A 62-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider with anal bleeding. She reports a 4-month history of intermittent anal bleeding that was initially mild but has increased in severity over the past 2 weeks. She also reports having intermittent mucoid discharge from her anus. She denies any pain with defecation but does experience occasional constipation that has been increasing in frequency over the past month. Her past medical history is notable for hypertension and breast cancer status-post-mastectomy and radiation therapy. She takes enalapril. She has a 15-pack-year smoking history and drinks 3-4 glasses of wine per week. Her temperature is 98.4°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 18/min. On exam, she appears pale but is pleasant and conversational. Digital rectal examination reveals a small mass within the anal canal. Anoscopy demonstrates an erythematous irregular mass arising from the mucosa proximal to the dentate line. Which of the following histologic findings is most likely to be seen in this patient’s lesion?
Q62
A 72-year-old man comes to the physician because of several episodes of dark urine over the past 2 months. He has had a 6 kg (13.2-lb) weight loss over the past 3 months despite no changes in appetite. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 30 years. A CT scan shows a heterogeneous enhancing mass arising from the left renal pelvis. Pathologic examination of the lesion is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q63
A 45-year-old African American male presents to his primary care physician complaining of difficulty swallowing that was initially limited to solids but has now progressed to liquids. Biopsy of the esophagus reveals dysplastic cells, but does not show evidence of glands or increased mucin. Which of the following most contributed to his condition?
Q64
A 56-year-old woman presents to a physician for evaluation of a lump in her left breast. She noticed the lump last week while taking a shower. She says that the lump seemed to be getting larger, which worried her. The lump is not painful. The medical history is unremarkable. She has smoked cigarettes for the last 30 years. On examination, bilateral small nodules are present that are non-tender and immobile. A mammography confirms the masses and fine needle aspiration cytology of the lesions reveals malignant cells arranged in a row of cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q65
A 60-year-old man presents to his physician as part of his routine annual medical check-up. He has no specific complaints but mentions that he has often experienced fatigue over the past few months. His past medical history is noncontributory. On physical examination, his temperature is 37.2°C (98.8°F), pulse rate is 84/min, blood pressure is 130/86 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 18/min. On general examination, mild pallor is present. Palpation of the abdomen reveals splenomegaly, which extends 6.35 cm (2.5 in) below the left costal margin. There is no hepatomegaly. Laboratory studies show the following values:
Hemoglobin 9.7 g/dL
Total leukocyte count 30,000/mm3
Granulocytes 83%
Lymphocytes 10%
Eosinophils 5%
Basophils 1%
Monocytes 1%
Platelet count 700,000/mm3
The physician orders a bone marrow biopsy analysis of hematopoietic cells. The report shows the presence of a t(9;22)(q34; q11) translocation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q66
A 34-year-old woman visits an outpatient clinic with a complaint of pain in her left breast for the last few months. The pain worsens during her menstrual cycle and relieves once the cycle is over. She denies any nipple discharge, skins changes, warmth, erythema, or a palpable mass in the breast. Her family history is negative for breast, endometrial, and ovarian cancer. There is no palpable mass or any abnormality in the physical examination of her breast. A mammogram is ordered which shows a cluster of microcalcifications with a radiolucent center. A breast biopsy is also performed which reveals a lobulocentric proliferation of epithelium and myoepithelium. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q67
A 65-year-old man comes to the physician because he is worried about a mole on his right forearm. He has had the mole for several years, but it has grown in size in the past 3 months. Physical examination shows a hyperpigmented plaque with irregular borders and small area of ulceration. Histopathologic analysis of a full-thickness excisional biopsy confirms the diagnosis of malignant melanoma. Invasion of which of the following layers of skin carries the highest risk of mortality for this patient?
Q68
An 11-year-old boy who recently emigrated from Nigeria is brought to the physician for evaluation of jaw swelling. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. Examination shows a 5-cm solid mass located above the right mandible and significant cervical lymphadenopathy. A biopsy specimen of the mass shows sheets of lymphocytes with interspersed tingible body macrophages. Serology for Epstein-Barr virus is positive. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most likely present in cells obtained from the tissue mass?
