A 10-year-old boy with trisomy 21 arrives for his annual check-up with his pediatrician. His parents explain that over the past week, he has been increasingly withdrawn and lethargic. On examination, lymph nodes appear enlarged around the left side of his neck; otherwise, there are no remarkable findings. The pediatrician orders some routine blood work.
These are the results of his complete blood count:
WBC 30.4 K/μL
RBC 1.6 M/μL
Hemoglobin 5.1 g/dL
Hematocrit 15%
MCV 71 fL
MCH 19.5 pg
MCHC 28 g/dL
Platelets 270 K/μL
Differential:
Neutrophils 4%
Lymphocytes 94%
Monocytes 2%
Peripheral smear demonstrates evidence of immature cells and the case is referred to hematopathology. On flow cytometry, the cells are found to be CALLA (CD10) negative. Which of the following diseases is most associated with these clinical and cytological findings?
Q42
A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-day history of decreased urine output, progressively worsening bilateral pedal edema, and fatigue. He has a 4-month history of persistent lower back pain. He has hypercholesterolemia and stable angina pectoris. Current medications include atorvastatin, aspirin, and ibuprofen. His pulse is 80/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 150/100 mm Hg. Examination shows periorbital and pedal edema and pallor. There is tenderness of the lumbar spinal vertebrae. Straight leg raise test is negative. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 8.9 g/dl
Serum
Urea nitrogen 20 mg/dl
Creatinine 2.4 mg/dl
Calcium 11.2 mg/dl
Alkaline phosphatase 140 U/L
X-ray of the spine shows diffuse osteopenia and multiple lytic lesions. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Q43
A previously healthy 4-year-old girl is brought to the physician for evaluation of a 3-week history of recurrent vomiting and difficulty walking. Examination shows a broad-based gait and bilateral optic disc swelling. An MRI shows an intracranial tumor. A ventriculoperitoneal shunt is placed, and surgical excision of the tumor is performed. A photomicrograph of a section of the tumor is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q44
A 35-year-old man, with a history of neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2) diagnosed 2 years ago, presents with hearing loss in the right ear and tinnitus. Patient says that symptoms have been gradually progressive. He has difficulty hearing speech as well as loud sounds. He also gives a history of occasional headaches and vertigo on and off for 1 month, which is unresponsive to paracetamol. His vitals include: blood pressure 110/78 mm Hg, temperature 36.5°C (97.8°F), pulse 78/min and respiratory rate 11/min. Tuning fork tests reveal the following:
Left Right
Rinne’s test Air conduction > bone conduction Air conduction > bone conduction
Weber test Lateralized to left ear
Other physical examination findings are within normal limits. An MRI of the head is ordered which is as shown in image 1. A biopsy is done which shows cells staining positive for S100 but negative for glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP). The histopathological slide is shown in image 2. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q45
A 68-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 5-month history of undulating, dull pain in his right thigh. Physical examination shows a tender, round mass located above the right knee on the anterior aspect of the thigh. An x-ray of the right thigh shows sunburst pattern of osteolytic bone lesions in combination with sclerotic bone formation and invasion of the surrounding tissue. Despite limb-sparing attempts, the patient has to undergo amputation of the right leg. A photograph of a cross-section of the affected leg is shown. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
Q46
An investigator studying the molecular characteristics of various malignant cell lines collects tissue samples from several families with a known mutation in the TP53 tumor suppressor gene. Immunohistochemical testing performed on one of the cell samples stains positive for desmin. This sample was most likely obtained from which of the following neoplasms?
