A 45-year old man comes to the physician because of a painless neck lump and a 2-month history of difficulty swallowing. He has a history of recurrent nephrolithiasis and episodic hypertension. Physical examination shows a 3 × 3-cm, nontender nodule at the level of the thyroid cartilage. A photomicrograph of a section of tissue obtained by core needle biopsy of the nodule is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q272
A newborn of a mother with poor antenatal care is found to have a larger than normal head circumference with bulging fontanelles. Physical examination reveals a predominant downward gaze with marked eyelid retraction and convergence-retraction nystagmus. Ultrasound examination showed dilated lateral ventricles and a dilated third ventricle. Further imaging studies reveal a solid mass in the pineal region. Which of the following is the most likely underlying pathophysiological mechanism responsible for the neurological signs in this patient?
Q273
A 65-year-old man presents with painless swelling of the neck over the past week. He also has noted severe night sweats, which require a change of clothes and bed linens the next day. His medical history is significant for long-standing hypertension. He received a kidney transplant 6 years ago. His current medications include amlodipine, metoprolol, furosemide, aspirin, tacrolimus, and mycophenolate. His family history is significant for his sister, who died last year from lymphoma. A review of systems is positive for a 6-kg (13.2-lb) unintentional weight loss over the past 2 months. His vital signs include: temperature 37.8°C (100.0°F) and blood pressure 120/75 mm Hg. On physical examination, there are multiple painless lymph nodes, averaging 2 cm in diameter, palpable in the anterior and posterior triangles of the neck bilaterally. Axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy is palpated on the right side. Abdominal examination is significant for a spleen of 16 cm below the costal margin on percussion. Laboratory studies are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 9 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 88 μm3
Leukocyte count 12,000/mm3
Platelet count 130,000/mm3
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 1,000 U/L
A peripheral blood smear is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q274
A 61-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a routine check-up. Physical examination demonstrates asymmetric peripheral neuropathy in her feet. The patient has no previous relevant history and denies any symptoms of diabetes. Routine blood work shows normal results, and she is referred to a hematologist. Subsequent serum protein electrophoresis demonstrates a slightly elevated gamma globulin level, and monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance is diagnosed. Which of the following diseases is most likely to develop over the course of this patient’s condition?
Q275
A 40-year-old female comes in with several months of unintentional weight loss, epigastric pain, and a sensation of abdominal pressure. She has diabetes well-controlled on metformin but no other prior medical history. She has not previously had any surgeries. On physical exam, her doctor notices brown velvety areas of pigmentation on her neck. Her doctor also notices an enlarged, left supraclavicular node. Endoscopic findings show a stomach wall that appears to be grossly thickened. Which of the following findings would most likely be seen on biopsy?
Q276
A 67-year-old woman presents to a surgeon with a painless, slowly growing ulcer in the periauricular region for the last 2 months. On physical examination, there is an irregular-shaped ulcer, 2 cm x 1 cm in its dimensions, with irregular margins and crusting over the surface. The woman is a fair-skinned individual who loves to go sunbathing. There is no family history of malignancy. After a complete physical examination, the surgeon performs a biopsy of the lesion under local anesthesia and sends the tissue for histopathological examination. The pathologist confirms the diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin. When she asks about the cause, the surgeon explains that there are many possible causes, but it is likely that she has developed squamous cell carcinoma on her face due to repeated exposure to ultraviolet rays from the sun, especially ultraviolet B (UVB) rays. If the surgeon’s opinion is correct, which of the following mechanisms is most likely involved in the pathogenesis of the condition?