Q69
An 11-year-old boy presents to your clinic after 4 months of pain and swelling in his thigh. His mother states that at first she thought his condition was due to roughhousing, but it hasn’t gone away and now she’s concerned. You perform an X-ray that shows an ‘onion skin’ appearance on the diaphysis of the femur. You are concerned about a malignancy, so you perform a PET scan that reveals lung nodules. Which of the following is most associated with this disease?
Q70
A 40-year-old chronic smoker presents to the office complaining of a cough and pleuritic chest pain. He also has had pain in his right shoulder for the past 2 weeks. He denies fever, night sweats, but has noticed a 2.2 kg (5 lb) weight loss in the last month. He has no recent history of travel. Past medical history is unremarkable. On cardiopulmonary examination, bilateral velcro-like crackles are auscultated in the upper to middle lung fields, with normal heart sounds. There is a 3 x 3 cm swelling on the right shoulder with a normal range of motion and intact sensation. 5/5 muscular strength in all extremities is noted. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral nodular opacities in the upper lung lobes and a lytic lesion on the right humeral head. Electron microscopy of the lung biopsy shows the following. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Neoplasia US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 61: A 62-year-old woman presents to her primary care provider with anal bleeding. She reports a 4-month history of intermittent anal bleeding that was initially mild but has increased in severity over the past 2 weeks. She also reports having intermittent mucoid discharge from her anus. She denies any pain with defecation but does experience occasional constipation that has been increasing in frequency over the past month. Her past medical history is notable for hypertension and breast cancer status-post-mastectomy and radiation therapy. She takes enalapril. She has a 15-pack-year smoking history and drinks 3-4 glasses of wine per week. Her temperature is 98.4°F (36.9°C), blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg, pulse is 85/min, and respirations are 18/min. On exam, she appears pale but is pleasant and conversational. Digital rectal examination reveals a small mass within the anal canal. Anoscopy demonstrates an erythematous irregular mass arising from the mucosa proximal to the dentate line. Which of the following histologic findings is most likely to be seen in this patient’s lesion?
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Gastrointestinal stromal tumor
C. Adenocarcinoma (Correct Answer)
D. Basaloid carcinoma
E. Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation: ***Adenocarcinoma***
- The patient's presentation with **anal bleeding**, **mucoid discharge**, and an **irregular mass proximal to the dentate line** strongly suggests **anal adenocarcinoma**.
- **Adenocarcinoma of the anus** arises from glandular tissue, often from the **anal glands** or as an extension from rectal adenocarcinoma, and is the **most common histology proximal to the dentate line** where columnar/glandular epithelium predominates.
- Histologically, it shows **glandular architecture** with malignant columnar cells forming tubular or cribriform patterns, mucin production, and dysplastic features.
- While the patient has smoking history (a risk factor for SCC), the **anatomical location above the dentate line** makes adenocarcinoma more likely than squamous cell carcinoma.
*Squamous cell carcinoma*
- **Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)** is the most common type of anal cancer overall, but typically arises **at or below the dentate line** where squamous and transitional epithelium is present.
- Risk factors include **smoking**, HPV infection, and immunosuppression.
- Histologically shows nests of malignant squamous cells with **keratinization** and **intercellular bridges**.
- The location **proximal to the dentate line** makes this less likely than adenocarcinoma.
*Basaloid carcinoma*
- **Basaloid carcinoma** (also known as cloacogenic carcinoma) is a variant of **squamous cell carcinoma** that arises from the transitional epithelium at or near the dentate line.
- While it can occur in the anal canal, it is typically found **at the dentate line** in the transitional zone, not proximal to it.
- It is considered part of the squamous cell carcinoma spectrum.
*Basal cell carcinoma*
- **Basal cell carcinoma** typically occurs on **sun-exposed skin** (e.g., face, neck) and is exceedingly rare in the anal canal, accounting for less than 1% of anal cancers.
- Histologically presents with nests of **basaloid cells** with peripheral palisading, which is not characteristic of this patient's lesion location.
*Gastrointestinal stromal tumor*
- **Gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs)** are mesenchymal tumors most commonly found in the stomach or small intestine, and are **exceedingly rare in the anus**.
- Histologically characterized by **spindle-shaped** or epithelioid cells that stain positive for **CD117 (c-KIT)**, which would not be expected for a mucosal mass in this glandular epithelial location.