Q47
A 74-year-old retired female teacher is referred to the endocrinology clinic. She is very concerned about a large mass in her neck that has progressively enlarged over the past 2 weeks. She also reports a 15 pound weight loss over the last 3 months. She now has hoarseness and difficulty swallowing her food, giving her a sensation that food gets stuck in her windpipe when she swallows. There is no pain associated with swallowing. Her speech is monotonous. No other gait or language articulation problems are noted. Testing for cranial nerve lesions is unremarkable. On palpation, a large, fixed and non-tender mass in the thyroid is noted. Cervical lymph nodes are palpable bilaterally. The patient is urgently scheduled for an ultrasound-guided fine needle aspiration to guide management. Which of the following is the most likely gene mutation to be found in this mass?
Q48
A 59-year-old man comes to the physician because of worsening fatigue and a 1-week history of gingival bleeding. He has also had decreased appetite and a 5-kg (11-lb) weight loss over the past month. He has tried over-the-counter vitamin supplements with no relief of his symptoms. He appears pale. His temperature 37.8° C (100.0°F), pulse is 72/min and blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows numerous petechial lesions over the upper and lower extremities. A bone marrow smear is shown. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
Q49
A 61-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of new-onset episodic abnormal body movements. She says her husband noticed it twice in the past week. There were jerky movements for roughly 15 seconds during her last episode. She denies any recent trauma or fever. Her vital signs include: blood pressure 114/74 mm Hg, pulse 81/min, temperature 36.7°C (98.1°F) and respiratory rate 10/min. On physical examination, there is no evidence of focal neurological deficits. A basic metabolic panel is ordered which shows:
Sodium 141 mEq/L
Potassium 5.1 mEq/L
Chloride 101 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
Albumin 4.3 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 11 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Uric Acid 6.8 mg/dL
Calcium 8.9 mg/dL
Glucose 111 mg/dL
A contrast magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the head is shown in the provided image. Which of the following cells is the origin of the lesion seen in this patient’s MRI?
Q50
A 58-year-old man presents with lower back pain that started a couple of weeks ago and is gradually increasing in severity. At present, he rates the intensity of the pain as 6/10. There is no radiation or associated paresthesias. There is no history of trauma. Past medical history is significant for aggressive squamous cell carcinoma of the right lung status post surgical resection followed by adjunct chemotherapy and radiation therapy that was completed 6 months ago. A technetium bone scan reveals metastatic lesions in the lumbar vertebrae at levels L2–L4. The physician explains to the patient that these are likely metastatic lesions from his primary lung cancer. Which of the following best describes the mechanism that most likely led to the development of these metastatic lesions?
Neoplasia US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 41: A 10-year-old boy with trisomy 21 arrives for his annual check-up with his pediatrician. His parents explain that over the past week, he has been increasingly withdrawn and lethargic. On examination, lymph nodes appear enlarged around the left side of his neck; otherwise, there are no remarkable findings. The pediatrician orders some routine blood work.
These are the results of his complete blood count:
WBC 30.4 K/μL
RBC 1.6 M/μL
Hemoglobin 5.1 g/dL
Hematocrit 15%
MCV 71 fL
MCH 19.5 pg
MCHC 28 g/dL
Platelets 270 K/μL
Differential:
Neutrophils 4%
Lymphocytes 94%
Monocytes 2%
Peripheral smear demonstrates evidence of immature cells and the case is referred to hematopathology. On flow cytometry, the cells are found to be CALLA (CD10) negative. Which of the following diseases is most associated with these clinical and cytological findings?
A. Precursor B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma
B. Hairy cell leukemia
C. Classic Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D. Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
E. Precursor T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Precursor T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma***
- The patient's **trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)** increases the risk for leukemia, and the CBC shows signs of **acute leukemia** (marked leukocytosis with lymphoblastic predominance and severe anemia).
- **Enlarged lymph nodes**, particularly on one side of the neck (unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy), and the **immature cells** on peripheral smear, coupled with **CALLA (CD10) negativity**, strongly indicate a **T-cell lineage** for the ALL.
- **CD10 (CALLA) is characteristically positive in precursor B-cell ALL** but **negative in T-cell ALL**, making this the key diagnostic feature distinguishing between B-ALL and T-ALL in this case.
