A 41-year-old man with HIV comes to the physician because of rectal bleeding and itching for 2 weeks. During this period, he has also had pain with defecation. Four months ago, he was diagnosed with anogenital warts that were treated with cryotherapy. Over the past year, he has been sexually active with 3 male partners. He uses condoms inconsistently. Current medications are zidovudine, emtricitabine, and efavirenz. Digital rectal examination and anoscopy show an exophytic mass on the anal margin that is protruding into the anal canal. The mass is tender to palpation and bleeds easily on contact. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 7,600/mm3 and a CD4+ T-lymphocyte count of 410/mm3 (N ≥ 500). A biopsy specimen of the lesion shows a well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following cellular processes was most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's malignancy?
Q252
A 5-year-old male is brought to his pediatrician after recurrent, prolonged upper respiratory infections over a period of several months. Physical exam reveals petechiae on the patient's legs and arms. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin: 10 g/dL, platelet count: 35,000/mm^3, leukocyte count: 6,600/mm^3. A bone marrow aspiration shows an abundance of lymphoblasts indicative of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Positive immunostaining for which of the following would support a diagnosis of precursor B-cell leukemia?
Q253
A 65-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of a neck mass and weight loss. He first noticed the growing mass 2 months ago. The mass is not painful. He also has decreased appetite and intermittent abdominal pain. He has lost 10 kg (22 lb) of weight over the past 3 months. Sometimes, he wakes up in the morning drenched in sweat. He takes daily over-the-counter multivitamins. He appears pale. His pulse is 65/min, blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F). Physical exam shows a painless, golf ball-sized mass in the anterior triangle of the neck. A biopsy shows large cells with a bilobed nucleus that are CD15-positive and CD30-positive. Laboratory analysis of serum shows a calcium level of 14.5 mg/dL and a parathyroid hormone level of 40 pg/mL. Which of the following is the most likely explanation of this patient's laboratory findings?
Q254
A 7-year-old boy presents to the ER with progressive dysphagia over the course of 3 months and a new onset fever for the past 24 hours. The temperature in the ER was 39.5°C (103.1°F). There are white exudates present on enlarged tonsils (Grade 2). Routine blood work reveals a WBC count of 89,000/mm3, with the automatic differential yielding a high (> 90%) percentage of lymphocytes. A peripheral blood smear is ordered, demonstrating the findings in the accompanying image. The peripheral smear is submitted to pathology for review. After initial assessment, the following results are found on cytologic assessment of the cells:
TdT: positive
CALLA (CD 10): positive
Which of the following cell markers are most likely to be positive as well?
Q255
A 69-year-old Caucasian man presents for a routine health maintenance examination. He feels well. He has no significant past medical history. He takes aspirin for the occasional headaches that he has had for over several years. He exercises every day and does not smoke. His father was diagnosed with a hematologic malignancy at 79 years old. The patient’s vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. The laboratory test results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 14.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 62,000/mm3
Platelet count 350,000/mm3
A peripheral blood smear is obtained (shown on the image). Which of the following best explains these findings?
Q256
A 6-year-old boy is brought in by his mother to his pediatrician for headache and nausea. His headaches began approximately 3 weeks ago and occur in the morning. Throughout the 3 weeks, his nausea has progressively worsened, and he had 2 episodes of emesis 1 day ago. On physical exam, cranial nerves are grossly intact, and his visual field is intact. The patient has a broad-based gait and difficulty with heel-to-toe walking, as well as head titubation. Fundoscopy demonstrates papilledema. A T1 and T2 MRI of the brain is demonstrated in Figures A and B, respectively. Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?
Q257
A 55-year-old male presents with complaints of intermittent facial flushing. He also reports feeling itchy after showering. On review of systems, the patient says he has been having new onset headaches recently. On physical exam, his vital signs, including O2 saturation, are normal. He has an abnormal abdominal mass palpable in the left upper quadrant. A complete blood count reveals: WBCs 6500/microliter; Hgb 18.2 g/dL; Platelets 385,000/microliter. Which of the following is most likely responsible for his presentation?