Question 62: A 72-year-old man comes to the physician because of several episodes of dark urine over the past 2 months. He has had a 6 kg (13.2-lb) weight loss over the past 3 months despite no changes in appetite. He has smoked a pack of cigarettes daily for 30 years. A CT scan shows a heterogeneous enhancing mass arising from the left renal pelvis. Pathologic examination of the lesion is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Grayish-tan tumor comprised of primitive blastemal cells forming abortive glomeruli
B. Bright yellow tumor comprised of polygonal cells filled with lipids and glycogen
C. Ulcerating tumor comprised of glandular cells within mucinous material
D. Tumor with central scar comprised of large eosinophilic cells with central nuclei
E. Pedunculated tumor comprised of pleomorphic urothelial cells with severe nuclear atypia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pedunculated tumor comprised of pleomorphic urothelial cells with severe nuclear atypia***
- The patient's presentation with **dark urine** (hematuria), **weight loss**, and a **renal pelvis mass** in a 72-year-old chronic smoker is highly suggestive of **urothelial carcinoma** of the renal pelvis.
- Urothelial carcinomas often present as **pedunculated masses** and are characterized histologically by **pleomorphic urothelial cells** with varying degrees of **nuclear atypia**, reflecting their origin from the transitional epithelium lining the renal pelvis.
*Grayish-tan tumor comprised of primitive blastemal cells forming abortive glomeruli*
- This description is characteristic of **Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)**, which is a embryonal tumor predominantly affecting young children (typically <5 years old).
- The patient's advanced age (72 years) makes Wilms tumor an extremely unlikely diagnosis.
*Bright yellow tumor comprised of polygonal cells filled with lipids and glycogen*
- This description is typical of **renal cell carcinoma (clear cell type)**, which originates from the renal cortex, not the renal pelvis.
- While renal cell carcinoma can present with hematuria and weight loss, the CT finding of a mass "arising from the left renal pelvis" points away from a cortical origin.
*Ulcerating tumor comprised of glandular cells within mucinous material*
- This description is characteristic of **adenocarcinoma**, which can occur in various organs but is not typical for primary renal pelvis tumors.
- While rarely, primary adenocarcinoma can arise in the renal pelvis, it is far less common than urothelial carcinoma and usually has a different histological appearance with glandular differentiation and mucin production.
*Tumor with central scar comprised of large eosinophilic cells with central nuclei*
- This description is consistent with **oncocytoma**, a benign renal tumor.
- While oncocytomas can be large, they are usually asymptomatic or cause non-specific symptoms, and the patient's symptoms of significant weight loss and dark urine are more indicative of a malignant process.
Question 63: A 45-year-old African American male presents to his primary care physician complaining of difficulty swallowing that was initially limited to solids but has now progressed to liquids. Biopsy of the esophagus reveals dysplastic cells, but does not show evidence of glands or increased mucin. Which of the following most contributed to his condition?
A. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
B. Obesity
C. Drinking extremely hot beverages
D. Radiation exposure in the past 6 months
E. Smoking (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Smoking***
- **Smoking** is the most significant risk factor for **squamous cell carcinoma** of the esophagus, which is strongly suggested by the biopsy findings of **dysplastic cells without glands or mucin**.
- The combination of **progressive dysphagia** (solids to liquids) and smoking history in an **African American male** fits the classic demographic and presentation pattern for esophageal squamous cell carcinoma.
*Gastroesophageal reflux disease*
- **GERD** primarily leads to **esophageal adenocarcinoma** through **Barrett's esophagus**, which would show **glandular metaplasia** and **increased mucin production** on biopsy.
- The biopsy explicitly states **absence of glands and mucin**, making GERD-related adenocarcinoma unlikely as the primary pathologic process.
*Obesity*
- **Obesity** increases risk of **esophageal adenocarcinoma** by worsening **GERD** and promoting **Barrett's esophagus** development.
- Since the biopsy findings suggest **squamous cell carcinoma** rather than adenocarcinoma, obesity is not the most direct contributing factor in this case.
*Drinking extremely hot beverages*
- **Hot beverage consumption** is indeed a risk factor for **squamous cell carcinoma** of the esophagus, particularly in certain geographic regions.
- However, **smoking** remains the more prevalent and significant risk factor globally, especially when combined with **alcohol use**, making it the primary contributor.