*Precursor B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia/lymphoma*
- While this is the most common form of childhood ALL and is associated with Down syndrome, this diagnosis is unlikely due to the **CALLA (CD10) negativity**.
- **CD10 is typically positive in precursor B-ALL**, making this immunophenotype inconsistent with B-cell lineage.
- The presentation of **enlarged lymph nodes** is consistent with ALL, but the specific immunophenotype points away from B-cell lineage here.
*Hairy cell leukemia*
- This is a rare, **indolent B-cell leukemia** typically seen in middle-aged to older adults, not a child.
- It is characterized by **pancytopenia** and abnormal "hairy" lymphocytes with cytoplasmic projections, which does not match the acute presentation or the CBC findings showing marked lymphocytosis.
*Classic Hodgkin's lymphoma*
- This lymphoma is characterized by **Reed-Sternberg cells** and typically presents with localized lymphadenopathy, but the CBC findings (marked leukocytosis with 94% immature lymphocytes) are not typical of Hodgkin's lymphoma.
- It is a **lymphoma**, not a leukemia presenting with widespread immature cells in the blood.
*Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma*
- This is an aggressive **B-cell lymphoma**, primarily affecting adults, though it can occur in children.
- It typically presents as a **mass lesion** and while it can have systemic symptoms, the **CBC findings with overwhelming immature cells in the peripheral blood** pointing to a leukemia are not characteristic of DLBCL.
Question 42: A 55-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 3-day history of decreased urine output, progressively worsening bilateral pedal edema, and fatigue. He has a 4-month history of persistent lower back pain. He has hypercholesterolemia and stable angina pectoris. Current medications include atorvastatin, aspirin, and ibuprofen. His pulse is 80/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 150/100 mm Hg. Examination shows periorbital and pedal edema and pallor. There is tenderness of the lumbar spinal vertebrae. Straight leg raise test is negative. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 8.9 g/dl
Serum
Urea nitrogen 20 mg/dl
Creatinine 2.4 mg/dl
Calcium 11.2 mg/dl
Alkaline phosphatase 140 U/L
X-ray of the spine shows diffuse osteopenia and multiple lytic lesions. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Bone marrow biopsy (Correct Answer)
B. Parathyroid hormone levels
C. Congo red stain of renal tissue
D. Peripheral blood smear
E. Skeletal survey
Explanation: ***Bone marrow biopsy***
- This patient presents with signs highly suggestive of **multiple myeloma**, including **anemia**, **renal insufficiency**, **hypercalcemia**, and **lytic bone lesions** and diffuse osteopenia.
- A **bone marrow biopsy** is the most definitive test to confirm multiple myeloma by identifying an increased percentage of **plasma cells** and their clonality.
*Parathyroid hormone levels*
- While **hypercalcemia** is present, increased parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels would indicate **primary hyperparathyroidism**, which typically causes diffuse osteopenia but not multiple lytic lesions in this pattern.
- In multiple myeloma, hypercalcemia results from **bone destruction** by plasma cells, leading to **suppressed PTH levels**.
*Congo red stain of renal tissue*
- A Congo red stain of renal tissue is used to diagnose **amyloidosis**, which can cause renal failure, proteinuria, and sometimes edema.
- Although amyloidosis can be a complication of multiple myeloma, it is not the primary diagnostic test for the underlying myeloma itself, and this patient's presentation with prominent lytic lesions points more directly to myeloma.
*Peripheral blood smear*
- A peripheral blood smear might show **rouleaux formation** (RBCs stacked like coins) and occasionally **plasma cells**, which are suggestive of multiple myeloma.
- However, these findings are not specific or reliably present in all cases, and a bone marrow biopsy is required for definitive diagnosis.
*Skeletal survey*
- A skeletal survey (X-ray series) is crucial for identifying and characterizing the **lytic bone lesions** and diffuse osteopenia, as seen in this patient.