Q277
A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fever and easy bruising for 3 days. He has had fatigue for 2 weeks. He has no past medical history, and takes no medications. Excessive bleeding from intravenous lines was reported by the nurse. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. The temperature is 38.2°C (102.6°F), pulse is 105/min, respiration rate is 18/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. On physical examination, he has multiple purpura on the lower extremities and several ecchymoses on the lower back and buttocks. Petechiae are noticed on the soft palate. Cervical painless lymphadenopathy is detected on both sides. The examination of the lungs, heart, and abdomen shows no other abnormalities. The laboratory test results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 8 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 90 μm3
Leukocyte count 18,000/mm3
Platelet count 10,000/mm3
Partial thromboplastin time (activated) 60 seconds
Prothrombin time 25 seconds (INR: 2.2)
Fibrin split products Positive
Lactate dehydrogenase, serum 1,000 U/L
A Giemsa-stained peripheral blood smear is shown by the image. Intravenous fluids, blood products, and antibiotics are given to the patient. Based on the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best therapy for this patient at this time?
Q278
A 30-year-old man comes to the physician for his annual health maintenance examination. The patient has no particular health concerns. He has a history of bilateral cryptorchidism treated with orchidopexy at 8 months of age. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following?
Q279
A 35-year-old man presents with a mass on the central part of his neck. He reports it has been growing steadily for the past 2 weeks, and he has also been experiencing fatigue and recurrent fevers. No significant past medical history. The patient denies any smoking history, or alcohol or recreational drug use. He denies any recent travel in the previous 6 months. On physical examination, there are multiple enlarged submandibular and cervical lymph nodes that are firm, mobile, and non-tender. A biopsy of one of the lymph nodes is performed and shows predominantly lymphocytes and histiocytes present in a pattern ‘resembling popcorn’. A flow cytometry analysis demonstrates cells that are CD19 and CD20 positive and CD15 and CD30 negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q280
A 62-year-old woman presents to her physician with a painless breast mass on her left breast for the past 4 months. She mentions that she noticed the swelling suddenly one day and thought it would resolve by itself. Instead, it has been slowly increasing in size. On physical examination of the breasts, the physician notes a single non-tender, hard, and fixed nodule over left breast. An ultrasonogram of the breast shows a solid mass, and a fine-needle aspiration biopsy confirms the mass to be lobular carcinoma of the breast. When the patient asks about her prognosis, the physician says that the prognosis can be best determined after both grading and staging of the tumor. Based on the current diagnostic information, the physician says that they can only grade, but no stage, the neoplasm. Which of the following facts about the neoplasm is currently available to the physician?
Neoplasia US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 271: A 45-year old man comes to the physician because of a painless neck lump and a 2-month history of difficulty swallowing. He has a history of recurrent nephrolithiasis and episodic hypertension. Physical examination shows a 3 × 3-cm, nontender nodule at the level of the thyroid cartilage. A photomicrograph of a section of tissue obtained by core needle biopsy of the nodule is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Anaplastic carcinoma
B. Medullary carcinoma (Correct Answer)
C. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
D. Follicular carcinoma
E. Papillary carcinoma
Explanation: ***Medullary carcinoma***
- The patient's history of **recurrent nephrolithiasis** and **episodic hypertension** suggests **MEN 2A syndrome**, which is strongly associated with **medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC)**.
- MTC arises from **parafollicular C-cells** and often presents as a **painless neck mass** and can cause **dysphagia** if large.
- Histologically, MTC shows **nests and sheets of polygonal cells** with **amyloid deposition** in the stroma (Congo red positive), and cells may stain positive for **calcitonin** and **chromogranin**.
*Anaplastic carcinoma*
- This is a highly aggressive and undifferentiated thyroid cancer typically affecting **elderly patients**, presenting as a rapidly enlarging, painful neck mass.
- It does not usually have associations with **MEN syndromes** or a history of recurrent nephrolithiasis and hypertension.
*Non-Hodgkin lymphoma*
- Thyroid lymphoma typically presents as a **rapidly enlarging goiter** in elderly women, often with a history of **Hashimoto's thyroiditis**.
- It would not explain the associated symptoms of nephrolithiasis and hypertension, which point to an endocrine syndrome.
*Follicular carcinoma*
- Follicular carcinoma is characterized by **capsular and vascular invasion** and is typically seen as a solitary, firm nodule, but it is not associated with the paraneoplastic syndromes or the specific constellation of symptoms seen here.
- It does not present with features suggesting **MEN 2A syndrome**.