Q258
A 53-year-old man is being evaluated for a 3-week history of fatigue, difficulty to concentrate, dyspnea with exertion, dizziness, and digital pain that improves with cold. He has smoked half a pack of cigarettes a day since he was 20. His current medical history involves hypertension. He takes enalapril daily. The vital signs include a blood pressure of 131/82 mm Hg, a heart rate of 95/min, and a temperature of 36.9°C (98.4°F). On physical examination, splenomegaly is found. A complete blood count reveals thrombocytosis of 700,000 cells/μL. Lab work further shows decreased serum iron, iron saturation, and serum ferritin and increased total iron binding capacity. A blood smear reveals an increased number of abnormal platelets, and a bone marrow aspirate confirmed the presence of dysplastic megakaryocytes. A mutation on his chromosome 9 confirms the physician's suspicion of a certain clonal myeloproliferative disease. The patient is started on hydroxyurea. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Q259
A 43-year-old woman presents to your clinic for the evaluation of an abnormal skin lesion on her forearm. The patient is worried because her mother passed away from melanoma. You believe that the lesion warrants biopsy for further evaluation for possible melanoma. Your patient is concerned about her risk for malignant disease. What is the most important prognostic factor of melanoma?
Q260
An investigator studying targeted therapy in patients with gastrointestinal stromal tumors requires a reliable test to determine the spatial distribution of CD117-positive cells in biopsy specimens. Which of the following is the most appropriate test?
Neoplasia US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 251: A 41-year-old man with HIV comes to the physician because of rectal bleeding and itching for 2 weeks. During this period, he has also had pain with defecation. Four months ago, he was diagnosed with anogenital warts that were treated with cryotherapy. Over the past year, he has been sexually active with 3 male partners. He uses condoms inconsistently. Current medications are zidovudine, emtricitabine, and efavirenz. Digital rectal examination and anoscopy show an exophytic mass on the anal margin that is protruding into the anal canal. The mass is tender to palpation and bleeds easily on contact. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 7,600/mm3 and a CD4+ T-lymphocyte count of 410/mm3 (N ≥ 500). A biopsy specimen of the lesion shows a well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the following cellular processes was most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's malignancy?
A. Activation of c-myc gene
B. Inactivation of TP53 gene (Correct Answer)
C. Activation of TAX gene
D. Inactivation of VHL gene
E. Inactivation of WT1 gene
Explanation: ***Inactivation of TP53 gene***
- This patient's **squamous cell carcinoma** (SCC) of the anus is strongly associated with **human papillomavirus (HPV) infection**, which is common in HIV-positive sexually active men. HPV oncoproteins, particularly E6, promote the degradation of the **TP53 tumor suppressor protein**.
- Inactivating mutations or degradation of **TP53** remove a critical checkpoint in the cell cycle, allowing cells with DNA damage to proliferate uncontrollably and contributing to carcinogenesis.
*Activation of c-myc gene*
- The **c-myc proto-oncogene** is involved in cell proliferation, differentiation, and apoptosis, and its activation is commonly seen in lymphomas (e.g., Burkitt lymphoma) and other cancers.
- While *c-myc* activation can contribute to various malignancies, it is not the **primary molecular mechanism** linked to HPV-associated anal squamous cell carcinoma.
*Activation of TAX gene*
- The **TAX gene** is a transforming gene of **human T-cell lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1)**, responsible for T-cell leukemia/lymphoma.
- This patient's presentation with anal squamous cell carcinoma, rather than a hematologic malignancy, makes HTLV-1 and TAX gene activation an unlikely cause.
*Inactivation of VHL gene*
- The **VHL (Von Hippel-Lindau) gene** is a tumor suppressor gene whose inactivation is strongly associated with **renal cell carcinoma** (clear cell type) and other tumors like pheochromocytoma and hemangioblastoma.
- Inactivation of **VHL** is not a primary mechanism in the development of anal squamous cell carcinoma.
*Inactivation of WT1 gene*
- The **WT1 (Wilms tumor 1) gene** is a tumor suppressor gene primarily associated with **Wilms tumor**, a kidney cancer that typically affects children.
- Inactivation of **WT1** is not a known pathogenic mechanism for anal squamous cell carcinoma in adults.
Question 252: A 5-year-old male is brought to his pediatrician after recurrent, prolonged upper respiratory infections over a period of several months. Physical exam reveals petechiae on the patient's legs and arms. Laboratory studies show hemoglobin: 10 g/dL, platelet count: 35,000/mm^3, leukocyte count: 6,600/mm^3. A bone marrow aspiration shows an abundance of lymphoblasts indicative of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL). Positive immunostaining for which of the following would support a diagnosis of precursor B-cell leukemia?