- While it provides strong evidence of bone involvement, it is an imaging study that supports the diagnosis but does not definitively confirm the underlying hematological malignancy like a bone marrow biopsy does.
Question 43: A previously healthy 4-year-old girl is brought to the physician for evaluation of a 3-week history of recurrent vomiting and difficulty walking. Examination shows a broad-based gait and bilateral optic disc swelling. An MRI shows an intracranial tumor. A ventriculoperitoneal shunt is placed, and surgical excision of the tumor is performed. A photomicrograph of a section of the tumor is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Medulloblastoma (Correct Answer)
B. Hemangioblastoma
C. Glioblastoma multiforme
D. Oligodendroglioma
E. Pinealoma
Explanation: ***Medulloblastoma***
- This is the most common **malignant brain tumor** in children, typically arising in the **cerebellum** and presenting with **ataxia** (broad-based gait) and signs of **hydrocephalus** (vomiting, optic disc swelling) due to obstruction of CSF flow.
- Histologically, medulloblastomas are characterized by small, round blue cells with **high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio**, often forming **Homer-Wright rosettes**, indicating their primitive neuroectodermal origin.
*Hemangioblastoma*
- These are typically **benign tumors** of vascular origin, most commonly found in the **cerebellum** of adults and associated with **von Hippel-Lindau disease**.
- Histologically, they consist of foamy stromal cells and a dense capillary network, which is distinct from the provided image.
*Glioblastoma multiforme*
- This is the most common and aggressive primary brain tumor in **adults**, primarily affecting the cerebral hemispheres.
- Histologically, it is characterized by **astrocytic cells** with pleomorphism, high mitotic activity, **necrosis** with pseudopalisading, and vascular proliferation, which is not depicted in the image.
*Oligodendroglioma*
- These are typically found in the **cerebral hemispheres** of adults and are characterized by a **"fried egg"** appearance due to perinuclear halos and a capillary network with a **"chicken wire"** pattern.
- Their incidence in children is much lower, and the presented image is not consistent with this histology.
*Pinealoma*
- Tumors of the **pineal gland** can occur in children but often present with symptoms related to compression of the tectum (**Parinaud syndrome**) or hydrocephalus due to aqueductal compression.
- The most common pineal tumor is a **germinoma**, which has a different histological appearance (large round cells with prominent nucleoli amidst a lymphocytic infiltrate).
Question 44: A 35-year-old man, with a history of neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2) diagnosed 2 years ago, presents with hearing loss in the right ear and tinnitus. Patient says that symptoms have been gradually progressive. He has difficulty hearing speech as well as loud sounds. He also gives a history of occasional headaches and vertigo on and off for 1 month, which is unresponsive to paracetamol. His vitals include: blood pressure 110/78 mm Hg, temperature 36.5°C (97.8°F), pulse 78/min and respiratory rate 11/min. Tuning fork tests reveal the following:
Left Right
Rinne’s test Air conduction > bone conduction Air conduction > bone conduction
Weber test Lateralized to left ear
Other physical examination findings are within normal limits. An MRI of the head is ordered which is as shown in image 1. A biopsy is done which shows cells staining positive for S100 but negative for glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP). The histopathological slide is shown in image 2. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Craniopharyngioma
B. Hemangioblastoma
C. Glioblastoma multiforme
D. Schwannoma (Correct Answer)
E. Meningioma
Explanation: ***Schwannoma***
- The patient's history of **neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2)**, progressive **unilateral hearing loss** and **tinnitus**, occasional **headaches and vertigo**, along with imaging consistent with an **acoustic neuroma** and **S100-positive, GFAP-negative** biopsy results, all strongly point to a schwannoma.
- Schwannomas are the **hallmark tumor of NF2**, typically affecting the **vestibulocochlear nerve (cranial nerve VIII)**, leading to the presented symptoms and characteristic **S100 positivity with GFAP negativity** due to their origin from Schwann cells.
