/mm3. Further evaluation is most likely to show which of the following?
A. Smudge cells (Correct Answer)
B. Ringed sideroblasts
C. Rouleaux formation
D. Teardrop cells
E. Polycythemia
Explanation: ***Smudge cells***
- The patient's presentation with **fatigue**, **lymphadenopathy**, **splenomegaly**, and a **leukocytosis** (12,000/mm³) is classic for **chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)**.
- **Smudge cells** (also known as Gumprecht shadows) are characteristic findings on a peripheral blood smear in CLL, resulting from the fragile lymphocytes being crushed during slide preparation.
*Ringed sideroblasts*
- **Ringed sideroblasts** are immature red blood cells with iron granules accumulated in a ring around the nucleus, seen in **myelodysplastic syndromes** and **sideroblastic anemia**.
- This patient's symptoms and labs, particularly the significant lymphocytosis, do not support these conditions.
*Rouleaux formation*
- **Rouleaux formation** refers to red blood cells stacking up like coins, commonly seen in conditions with increased plasma proteins such as **multiple myeloma** or **macroglobulinemia**.
- The clinical picture here, with prominent lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly, is not typical for these disorders.
*Teardrop cells*
- **Teardrop cells** (dacryocytes) are red blood cells with a characteristic teardrop shape, often associated with **myelofibrosis** due to their deformation as they squeeze through fibrotic marrow.
- The patient's presentation lacks other key features of myelofibrosis, such as significant anemia, extremely high leukocyte counts, or symptoms of marrow failure.
*Polycythemia*
- **Polycythemia** refers to an abnormally high concentration of red blood cells (or hemoglobin) in the blood, often associated with conditions like **polycythemia vera**.
- While fatigue can be a symptom, the patient's leukocyte count is elevated, not the erythrocyte count, and the presence of lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly points away from isolated polycythemia.
Question 89: A 44-year-old woman presents for her annual physical checkup. She says she first noticed a mass in her right breast while taking a shower 3 months ago, which has progressively increased in size. She denies any weight loss, fever, night sweats, discharge from or change in her nipples. Her family history is negative for breast, ovarian, and endometrial cancer. She is afebrile, and her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a smooth, multinodular, firm 5 cm x 5 cm mass in the right breast that is mobile and painless. The skin over the mass appears to be stretched and shiny without ulcerations, erythema, or vascular demarcation. On follow-up 6 weeks later, an interval ultrasound of the right breast reveals a well-circumscribed hypoechoic mass with some cystic components that now measures 8 cm x 7 cm. A core needle biopsy of the mass is performed. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely expected to be confirmed by the core needle biopsy in this patient?
A. Fibroadenoma
B. Breast abscess
C. Fat necrosis
D. Duct ectasia
E. Phyllodes tumor (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Phyllodes tumor***
* The clinical presentation of a rapidly growing, large, **mobile, firm, and painless breast mass** in a middle-aged woman is highly suggestive of a phyllodes tumor.
* Ultrasound findings of a **well-circumscribed hypoechoic mass with cystic components** are also characteristic, as is the significant interval increase in size.
*Fibroadenoma*
* While fibroadenomas are typically **mobile and painless**, they usually grow more slowly and rarely reach the large size (8 cm) observed in this patient.
* Significant rapid growth and a multinodular appearance make fibroadenoma less likely, although phyllodes tumors can sometimes be mistaken for fibroadenomas on initial imaging.
*Breast abscess*
* A breast abscess typically presents with signs of **inflammation, pain, redness, warmth, and possibly fever**, which are absent in this case.
* Ultrasound would show a fluid-filled collection with internal debris, often with surrounding inflammatory changes.
*Fat necrosis*
* Fat necrosis usually occurs after **trauma or surgery** to the breast and often presents as a firm, fixed mass that can mimic malignancy.
* The absence of trauma history and the rapid, significant growth are inconsistent with fat necrosis.
*Duct ectasia*
* Duct ectasia commonly causes **nipple discharge**, subareolar masses, and sometimes nipple retraction.
* The patient denies nipple discharge, and the mass characteristics do not align with typical duct ectasia.
Question 90: A 27-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of recurrent episodes of headaches, palpitations, and sweating. He was adopted shortly after birth and does not know his biological parents. His pulse is 103/min and blood pressure is 160/105 mm Hg. Physical examination shows multiple soft, yellow papules on the tip of the tongue. There is a 2-cm, firm thyroid nodule. He has long and slender upper extremities, and his elbows and knees can be hyperextended. The most likely cause of this patient's condition is a mutation in which of the following genes?
A. TSC2
B. COL5A1
C. RET (Correct Answer)
D. MEN1
E. FBN1
Explanation: ***Correct Option: RET***
- The patient's symptoms (headaches, palpitations, sweating, hypertension) point to a **pheochromocytoma**, and the thyroid nodule suggests **medullary thyroid carcinoma**. The marfanoid habitus (long, slender extremities, hyperextension) and mucosal neuromas (yellow papules on the tongue) are characteristic features of **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2B (MEN2B)**.
- **MEN2B** is caused by a germline gain-of-function mutation in the **RET proto-oncogene**, which is involved in cell growth and differentiation.
*Incorrect Option: TSC2*
- Mutations in **TSC2** are associated with **tuberous sclerosis complex**, a neurocutaneous disorder characterized by **facial angiofibromas**, ash-leaf spots, shagreen patches, renal angiomyolipomas, and brain tubers.
- The patient's presentation with pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and marfanoid features is not consistent with tuberous sclerosis.
*Incorrect Option: COL5A1*
- Mutations in **COL5A1** are associated with **Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (classical type)**, which is characterized by **skin hyperextensibility**, joint hypermobility, and tissue fragility.
- While the patient exhibits joint hypermobility, the constellation of pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid carcinoma, and mucosal neuromas is not a typical feature of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome.
*Incorrect Option: MEN1*
- Mutations in the **MEN1 gene** cause **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1 (MEN1)**, characterized by tumors of the **parathyroid glands** (leading to hyperparathyroidism), **pituitary gland**, and **pancreatic islet cells**.
- The patient's presentation with medullary thyroid carcinoma and pheochromocytoma, along with mucosal neuromas and marfanoid features, is not consistent with MEN1.
*Incorrect Option: FBN1*
- Mutations in the **FBN1 gene** cause **Marfan syndrome**, characterized by **aortic root dilation**, ectopia lentis, and marfanoid body habitus (long limbs, joint hypermobility).
- While the patient has a marfanoid habitus, the presence of pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid carcinoma, and mucosal neuromas are not features of Marfan syndrome, differentiating it from MEN2B.