*Radiation exposure in the past 6 months*
- **Radiation exposure** can increase risk of esophageal cancer, including **squamous cell carcinoma**, but typically requires a **longer latency period** (years to decades).
- A **6-month timeframe** is insufficient for radiation-induced carcinogenesis to manifest as advanced cancer with dysphagia and dysplastic changes.
Question 64: A 56-year-old woman presents to a physician for evaluation of a lump in her left breast. She noticed the lump last week while taking a shower. She says that the lump seemed to be getting larger, which worried her. The lump is not painful. The medical history is unremarkable. She has smoked cigarettes for the last 30 years. On examination, bilateral small nodules are present that are non-tender and immobile. A mammography confirms the masses and fine needle aspiration cytology of the lesions reveals malignant cells arranged in a row of cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Fibroadenoma
B. Mucinous carcinoma
C. Inflammatory carcinoma
D. Invasive lobular carcinoma (Correct Answer)
E. Invasive ductal carcinoma
Explanation: ***Invasive lobular carcinoma***
- The classic presentation of **invasive lobular carcinoma** includes **bilateral, non-tender, immobile masses** and malignant cells arranged in a **single-file pattern** on FNA, often described as "**Indian files**".
- This type of cancer frequently presents with subtle thickening or diffuse induration rather than well-defined masses due to its infiltrative growth pattern.
*Fibroadenoma*
- **Fibroadenomas** are typically **benign, mobile, well-defined** masses, often described as "rubbery" or "slippery," unlike the immobile nodules described.
- While they can be firm, they do not show malignant cells on FNA or the classic "Indian file" arrangement.
*Mucinous carcinoma*
- **Mucinous carcinoma** is characterized by the presence of tumor cells floating in abundant **extracellular mucin**, which would be evident on FNA.
- This typically presents as a **soft, gelatinous mass**, which doesn't align with the description of firm, immobile nodules.
*Inflammatory carcinoma*
- **Inflammatory carcinoma** presents with characteristic inflammatory signs like **redness, warmth, swelling, and peau d'orange** (orange peel skin appearance) due to dermal lymphatic invasion.
- These prominent skin changes are not mentioned in the patient's presentation.
*Invasive ductal carcinoma*
- **Invasive ductal carcinoma** usually presents as a **solitary, firm, irregular mass** and on FNA typically shows malignant cells in **duct-like structures** or disorganized clusters, not characteristically in single-file lines.
- While it is the most common type of breast cancer, the specific "Indian file" arrangement points more strongly to lobular carcinoma.
Question 65: A 60-year-old man presents to his physician as part of his routine annual medical check-up. He has no specific complaints but mentions that he has often experienced fatigue over the past few months. His past medical history is noncontributory. On physical examination, his temperature is 37.2°C (98.8°F), pulse rate is 84/min, blood pressure is 130/86 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 18/min. On general examination, mild pallor is present. Palpation of the abdomen reveals splenomegaly, which extends 6.35 cm (2.5 in) below the left costal margin. There is no hepatomegaly. Laboratory studies show the following values:
Hemoglobin 9.7 g/dL
Total leukocyte count 30,000/mm3
Granulocytes 83%
Lymphocytes 10%
Eosinophils 5%
Basophils 1%
Monocytes 1%
Platelet count 700,000/mm3
The physician orders a bone marrow biopsy analysis of hematopoietic cells. The report shows the presence of a t(9;22)(q34; q11) translocation. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chronic myeloid leukemia (Correct Answer)
B. Transient myeloproliferative disorder
C. Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia
D. Chronic neutrophilic leukemia
E. Myelodysplastic syndrome/myeloproliferative neoplasm, unclassifiable
Explanation: ***Chronic myeloid leukemia***
- The presence of **fatigue**, **splenomegaly**, **leukocytosis with a predominance of granulocytes**, **thrombocytosis**, and specifically the **t(9;22)(q34; q11) translocation (Philadelphia chromosome)** are classic findings for chronic myeloid leukemia (CML).
- The **bcr-abl fusion gene** resulting from the t(9;22) translocation leads to uncontrolled tyrosine kinase activity, driving the myeloproliferation seen in CML.
*Transient myeloproliferative disorder*
- This is a condition seen almost exclusively in **neonates with Down syndrome** and typically resolves spontaneously.