*Papillary carcinoma*
- Papillary carcinoma is the **most common thyroid cancer**, often presenting as a painless nodule and characterized by specific nuclear features like **"Orphan Annie eye" nuclei** and **psammoma bodies**.
- It is generally not associated with MEN syndromes or the specific clinical features of nephrolithiasis and hypertension.
Question 272: A newborn of a mother with poor antenatal care is found to have a larger than normal head circumference with bulging fontanelles. Physical examination reveals a predominant downward gaze with marked eyelid retraction and convergence-retraction nystagmus. Ultrasound examination showed dilated lateral ventricles and a dilated third ventricle. Further imaging studies reveal a solid mass in the pineal region. Which of the following is the most likely underlying pathophysiological mechanism responsible for the neurological signs in this patient?
A. Stenotic intraventricular foramina
B. Dilated cisterna magna
C. Hypertrophic arachnoid granulations
D. Normal lumbar puncture opening pressure
E. Compression of periaqueductal grey matter (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Compression of periaqueductal grey matter***
- The constellation of a **large head circumference**, **bulging fontanelles**, **dilated lateral and third ventricles**, and a **pineal region mass** indicates **obstructive hydrocephalus**.
- The **downward gaze** (sunsetting sign), **marked eyelid retraction**, and **convergence-retraction nystagmus** are classic signs of **Parinaud's syndrome**, which results from compression of the **dorsal midbrain** (periaqueductal gray matter and superior colliculi) due to **hydrocephalus** or a **pineal tumor**.
*Stenotic intraventricular foramina*
- While **stenotic intraventricular foramina** (of Monro) can lead to **hydrocephalus** by obstructing CSF flow from the lateral to the third ventricle, the imaging specifically mentions a **dilated third ventricle**.
- This suggests the obstruction is *distal* to the third ventricle, likely at the aqueduct of Sylvius, rather than the foramina of Monro.
*Dilated cisterna magna*
- A **dilated cisterna magna** is a characteristic finding in conditions like the **Dandy-Walker malformation** or benign enlargement of the subarachnoid spaces.
- This finding would not directly explain the obstructive hydrocephalus with dilated lateral and third ventricles, nor the specific signs of Parinaud's syndrome.
*Hypertrophic arachnoid granulations*
- **Arachnoid granulations** are responsible for **CSF reabsorption** into the venous system. Hypertrophic arachnoid granulations would theoretically increase CSF reabsorption, leading to **decreased intracranial pressure**, rather than hydrocephalus.
- They do not cause compressive syndromes associated with a pineal mass and obstructive hydrocephalus.
*Normal lumbar puncture opening pressure*
- A **normal lumbar puncture opening pressure** in the presence of **bulging fontanelles** and **dilated ventricles** is diagnostically contradictory for hydrocephalus.
- Obstructive hydrocephalus, as described, would typically lead to **elevated intracranial pressure** and thus an **elevated opening pressure**.
Question 273: A 65-year-old man presents with painless swelling of the neck over the past week. He also has noted severe night sweats, which require a change of clothes and bed linens the next day. His medical history is significant for long-standing hypertension. He received a kidney transplant 6 years ago. His current medications include amlodipine, metoprolol, furosemide, aspirin, tacrolimus, and mycophenolate. His family history is significant for his sister, who died last year from lymphoma. A review of systems is positive for a 6-kg (13.2-lb) unintentional weight loss over the past 2 months. His vital signs include: temperature 37.8°C (100.0°F) and blood pressure 120/75 mm Hg. On physical examination, there are multiple painless lymph nodes, averaging 2 cm in diameter, palpable in the anterior and posterior triangles of the neck bilaterally. Axillary and inguinal lymphadenopathy is palpated on the right side. Abdominal examination is significant for a spleen of 16 cm below the costal margin on percussion. Laboratory studies are significant for the following:
Hemoglobin 9 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 88 μm3
Leukocyte count 12,000/mm3
Platelet count 130,000/mm3
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 1,000 U/L
A peripheral blood smear is unremarkable. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Multiple myeloma
B. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL) (Correct Answer)
C. Drug-induced lymphadenopathy
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)
E. Cytomegalovirus infection
Explanation: ***Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL)***
- This patient presents with **B symptoms** (**unintentional weight loss**, **night sweats**, fever), diffuse **lymphadenopathy**, and **splenomegaly**, which are classic signs of lymphoma. Elevated **LDH** and a history of kidney transplant requiring immunosuppression (tacrolimus, mycophenolate) significantly increase the risk of **post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder (PTLD)**, a type of NHL.