A. CD2, CD8
B. TdT, HER-2
C. CD4, CD5
D. CD19, CD10 (Correct Answer)
E. CD30, CD15
Explanation: ***CD19, CD10***
- **CD19** is a pan B-cell marker, expressed on almost all B-lymphocytes from early pre-B-cells through mature B-cells. Its presence, along with **CD10**, is highly characteristic of **precursor B-cell ALL (B-ALL)**.
- **CD10**, also known as common acute lymphoblastic leukemia antigen (CALLA), is typically expressed on **early B-cell progenitors** and is a reliable marker for differentiating B-ALL from other leukemias.
*CD2, CD8*
- **CD2** and **CD8** are markers primarily associated with **T-lymphocytes**. While CD2 is a pan T-cell marker, CD8 identifies cytotoxic T cells.
- Their positivity would suggest a **T-cell ALL (T-ALL)**, not the precursor B-cell type indicated by the clinical scenario.
*TdT, HER-2*
- **Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)** is an enzyme found in immature lymphocytes (both B and T cells) and is positive in most ALL cases, but it is not specific for B-cell lineage.
- **HER-2** is an oncogene and a growth factor receptor overexpressed in certain solid tumors (especially breast cancer) but is not a marker used for leukemia classification.
*CD4, CD5*
- **CD4** is a marker for helper T cells, while **CD5** is expressed on a subset of T cells and some B-cell malignancies (e.g., chronic lymphocytic leukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma).
- These markers are primarily associated with **T-cell lineages** and would not support a diagnosis of precursor B-cell leukemia in this context.
*CD30, CD15*
- **CD30** and **CD15** are classical markers for **Hodgkin lymphoma** (specifically the classical type).
- Their presence would point towards a lymphoproliferative disorder different from acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
Question 253: A 65-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of a neck mass and weight loss. He first noticed the growing mass 2 months ago. The mass is not painful. He also has decreased appetite and intermittent abdominal pain. He has lost 10 kg (22 lb) of weight over the past 3 months. Sometimes, he wakes up in the morning drenched in sweat. He takes daily over-the-counter multivitamins. He appears pale. His pulse is 65/min, blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F). Physical exam shows a painless, golf ball-sized mass in the anterior triangle of the neck. A biopsy shows large cells with a bilobed nucleus that are CD15-positive and CD30-positive. Laboratory analysis of serum shows a calcium level of 14.5 mg/dL and a parathyroid hormone level of 40 pg/mL. Which of the following is the most likely explanation of this patient's laboratory findings?
A. Ectopic vitamin D production
B. Osteolytic metastasis
C. Ectopic PTH-related protein production (Correct Answer)
D. Multivitamin overdose
E. Osteoblastic metastasis
Explanation: ***Ectopic PTH-related protein production***
- The patient's symptoms (neck mass, weight loss, night sweats, fever) and biopsy findings (CD15+ and CD30+ large cells with bilobed nucleus) are highly suggestive of **Hodgkin lymphoma** with classic Reed-Sternberg cells.
- **Hypercalcemia (14.5 mg/dL)** with **inappropriately normal PTH (40 pg/mL)** in the context of malignancy points to **humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (HHM)**, mediated by **PTH-related protein (PTHrP)** produced ectopically by tumor cells.
- PTH should be suppressed (<20 pg/mL) in the setting of hypercalcemia, so a level of 40 pg/mL indicates autonomous calcium elevation from a non-PTH source.
*Ectopic vitamin D production*
- While some lymphomas can produce **1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D** (through activated macrophages), leading to hypercalcemia, this would also cause **suppressed PTH**.
- This mechanism occurs in Hodgkin lymphoma but is less common than PTHrP-mediated hypercalcemia in most cases of malignancy-associated hypercalcemia.
*Osteolytic metastasis*
- **Osteolytic metastases** (e.g., from multiple myeloma or breast cancer) can cause hypercalcemia by directly destroying bone and releasing calcium.
- The biopsy is consistent with Hodgkin lymphoma, not a solid tumor that typically produces purely lytic bone metastases.
- While Hodgkin lymphoma can involve bone, systemic hypercalcemia due to direct bone destruction is less common than HHM through PTHrP.