- The patient's age (60 years) and the specific translocation rule out this diagnosis.
*Chronic myelomonocytic leukemia*
- This is characterized by **monocytosis** (absolute monocyte count > 1 x 10^9/L and monocytes > 10% of WBCs) and features of both myelodysplastic and myeloproliferative disorders.
- While there is leukocytosis, monocytes are only 1% of the differential, and the t(9;22) translocation is not characteristic of CMML.
*Chronic neutrophilic leukemia*
- This is a rare myeloproliferative neoplasm characterized by **sustained peripheral blood neutrophilia** and often mutations in the **CSF3R gene**.
- While the patient has neutrophilia, the presence of the t(9;22) translocation is not associated with CNL.
*Myelodysplastic syndrome/myeloproliferative neoplasm, unclassifiable*
- This is a diagnosis of exclusion category used when a patient has features of both MDS and MPN but does not fit into a specific, well-defined entity.
- Given the clear presence of the **Philadelphia chromosome**, the diagnostic criteria for **CML** are met, making a diagnosis of "unclassifiable" inappropriate.
Question 66: A 34-year-old woman visits an outpatient clinic with a complaint of pain in her left breast for the last few months. The pain worsens during her menstrual cycle and relieves once the cycle is over. She denies any nipple discharge, skins changes, warmth, erythema, or a palpable mass in the breast. Her family history is negative for breast, endometrial, and ovarian cancer. There is no palpable mass or any abnormality in the physical examination of her breast. A mammogram is ordered which shows a cluster of microcalcifications with a radiolucent center. A breast biopsy is also performed which reveals a lobulocentric proliferation of epithelium and myoepithelium. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Intraductal papilloma
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Sclerosing adenosis (Correct Answer)
D. Ductal hyperplasia without atypia
E. Infiltrating ductal carcinoma
Explanation: ***Sclerosing adenosis***
- The combination of **cyclical mastalgia**, **microcalcifications with a radiolucent center** on mammography, and a biopsy showing **lobulocentric proliferation of epithelium and myoepithelium** is highly characteristic of sclerosing adenosis.
- Sclerosing adenosis is a **benign proliferative lesion** of the breast that can mimic malignancy clinically and radiologically due to its firm consistency and calcifications.
*Intraductal papilloma*
- This typically presents with **bloody or serous nipple discharge** and is often associated with a mass near the nipple, which are not present in this case.
- Histologically, it involves a papillary growth within a duct, not a lobulocentric proliferation.
*Fibroadenoma*
- This presents as a **well-circumscribed, palpable, mobile mass** that is typically rubbery and not usually associated with cyclical pain as the primary symptom.
- Mammographically, it appears as a well-defined mass, often with coarse calcifications, but the specific **radiolucent center** in clustered microcalcifications is less typical.
*Ductal hyperplasia without atypia*
- While it can manifest as microcalcifications, it typically does not present with significant cyclical pain as the main symptom.
- Histopathologically, it involves an increase in the number of **epithelial cells in the ducts** but without the lobulocentric proliferation of both epithelial and myoepithelial cells seen in sclerosing adenosis.
*Infiltrating ductal carcinoma*
- This is a **malignant condition** that should be considered with new breast pain and microcalcifications, but the absence of a palpable mass, skin changes, nipple discharge, and the specific biopsy findings make it less likely.
- While it can present with microcalcifications, the histological finding of **lobulocentric proliferation of epithelium and myoepithelium** is inconsistent with invasive carcinoma.
Question 67: A 65-year-old man comes to the physician because he is worried about a mole on his right forearm. He has had the mole for several years, but it has grown in size in the past 3 months. Physical examination shows a hyperpigmented plaque with irregular borders and small area of ulceration. Histopathologic analysis of a full-thickness excisional biopsy confirms the diagnosis of malignant melanoma. Invasion of which of the following layers of skin carries the highest risk of mortality for this patient?
A. Reticular dermis
B. Papillary dermis
C. Stratum basale
D. Stratum corneum
E. Hypodermis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hypodermis***
- Invasion into the **hypodermis (subcutaneous tissue)** indicates the deepest penetration of the melanoma, correlated with the **greatest tumor thickness** (Breslow depth).