- The **anemia**, **thrombocytopenia**, and **leukocytosis** (with an otherwise unremarkable peripheral smear) are consistent with bone marrow involvement or chronic disease in lymphoma.
*Multiple myeloma*
- Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell dyscrasia characterized by **bone pain**, **renal failure**, **hypercalcemia**, and **anemia**. While anemia and potential renal impairment are present, the widespread lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly are not typical features.
- The elevated LDH and presence of B symptoms are more indicative of lymphoma than multiple myeloma.
*Drug-induced lymphadenopathy*
- While some medications can cause lymphadenopathy, it is typically less severe, often without systemic B symptoms, and usually resolves upon discontinuation of the causative drug.
- The combination of severe B symptoms, impressive splenomegaly, and significantly elevated LDH points to a more aggressive underlying malignancy rather than a drug reaction.
*Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)*
- CLL is characterized by a persistent **lymphocytosis** (often >5,000 mature lymphocytes/µL) on peripheral smear, which is not described here ("unremarkable").
- While CLL can cause lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly, the rapid onset of severe B symptoms and the extremely high LDH are more suggestive of an aggressive lymphoma rather than indolent CLL.
*Cytomegalovirus infection*
- CMV infection can cause lymphadenopathy, fever, and fatigue, particularly in immunocompromised patients. However, the degree of **weight loss**, **splenomegaly**, and elevated **LDH** seen here are uncharacteristic of CMV infection and point towards a more serious underlying malignancy.
- CMV typically presents with a more acute, mononucleosis-like illness and often lymphocytosis with atypical lymphocytes on peripheral smear.
Question 274: A 61-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a routine check-up. Physical examination demonstrates asymmetric peripheral neuropathy in her feet. The patient has no previous relevant history and denies any symptoms of diabetes. Routine blood work shows normal results, and she is referred to a hematologist. Subsequent serum protein electrophoresis demonstrates a slightly elevated gamma globulin level, and monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance is diagnosed. Which of the following diseases is most likely to develop over the course of this patient’s condition?
A. Acute myelocytic leukemia
B. Chronic myelocytic leukemia
C. Multiple myeloma (Correct Answer)
D. Waldenström macroglobulinemia
E. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
Explanation: ***Multiple myeloma***
- This patient has **monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)**, confirmed by the asymmetric peripheral neuropathy, elevated gamma globulin, and monoclonal gammopathy. MGUS has a 1% annual risk of progressing to **multiple myeloma**.
- **Peripheral neuropathy** is a common initial presentation of MGUS, and its progression to multiple myeloma involves the proliferation of **plasma cells** in the bone marrow, leading to end-organ damage.
*Acute myelocytic leukemia*
- This is a **myeloid malignancy** characterized by rapid proliferation of abnormal myeloid blasts in the bone marrow, not typically preceded by MGUS or presenting with peripheral neuropathy.
- It usually presents with symptoms like **fatigue**, **bleeding**, and **infections**, unrelated to the monoclonal gammopathy.
*Chronic myelocytic leukemia*
- This is a **myeloproliferative disorder** associated with the **Philadelphia chromosome (BCR-ABL1 fusion gene)**, which is distinct from conditions involving plasma cell dyscrasias like MGUS.
- It classically presents with **splenomegaly** and a high white blood cell count with a myeloid shift.
*Waldenström macroglobulinemia*
- This is a **lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma** involving IgM monoclonal gammopathy, which can cause neuropathy similar to MGUS. However, MGUS with IgG or IgA is more common and has a higher progression risk to multiple myeloma than to Waldenström macroglobulinemia.