*Craniopharyngioma*
- Craniopharyngiomas are **pituitary region tumors** that typically cause **visual field defects** (bitemporal hemianopsia), **endocrine dysfunction**, and **headaches**.
- They are not associated with **NF2** and their histology would show **adamantinomatous or papillary epithelial cells**, not S100-positive Schwann cells.
*Hemangioblastoma*
- Hemangioblastomas are **highly vascular tumors** often associated with **von Hippel-Lindau disease**, primarily affecting the **cerebellum** and **spinal cord**.
- While they can cause **headaches and vertigo**, they are not typically seen in **NF2** and their histology involves **foamy stromal cells** and dense capillary networks, not the S100-positive, GFAP-negative pattern seen here.
*Glioblastoma multiforme*
- This is a highly aggressive **brain tumor of glial origin** that would stain **strongly positive for GFAP** (glial marker).
- The key distinguishing feature is that glioblastomas are **GFAP positive**, whereas this tumor is **GFAP negative**, ruling out a glial origin.
- Symptoms are usually rapidly progressive and often include **focal neurological deficits**, seizures, and severe headaches, but it is not typically associated with **NF2** or slowly progressive unilateral hearing loss.
*Meningioma*
- Meningiomas arise from the **meninges** and can be associated with **NF2**, but they typically cause symptoms based on their location, such as **seizures** or **focal neurological deficits**.
- Histologically, they show **whorled patterns** and **psammoma bodies**, and would stain positive for **epithelial membrane antigen (EMA)** but **negative for both GFAP and S100**, different from the presented biopsy results.
Question 45: A 68-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 5-month history of undulating, dull pain in his right thigh. Physical examination shows a tender, round mass located above the right knee on the anterior aspect of the thigh. An x-ray of the right thigh shows sunburst pattern of osteolytic bone lesions in combination with sclerotic bone formation and invasion of the surrounding tissue. Despite limb-sparing attempts, the patient has to undergo amputation of the right leg. A photograph of a cross-section of the affected leg is shown. Which of the following is the strongest predisposing factor for this patient's condition?
A. Gardner syndrome
B. Hyperparathyroidism
C. Paget disease of bone (Correct Answer)
D. t(11;22) translocation
E. FGF receptor mutation
Explanation: ***Paget disease of bone***
- The patient's age (68 years old), the description of **undulating, dull pain**, a **tender mass**, and the characteristic **sunburst pattern** on X-ray with both **osteolytic and sclerotic bone lesions** strongly suggest **osteosarcoma**.
- **Paget disease of bone** is a significant predisposing factor for the development of **secondary osteosarcoma**, especially in older adults, accounting for a substantial percentage of osteosarcomas in this age group.
*Gardner syndrome*
- **Gardner syndrome** is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by **familial adenomatous polyposis** in combination with extraintestinal manifestations like **osteomas**, **soft tissue tumors**, and **desmoid tumors**.
- While osteomas are present, they are typically benign and not the aggressive malignant bone lesions described here; it is not a direct predisposition for **osteosarcoma** as described.
*Hyperparathyroidism*
- **Hyperparathyroidism** leads to increased bone resorption and is associated with conditions like **osteitis fibrosa cystica** and **brown tumors**.
- It does not directly cause or predispose to the development of **osteosarcoma** with the described imaging characteristics.
*t(11;22) translocation*
- The **t(11;22) translocation** is a characteristic genetic hallmark of **Ewing sarcoma**, a different type of primary bone tumor.
- **Ewing sarcoma** typically presents in children and young adults, often with an "onion skin" appearance on X-ray, which is distinct from the **sunburst pattern** described for this patient's lesion.
*FGF receptor mutation*
- **FGF receptor mutations**, particularly FGFR3, are associated with several skeletal dysplasias, most notably **achondroplasia**.
- These mutations primarily affect cartilage and bone development, leading to conditions like dwarfism, but they are not a direct predisposing factor for the development of **osteosarcoma**.