- Deeper invasion significantly increases the likelihood of **lymphatic and hematogenous spread**, leading to the highest risk of **metastasis** and mortality.
- This represents the **worst prognosis** among the layers listed.
*Stratum corneum*
- The **stratum corneum** is the outermost, dead keratinized layer of the epidermis.
- Melanoma cells limited to this layer would indicate **melanoma in situ** or a very superficial lesion.
- This represents the most superficial involvement, carrying the **lowest risk of mortality** and metastasis.
*Stratum basale*
- The **stratum basale** is the deepest layer of the epidermis at the dermal-epidermal junction.
- Melanoma confined to or near this level represents early invasion just beyond the basement membrane.
- This level of invasion is still relatively superficial and is associated with a **better prognosis** than deeper dermal or subcutaneous invasion.
*Papillary dermis*
- Invasion into the **papillary dermis** signifies invasive melanoma but represents an early stage of dermal invasion.
- The risk of distant metastasis and mortality is present but lower compared to invasion into deeper dermal layers or the hypodermis.
*Reticular dermis*
- Invasion into the **reticular dermis** indicates deeper penetration and a more advanced tumor with greater Breslow depth.
- Metastatic risk is significantly increased compared to papillary dermis invasion but is still lower than invasion into the subcutaneous tissue (hypodermis).
Question 68: An 11-year-old boy who recently emigrated from Nigeria is brought to the physician for evaluation of jaw swelling. He has no history of serious illness and takes no medications. Examination shows a 5-cm solid mass located above the right mandible and significant cervical lymphadenopathy. A biopsy specimen of the mass shows sheets of lymphocytes with interspersed tingible body macrophages. Serology for Epstein-Barr virus is positive. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most likely present in cells obtained from the tissue mass?
A. t(8;14) (Correct Answer)
B. t(12;21)
C. t(11;22)
D. t(15;17)
E. t(11;14)
Explanation: ***t(8;14)***
- The constellation of **jaw swelling** in a child from **Nigeria**, positive **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)** serology, and a biopsy showing a **"starry sky"** pattern (sheets of lymphocytes with interspersed tingible body macrophages) is classic for **endemic Burkitt lymphoma**.
- **Burkitt lymphoma** is characterized by the **t(8;14) translocation**, which results in the constitutive activation of the **c-MYC oncogene** on chromosome 8 due to its proximity to the **immunoglobulin heavy chain locus** on chromosome 14.
*t(12;21)*
- This translocation is typically associated with **B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)**, particularly in children.
- While ALL can present with bone pain or cytopenias, it does not typically manifest as a localized **jaw mass** with a "starry sky" histology.
*t(11;22)*
- This translocation is characteristic of **Ewing sarcoma**, a **bone tumor** that can affect the jaw.
- However, Ewing sarcoma would typically show small, round, blue cells on histology and would not be associated with **EBV infection** or the "starry sky" pattern.
*t(15;17)*
- This translocation is pathognomonic for **acute promyelocytic leukemia (APML)**, a subtype of acute myeloid leukemia.
- APML presents with signs of bone marrow failure and disseminated intravascular coagulation, not with a localized head and neck mass.
*t(11;14)*
- This translocation is primarily associated with **mantle cell lymphoma**, a type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma that typically affects older adults.
- Mantle cell lymphoma would have cyclin D1 overexpression, and usually does not present as a localized jaw mass in children, nor is it strongly linked to EBV in this clinical context.
Question 69: An 11-year-old boy presents to your clinic after 4 months of pain and swelling in his thigh. His mother states that at first she thought his condition was due to roughhousing, but it hasn’t gone away and now she’s concerned. You perform an X-ray that shows an ‘onion skin’ appearance on the diaphysis of the femur. You are concerned about a malignancy, so you perform a PET scan that reveals lung nodules. Which of the following is most associated with this disease?