- While it involves **monoclonal gammopathy**, the clinical picture of MGUS with its specific progression risk profile is more indicative of eventual multiple myeloma.
*Chronic lymphocytic leukemia*
- This is a **lymphoid malignancy** characterized by the accumulation of mature but functionally incompetent lymphocytes, particularly B-cells.
- It is not typically preceded by MGUS and usually presents with **lymphadenopathy**, **splenomegaly**, and **lymphocytosis**.
Question 275: A 40-year-old female comes in with several months of unintentional weight loss, epigastric pain, and a sensation of abdominal pressure. She has diabetes well-controlled on metformin but no other prior medical history. She has not previously had any surgeries. On physical exam, her doctor notices brown velvety areas of pigmentation on her neck. Her doctor also notices an enlarged, left supraclavicular node. Endoscopic findings show a stomach wall that appears to be grossly thickened. Which of the following findings would most likely be seen on biopsy?
A. Keratin pearls
B. Noncaseating granulomas
C. Peyer's patches
D. Psammoma bodies
E. Cells with central mucin pool (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cells with central mucin pool***
- The patient's symptoms (unintentional weight loss, epigastric pain, abdominal pressure, **acanthosis nigricans**, and a **Virchow node**) are highly suggestive of **gastric adenocarcinoma**, particularly the **diffuse type**.
- **Signet ring cells**, characterized by a **large central mucin vacuole** that displaces the nucleus to the periphery, are pathognomonic for **diffuse gastric adenocarcinoma**.
*Keratin pearls*
- **Keratin pearls** are a hallmark feature of **squamous cell carcinoma**, which is a type of cancer arising from squamous epithelial cells.
- While squamous cell carcinoma can occur in the esophagus, it is an extremely rare finding in the stomach, which is lined by glandular epithelium.
*Noncaseating granulomas*
- **Noncaseating granulomas** are characteristic of conditions like **Crohn's disease** or **sarcoidosis**.
- These conditions do not typically present with the described aggressive features of gastric malignancy or the presence of acanthosis nigricans and a Virchow node.
*Peyer's patches*
- **Peyer's patches** are normal lymphoid structures found in the **ileum** of the small intestine, playing a role in immune surveillance.
- Their presence in a biopsy would indicate normal small intestinal tissue, not a malignant gastric lesion.
*Psammoma bodies*
- **Psammoma bodies** are concentric, laminated calcified structures typically seen in certain types of **cancers with serous or papillary differentiation**, such as **papillary thyroid carcinoma**, **meningioma**, and **serous ovarian carcinoma**.
- They are not a characteristic finding in gastric adenocarcinoma.
Question 276: A 67-year-old woman presents to a surgeon with a painless, slowly growing ulcer in the periauricular region for the last 2 months. On physical examination, there is an irregular-shaped ulcer, 2 cm x 1 cm in its dimensions, with irregular margins and crusting over the surface. The woman is a fair-skinned individual who loves to go sunbathing. There is no family history of malignancy. After a complete physical examination, the surgeon performs a biopsy of the lesion under local anesthesia and sends the tissue for histopathological examination. The pathologist confirms the diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma of the skin. When she asks about the cause, the surgeon explains that there are many possible causes, but it is likely that she has developed squamous cell carcinoma on her face due to repeated exposure to ultraviolet rays from the sun, especially ultraviolet B (UVB) rays. If the surgeon’s opinion is correct, which of the following mechanisms is most likely involved in the pathogenesis of the condition?
A. Upregulation of expression of cyclin D2
B. Loss-of-function mutations of TP53
C. Activation of transcription factor NF-κB
D. Intrastrand cross-linking of thymidine residues in DNA (Correct Answer)
E. DNA damage caused by the formation of reactive oxygen species
Explanation: ***Intrastrand cross-linking of thymidine residues in DNA***
- **UVB radiation** primarily causes direct DNA damage, leading to the formation of **pyrimidine dimers**, particularly cyclobutane pyrimidine dimers (CPDs) and pyrimidine-pyrimidone (6-4) photoproducts.