Question 46: An investigator studying the molecular characteristics of various malignant cell lines collects tissue samples from several families with a known mutation in the TP53 tumor suppressor gene. Immunohistochemical testing performed on one of the cell samples stains positive for desmin. This sample was most likely obtained from which of the following neoplasms?
A. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Rhabdomyosarcoma (Correct Answer)
C. Prostate cancer
D. Endometrial carcinoma
E. Melanoma
Explanation: ***Rhabdomyosarcoma***
- **Desmin** is an intermediate filament present in **muscle cells**, and its positive staining is a definitive marker for tumors of muscle origin
- A **rhabdomyosarcoma** is a malignant tumor of **skeletal muscle** differentiation, thus explaining the positive desmin staining.
*Squamous cell carcinoma*
- **Squamous cell carcinomas** are epithelial tumors that typically stain positive for **cytokeratin**, not desmin, as they originate from epithelial cells.
- They are characterized by features such as **intercellular bridges** and **keratinization**.
*Prostate cancer*
- **Prostate cancer** is an adenocarcinoma, meaning it's derived from glandular epithelial cells, and would stain positive for markers like **PSA (prostate-specific antigen)**, not desmin.
- This tumor type is characterized by glandular differentiation.
*Endometrial carcinoma*
- **Endometrial carcinomas** are adenocarcinomas of the uterine lining, derived from glandular epithelial cells, and would express **cytokeratins**, not desmin.
- Histologically, they show glandular structures and atypical endometrial cells.
*Melanoma*
- **Melanomas** are malignant tumors of melanocytes and would stain positive for markers such as **S-100**, **HMB-45**, and **Mart-1**, not desmin.
- These tumors originate from neural crest cells and are not muscle-derived.
Question 47: A 74-year-old retired female teacher is referred to the endocrinology clinic. She is very concerned about a large mass in her neck that has progressively enlarged over the past 2 weeks. She also reports a 15 pound weight loss over the last 3 months. She now has hoarseness and difficulty swallowing her food, giving her a sensation that food gets stuck in her windpipe when she swallows. There is no pain associated with swallowing. Her speech is monotonous. No other gait or language articulation problems are noted. Testing for cranial nerve lesions is unremarkable. On palpation, a large, fixed and non-tender mass in the thyroid is noted. Cervical lymph nodes are palpable bilaterally. The patient is urgently scheduled for an ultrasound-guided fine needle aspiration to guide management. Which of the following is the most likely gene mutation to be found in this mass?
A. Activating mutation of the Ras protooncogene
B. Inactivating mutation of the p53 tumor suppressor gene (Correct Answer)
C. RET/PTC rearrangement
D. BRAF mutation
E. RET gene mutation
Explanation: ***Inactivating mutation of the p53 tumor suppressor gene***
- The patient's presentation with a **rapidly enlarging, fixed, non-tender thyroid mass**, *hoarseness*, *dysphagia*, *weight loss*, and *palpable cervical lymph nodes* is highly suggestive of **anaplastic thyroid carcinoma (ATC)**, an aggressive malignancy.
- Inactivating mutations of the **p53 tumor suppressor gene** are frequently associated with the development and progression of ATC, contributing to its uncontrolled growth and poor prognosis.
*Activating mutation of the Ras protooncogene*
- **Ras mutations** are more commonly found in *follicular thyroid carcinoma* and *follicular variants of papillary thyroid carcinoma*.
- While they can indicate malignancy, they are not typically the primary genetic driver for the highly aggressive features seen in anaplastic carcinoma.
*RET/PTC rearrangement*
- **RET/PTC rearrangements** are characteristic genetic alterations found in **papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC)**.
- PTC typically presents with a *slower growth rate* and *less aggressive features* compared to the rapid progression described in the patient.
*BRAF mutation*
- The **BRAF V600E mutation** is the most common genetic alteration in **papillary thyroid carcinoma (PTC)**, especially the conventional and tall-cell variants.