A. Defective mitochondrial DNA
B. Nonsense mutation to DMD gene
C. t(11;22) translocation (Correct Answer)
D. t(9;22) translocation
E. Rb loss of function mutation
Explanation: ***t(11;22) translocation***
- The clinical presentation, including the age of the patient (11-year-old boy), pain and swelling in the thigh, and the characteristic **"onion skin" appearance** on X-ray, are highly suggestive of **Ewing sarcoma**
- **Ewing sarcoma** is strongly associated with the **t(11;22) chromosomal translocation**, leading to the fusion of the **EWSR1 and FLI1 genes**
- This translocation is found in approximately **85-90% of Ewing sarcoma cases** and is the molecular hallmark of this aggressive pediatric bone malignancy
*Defective mitochondrial DNA*
- This is associated with mitochondrial disorders, which typically present with myopathies, encephalopathies, and other systemic issues, not bone tumors with an "onion skin" appearance
- While sometimes involved in cancer pathogenesis, defective mitochondrial DNA is not the primary genetic hallmark of Ewing sarcoma
*Nonsense mutation to DMD gene*
- A nonsense mutation in the **DMD gene** causes **Duchenne muscular dystrophy**, a genetic disorder characterized by progressive muscle weakness and degeneration
- This condition does not present with bone tumors, thigh pain from malignancy, or an "onion skin" periosteal reaction
*t(9;22) translocation*
- The **t(9;22) translocation**, also known as the **Philadelphia chromosome**, is characteristic of **chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)** and some cases of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)
- This genetic abnormality is associated with hematologic malignancies, not bone sarcomas like Ewing sarcoma
*Rb loss of function mutation*
- A loss-of-function mutation in the **Rb (retinoblastoma) gene** is associated with **retinoblastoma** and an increased risk of other cancers such as osteosarcoma and small cell lung cancer
- While osteosarcoma is a bone tumor, it typically presents with a "sunburst" or Codman's triangle appearance on X-ray, not the "onion skin" appearance seen in Ewing sarcoma
Question 70: A 40-year-old chronic smoker presents to the office complaining of a cough and pleuritic chest pain. He also has had pain in his right shoulder for the past 2 weeks. He denies fever, night sweats, but has noticed a 2.2 kg (5 lb) weight loss in the last month. He has no recent history of travel. Past medical history is unremarkable. On cardiopulmonary examination, bilateral velcro-like crackles are auscultated in the upper to middle lung fields, with normal heart sounds. There is a 3 x 3 cm swelling on the right shoulder with a normal range of motion and intact sensation. 5/5 muscular strength in all extremities is noted. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral nodular opacities in the upper lung lobes and a lytic lesion on the right humeral head. Electron microscopy of the lung biopsy shows the following. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pancoast tumor
B. Pulmonary tuberculosis
C. Small cell carcinoma of the lung
D. Mesothelioma
E. Histiocytosis X (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Histiocytosis X***
- The combination of **bizarre Langerhans cells** on electron microscopy, **bilateral upper lobe nodular opacities**, and lytic bone lesions, particularly in a smoker, is classic for **Histiocytosis X** (Langerhans cell histiocytosis).
- The patient's **cough, pleuritic chest pain, weight loss**, and **shoulder pain with a lytic lesion** are consistent with disseminated disease.
*Pancoast tumor*
- A Pancoast tumor is a type of **lung cancer** that occurs in the apex of the lung and typically presents with **shoulder pain due to brachial plexus invasion**, Horner's syndrome, and bone destruction of ribs or vertebrae.
- However, it does not typically cause **bilateral nodular opacities** throughout the upper lobes or the specific cellular findings on electron microscopy described.
*Pulmonary tuberculosis*
- **Pulmonary tuberculosis** (TB) can cause upper lobe infiltrates and constitutional symptoms like cough, weight loss, and night sweats, but typically presents with **granulomas** and acid-fast bacilli, not Langerhans cells on electron microscopy.
- While TB can cause bone lesions (Pott's disease), the diffuse bilateral nodular pattern and specific cell morphology rule out acute TB.
*Small cell carcinoma of the lung*
- **Small cell carcinoma** is a highly aggressive lung cancer strongly associated with smoking, presenting with cough, weight loss, and paraneoplastic syndromes.
- However, it does not typically manifest with this specific pattern of **bilateral upper lobe nodular opacities** or cause lytic bone lesions with the microscopic findings mentioned.
*Mesothelioma*
- **Mesothelioma** is a malignancy of the pleural lining, primarily linked to **asbestos exposure**, not smoking in this context, and typically presents with unilateral pleural effusion, chest pain, and dyspnea.
- It does not cause bilateral nodular lung opacities or lytic bone lesions with the described cellular pathology.