- This **intrastrand cross-linking** between adjacent thymidine or cytosine bases on the same DNA strand disrupts the DNA structure and interferes with DNA replication and transcription, promoting mutations that can initiate carcinogenesis.
*Upregulation of expression of cyclin D2*
- While **cyclin D2** is involved in cell cycle progression, its upregulation is a downstream effect of various oncogenic pathways and not the *direct mechanism* of DNA damage by UVB.
- **UVB's primary action** is DNA damage, which then secondarily drives cellular responses potentially including altered cell cycle protein expression.
*Loss-of-function mutations of TP53*
- **TP53 mutations** are very common in skin cancers, especially squamous cell carcinoma, and greatly contribute to carcinogenesis by abolishing tumor suppressor functions.
- However, the *primary mechanism* by which **UVB** causes these mutations is through direct DNA damage, specifically the induction of pyrimidine dimers that are then misrepaired, leading to TP53 mutations as a *consequence* rather than the initial mechanism.
*Activation of transcription factor NF-κB*
- **NF-κB activation** is involved in inflammatory responses and cell survival pathways, which can contribute to tumor progression.
- While UVB can activate NF-κB, this is a **downstream signaling event** in response to cellular stress and damage, not the primary mechanism of **UVB-induced DNA damage**.
*DNA damage caused by the formation of reactive oxygen species*
- **Reactive oxygen species (ROS)** are a major cause of DNA damage, often associated with **UVA radiation** and oxidative stress.
- However, **UVB radiation** primarily causes *direct DNA damage* through the formation of pyrimidine dimers, rather than indirectly through ROS generation as its main carcinogenic effect.
Question 277: A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with fever and easy bruising for 3 days. He has had fatigue for 2 weeks. He has no past medical history, and takes no medications. Excessive bleeding from intravenous lines was reported by the nurse. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. The temperature is 38.2°C (102.6°F), pulse is 105/min, respiration rate is 18/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. On physical examination, he has multiple purpura on the lower extremities and several ecchymoses on the lower back and buttocks. Petechiae are noticed on the soft palate. Cervical painless lymphadenopathy is detected on both sides. The examination of the lungs, heart, and abdomen shows no other abnormalities. The laboratory test results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 8 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 90 μm3
Leukocyte count 18,000/mm3
Platelet count 10,000/mm3
Partial thromboplastin time (activated) 60 seconds
Prothrombin time 25 seconds (INR: 2.2)
Fibrin split products Positive
Lactate dehydrogenase, serum 1,000 U/L
A Giemsa-stained peripheral blood smear is shown by the image. Intravenous fluids, blood products, and antibiotics are given to the patient. Based on the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the best therapy for this patient at this time?
A. All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) (Correct Answer)
B. Adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine (ABVD)
C. Rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone (R-CHOP)
D. Hematopoietic cell transplantation
E. Cytarabine plus daunorubicin
Explanation: ***All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA)***
- This patient's presentation with **fever, easy bruising, bleeding from IV lines, pancytopenia (anemia, thrombocytopenia), elevated LDH, prolonged PTT and PT, positive fibrin split products**, and a peripheral smear showing **abnormal promyelocytes** (likely with Auer rods, typical in the image description) is highly suggestive of **Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (APL)**.
- **APL** is a medical emergency due to its strong association with **disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)**, which is directly addressed by **ATRA**. ATRA rapidly induces differentiation of promyelocytes, resolving the underlying coagulopathy.
*Adriamycin, bleomycin, vinblastine, and dacarbazine (ABVD)*
- **ABVD** is the standard chemotherapy regimen for **Hodgkin lymphoma**.
- This patient's presentation with acute symptoms, pancytopenia, and coagulopathy is inconsistent with Hodgkin lymphoma.
*Rituximab, cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone (R-CHOP)*
- **R-CHOP** is a common chemotherapy regimen used for **non-Hodgkin lymphomas**, particularly diffuse large B-cell lymphoma.