- While it indicates a more aggressive subset of PTC, it is generally not the primary mutation associated with the extremely aggressive and rapidly progressing features of anaplastic thyroid carcinoma.
*RET gene mutation*
- **Germline RET mutations** are primarily associated with **medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC)**, often occurring as part of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2 (MEN2).
- The clinical presentation with a *rapidly growing, fixed mass* and *compressive symptoms* is less typical for MTC, which can also be aggressive but usually presents differently.
Question 48: A 59-year-old man comes to the physician because of worsening fatigue and a 1-week history of gingival bleeding. He has also had decreased appetite and a 5-kg (11-lb) weight loss over the past month. He has tried over-the-counter vitamin supplements with no relief of his symptoms. He appears pale. His temperature 37.8° C (100.0°F), pulse is 72/min and blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. Physical examination shows numerous petechial lesions over the upper and lower extremities. A bone marrow smear is shown. Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
A. Cold agglutinin antibodies
B. Peroxidase-positive granules (Correct Answer)
C. Translocation t(9;22)
D. Positive heterophile antibody test
E. Follicular hyperkeratosis
Explanation: ***Peroxidase-positive granules***
- The patient's symptoms (fatigue, gingival bleeding, petechiae, fever, bone marrow findings of **myeloblasts**) are highly suggestive of **acute myeloid leukemia (AML)**.
- **Myeloblasts** in AML often contain **myeloperoxidase (MPO)**, which is detected by peroxidase staining and seen as **Auer rods** on microscopy.
*Cold agglutinin antibodies*
- These antibodies are associated with **cold agglutinin disease**, a type of **autoimmune hemolytic anemia**, or infections like Mycoplasma pneumoniae or infectious mononucleosis.
- While fatigue can be present, the prominent gingival bleeding and petechiae followed by the bone marrow findings are not characteristic.
*Translocation t(9;22)*
- This chromosomal translocation, generating the **BCR-ABL fusion gene**, is characteristic of **chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)**.
- CML typically presents with **splenomegaly**, high white blood cell count with mature granulocytes, and is less likely to cause acute petechiae and gingival bleeding unless in blast crisis.
*Positive heterophile antibody test*
- This test is primarily used to diagnose **infectious mononucleosis**, caused by the **Epstein-Barr virus**.
- While fatigue and mild fever can occur, the characteristic features of leukemia like gingival bleeding, petechiae, and abnormal bone marrow are not present.
*Follicular hyperkeratosis*
- This is a dermatological finding, often associated with vitamin deficiencies such as **vitamin A deficiency**.
- Although the patient's symptoms include bleeding, the overall clinical picture including the bone marrow findings points more strongly towards a hematologic malignancy.
Question 49: A 61-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of new-onset episodic abnormal body movements. She says her husband noticed it twice in the past week. There were jerky movements for roughly 15 seconds during her last episode. She denies any recent trauma or fever. Her vital signs include: blood pressure 114/74 mm Hg, pulse 81/min, temperature 36.7°C (98.1°F) and respiratory rate 10/min. On physical examination, there is no evidence of focal neurological deficits. A basic metabolic panel is ordered which shows:
Sodium 141 mEq/L
Potassium 5.1 mEq/L
Chloride 101 mEq/L
Bicarbonate 24 mEq/L
Albumin 4.3 mg/dL
Urea nitrogen 11 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Uric Acid 6.8 mg/dL
Calcium 8.9 mg/dL
Glucose 111 mg/dL
A contrast magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the head is shown in the provided image. Which of the following cells is the origin of the lesion seen in this patient’s MRI?
A. Oligodendroglia
B. Meningothelial cells
C. Neurons
D. Astrocytes (Correct Answer)
E. Ependymal cells
Explanation: ***Astrocytes***
- The MRI findings, in conjunction with new-onset seizures in an elderly patient, are highly suggestive of a **glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)**. GBMs are aggressive primary brain tumors that originate from **astrocytes**.