- While lymphoma can cause B symptoms (fever, fatigue) and lymphadenopathy, it does not typically present with the rapid onset of significant pancytopenia and severe DIC seen in this patient.
*Hematopoietic cell transplantation*
- **Hematopoietic cell transplantation** is a treatment option for various hematologic malignancies, often after initial induction chemotherapy or in cases of relapse.
- It is not typically the first-line therapy for acute leukemias, especially given the immediate need to manage life-threatening DIC in APL.
*Cytarabine plus daunorubicin*
- **Cytarabine and daunorubicin** (often referred to as "7+3" regimen) is the standard induction chemotherapy for many types of **acute myeloid leukemia (AML)**.
- While APL is a subtype of AML, the specific chromosomal translocation (t(15;17)) differentiates it and makes it uniquely responsive to ATRA, which is preferred initially to mitigate the severe coagulopathy before or alongside cytotoxic chemotherapy.
Question 278: A 30-year-old man comes to the physician for his annual health maintenance examination. The patient has no particular health concerns. He has a history of bilateral cryptorchidism treated with orchidopexy at 8 months of age. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following?
A. Yolk sac tumor
B. Leydig cell tumor
C. Testicular lymphoma
D. Sertoli cell tumor
E. Teratocarcinoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Teratocarcinoma***
- Cryptorchidism is a known risk factor for the development of **testicular germ cell tumors**, which includes **teratocarcinoma**. Orchidopexy may make screening easier but does not eliminate the increased risk.
- Testicular germ cell tumors, such as teratocarcinoma, typically present in young men and can derive from **undifferentiated germ cells** that remain in the undescended testis.
*Yolk sac tumor*
- While a type of **germ cell tumor**, yolk sac tumors are more common in infants and young children, and less frequently the primary presentation in an adult with a history of treated cryptorchidism.
- In adults, yolk sac components can be part of a mixed germ cell tumor but are rarely the sole diagnosis in this age group in the context of cryptorchidism risk.
*Leydig cell tumor*
- Leydig cell tumors are **sex cord-stromal tumors**, not germ cell tumors, and are not significantly associated with a history of cryptorchidism.
- These tumors typically present with symptoms related to **hormone production**, such as gynecomastia or precocious puberty.
*Testicular lymphoma*
- Testicular lymphoma is the most common testicular tumor in men over **60 years old** and is not primarily linked to a history of cryptorchidism.
- This is a **hematopoietic neoplasm** that can originate in the testis or metastasize there, rather than a primary testicular tumor associated with developmental abnormalities.
*Sertoli cell tumor*
- Sertoli cell tumors are also **sex cord-stromal tumors** and are not strongly associated with cryptorchidism.
- They are generally rare and can sometimes produce hormones, leading to clinical manifestations like **gynecomastia**.
Question 279: A 35-year-old man presents with a mass on the central part of his neck. He reports it has been growing steadily for the past 2 weeks, and he has also been experiencing fatigue and recurrent fevers. No significant past medical history. The patient denies any smoking history, or alcohol or recreational drug use. He denies any recent travel in the previous 6 months. On physical examination, there are multiple enlarged submandibular and cervical lymph nodes that are firm, mobile, and non-tender. A biopsy of one of the lymph nodes is performed and shows predominantly lymphocytes and histiocytes present in a pattern ‘resembling popcorn’. A flow cytometry analysis demonstrates cells that are CD19 and CD20 positive and CD15 and CD30 negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Nodular sclerosis classical Hodgkin lymphoma
B. Nodular lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (Correct Answer)
C. Lymphocyte depleted Hodgkin lymphoma
D. Mixed cellularity classical Hodgkin lymphoma
E. Lymphocyte rich classical Hodgkin lymphoma
Explanation: ***Nodular lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma***
- The key features are **lymphohistiocytic (L&H) cells**, also known as **popcorn cells**, which are large, multilobed Hodgkin-Reed-Sternberg (HRS) cell variants.
- Immunophenotypically, these cells are typically **CD19+, CD20+, CD45+, and CD30-, CD15-**, consistent with the flow cytometry findings.
*Nodular sclerosis classical Hodgkin lymphoma*
- Characterized by **lacunar cells** (a variant of HRS cells) and broad bands of **collagen fibrosis**, which are not described.
- HRS cells in classical Hodgkin lymphoma (cHL) are typically **CD15+ and CD30+**, and usually **CD20-**, which contradicts the flow cytometry results.
*Lymphocyte depleted Hodgkin lymphoma*
- This is a rare form of cHL with **few lymphocytes** and abundant atypical HRS cells, often seen in older, immunosuppressed patients.
- The flow cytometry profile (CD15+, CD30+) and the histological description of "popcorn cells" do not fit this subtype.
*Mixed cellularity classical Hodgkin lymphoma*
- This subtype of cHL features a heterogeneous cellular infiltrate and classic **HRS cells (CD15+, CD30+)**, which differ from the described immunophenotype.
- It lacks the "popcorn cell" morphology and the nodal sclerosis seen in other cHL subtypes.
*Lymphocyte rich classical Hodgkin lymphoma*
- While it has abundant lymphocytes, the characteristic cells are still **classic HRS cells (CD15+, CD30+)**, not the popcorn cells described.
- The immunophenotype **CD20+ and CD15-, CD30-** is inconsistent with any form of classical Hodgkin lymphoma.
Question 280: A 62-year-old woman presents to her physician with a painless breast mass on her left breast for the past 4 months. She mentions that she noticed the swelling suddenly one day and thought it would resolve by itself. Instead, it has been slowly increasing in size. On physical examination of the breasts, the physician notes a single non-tender, hard, and fixed nodule over left breast. An ultrasonogram of the breast shows a solid mass, and a fine-needle aspiration biopsy confirms the mass to be lobular carcinoma of the breast. When the patient asks about her prognosis, the physician says that the prognosis can be best determined after both grading and staging of the tumor. Based on the current diagnostic information, the physician says that they can only grade, but no stage, the neoplasm. Which of the following facts about the neoplasm is currently available to the physician?
A. The tumor invades the pectoralis major.
B. The tumor has spread via blood-borne metastasis.
C. The tumor has not metastasized to the contralateral superior mediastinal lymph nodes.
D. The tumor has metastasized to the axillary lymph nodes.
E. The tumor cells exhibit marked nuclear atypia. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***The tumor cells exhibit marked nuclear atypia.***
- **Grading** assesses the **histological appearance** of cancer cells and tissues, including features like nuclear atypia, mitotic rate, and architectural features, which are directly observable from the **fine-needle aspiration biopsy**.
- **Nuclear atypia** refers to abnormal changes in the size, shape, and chromatin pattern of cell nuclei, indicating a higher degree of anaplasia and aggressiveness.
*The tumor invades the pectoralis major.*
- **Invasion into surrounding tissues**, especially muscle, is a feature determined during **surgical staging** or comprehensive imaging, which is not described as being performed yet.
- This information relates to the **"T" (tumor size/extension)** component of TNM staging, which cannot be fully assessed with only a biopsy.
*The tumor has spread via blood-borne metastasis.*
- **Distant metastasis** is part of the **"M" (metastasis)** component of TNM staging, requiring imaging studies (e.g., PET scan, CT scan) or biopsies of suspected metastatic sites.
- The current diagnostic information (biopsy of the primary tumor) does not provide details about **blood-borne spread**.
*The tumor has not metastasized to the contralateral superior mediastinal lymph nodes.*
- Information about **lymph node involvement**, even in distant locations like the mediastinum, falls under the **"N" (nodes)** component of TNM staging, which requires thorough imaging or surgical dissection.
- The current biopsy focuses on the primary breast mass and cannot rule out distant lymph node metastasis.
*The tumor has metastasized to the axillary lymph nodes.*
- **Axillary lymph node metastasis** is also part of the **"N" component** of staging and is typically determined by sentinel lymph node biopsy or axillary dissection performed during surgery, or through imaging.
- A fine-needle aspiration of the primary breast mass does not provide information about regional lymph node involvement.