- GBMs are characterized by features such as **ring enhancement** on contrast MRI, surrounding edema, and a tendency to occur in the cerebral hemispheres.
*Oligodendroglia*
- Tumors arising from oligodendroglia are **oligodendrogliomas**, which typically present with **calcifications** and are generally less aggressive than GBMs.
- While they can cause seizures, the aggressive, ring-enhancing nature seen in GBM makes this option less likely.
*Meningothelial cells*
- Tumors from meningothelial cells are **meningiomas**, usually appearing as **extra-axial masses** attached to the dura, often with a "dural tail" sign.
- Meningiomas are typically slow-growing and benign, with different imaging characteristics than the lesion described.
*Neurons*
- Tumors of neuronal origin, such as **gangliogliomas** or **dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumors (DNETs)**, are relatively rare and often present in younger patients or with specific epilepsy syndromes.
- Their imaging characteristics and typical age of onset do not align with the presentation of an aggressive new-onset lesion in a 61-year-old.
*Ependymal cells*
- Tumors originating from ependymal cells are **ependymomas**, which typically arise in the **ventricles** or spinal canal.
- The lesion described is in the cerebral hemisphere, making an ependymoma an unlikely origin.
Question 50: A 58-year-old man presents with lower back pain that started a couple of weeks ago and is gradually increasing in severity. At present, he rates the intensity of the pain as 6/10. There is no radiation or associated paresthesias. There is no history of trauma. Past medical history is significant for aggressive squamous cell carcinoma of the right lung status post surgical resection followed by adjunct chemotherapy and radiation therapy that was completed 6 months ago. A technetium bone scan reveals metastatic lesions in the lumbar vertebrae at levels L2–L4. The physician explains to the patient that these are likely metastatic lesions from his primary lung cancer. Which of the following best describes the mechanism that most likely led to the development of these metastatic lesions?
A. Transcoelomic
B. Lymphatic spread
C. Collagenase produced by cancer cells dissolves the basement membrane and aids in cellular invasion
D. Hematogenous spread (Correct Answer)
E. PTH (parathormone)-related protein production by tumor cells
Explanation: ***Hematogenous spread***
- Lung cancer frequently metastasizes to bone via the **hematogenous (bloodstream) route**, especially to the spine, pelvis, and long bones.
- The rich vascular supply of the vertebrae makes them a common site for metastases from many primary cancers, including those of the lung.
*Transcoelomic*
- **Transcoelomic spread** occurs when tumor cells spread directly within body cavities, such as the peritoneal or pleural cavity.
- This mechanism is typical for cancers of organs within these cavities, like ovarian cancer spreading within the peritoneum, and is not the primary route for lung cancer to distant bone.
*Lymphatic spread*
- **Lymphatic spread** involves tumor cells traveling through the lymphatic system to regional lymph nodes.
- While lung cancer commonly spreads to mediastinal and hilar lymph nodes, it is usually not the direct mechanism for distant bone metastases, which typically involve the circulatory system.
*Collagenase produced by cancer cells dissolves the basement membrane and aids in cellular invasion*
- While **collagenase production** and **basement membrane degradation** are crucial steps in local tumor invasion and intravasation (entering blood or lymphatic vessels), they describe the *how* a cell invades, not the *route* of distant metastasis.
- This mechanism facilitates the initial escape of cancer cells from the primary tumor but does not define the subsequent spread to distant sites like bone.
*PTH (parathormone)-related protein production by tumor cells*
- **PTH-related protein (PTHrP) production** by tumor cells can lead to **hypercalcemia of malignancy** due to its osteolytic effects.
- While this is a common paraneoplastic syndrome associated with squamous cell carcinoma of the lung, it is a *consequence* or *effect* of the tumor and does not describe the *mechanism of metastasis* itself.