*Multivitamin overdose*
- Overdosing on multivitamins could potentially lead to **vitamin D toxicity** and hypercalcemia if the supplements contained extremely high doses of vitamin D.
- However, the patient's symptoms, neck mass, fever, and biopsy findings clearly indicate a malignancy (Hodgkin lymphoma), making multivitamin overdose an unlikely cause of his profound hypercalcemia.
*Osteoblastic metastasis*
- **Osteoblastic metastases** (e.g., from prostate cancer) stimulate new bone formation and typically cause **elevated alkaline phosphatase** with normal or slightly elevated calcium, not profound hypercalcemia.
- Furthermore, the biopsy findings (Reed-Sternberg cells) are not consistent with a tumor type that causes osteoblastic metastases.
Question 254: A 7-year-old boy presents to the ER with progressive dysphagia over the course of 3 months and a new onset fever for the past 24 hours. The temperature in the ER was 39.5°C (103.1°F). There are white exudates present on enlarged tonsils (Grade 2). Routine blood work reveals a WBC count of 89,000/mm3, with the automatic differential yielding a high (> 90%) percentage of lymphocytes. A peripheral blood smear is ordered, demonstrating the findings in the accompanying image. The peripheral smear is submitted to pathology for review. After initial assessment, the following results are found on cytologic assessment of the cells:
TdT: positive
CALLA (CD 10): positive
Which of the following cell markers are most likely to be positive as well?
A. CD 2
B. CD 19 (Correct Answer)
C. CD 7
D. CD 8
E. CD 5
Explanation: ***CD 19***
- The presence of **TdT** and **CD10 (CALLA)** in a 7-year-old boy with a high WBC count dominated by lymphocytes strongly indicates **B-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (B-ALL)**.
- **CD19** is a pan-B-cell marker, universally expressed on B-lymphocytes from their earliest stages of development, making its positivity highly consistent with B-ALL.
*CD 2*
- **CD2** is a surface glycoprotein commonly found on **T-cells** and **NK cells**, not typically on precursors of normal or leukemic B-cells.
- Its presence would suggest a T-cell lineage rather than the B-cell lineage indicated by CD10 and TdT in this context.
*CD 7*
- **CD7** is an early marker for **T-lymphoid precursors** and **NK cells**, and is consistently expressed in T-cell acute lymphoblastic leukemia (T-ALL).
- It is not associated with B-cell lineage development or B-ALL.
*CD 8*
- **CD8** is a co-receptor for the T-cell receptor (TCR) and is found on **cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs)**, a mature T-cell subset.
- Its presence would indicate a mature T-cell lineage, which is inconsistent with ALL and the other described markers.
*CD 5*
- **CD5** is a transmembrane glycoprotein found on **mature T-cells** and a subset of **B-cells**, particularly associated with chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) or mantle cell lymphoma.
- It is not a characteristic marker for B-ALL and its expression would not be expected in this context.
Question 255: A 69-year-old Caucasian man presents for a routine health maintenance examination. He feels well. He has no significant past medical history. He takes aspirin for the occasional headaches that he has had for over several years. He exercises every day and does not smoke. His father was diagnosed with a hematologic malignancy at 79 years old. The patient’s vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. The laboratory test results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 14.5 g/dL
Leukocyte count 62,000/mm3
Platelet count 350,000/mm3
A peripheral blood smear is obtained (shown on the image). Which of the following best explains these findings?
A. Acute lymphoid leukemia
B. Hairy cell leukemia
C. Adult T cell leukemia
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (Correct Answer)
E. Acute myeloid leukemia
Explanation: ***Chronic lymphocytic leukemia***
- The image displays characteristic **smudge cells** (also known as **basket cells**) and mature-looking lymphocytes with scant cytoplasm and condensed chromatin, which are hallmarks of CLL.
- The patient's age (69 years), elevated leukocyte count (62,000/mm³), and the presence of these particular cells on peripheral smear in an otherwise asymptomatic individual are all highly suggestive of CLL.
*Acute lymphoid leukemia*
- This condition is characterized by a proliferation of **blasts** (immature lymphocytes) in the bone marrow and peripheral blood, which are not depicted in the provided image.
- While it can present with a high leukocyte count, the cellular morphology would show a predominance of immature cells rather than the mature-appearing lymphocytes and smudge cells seen here.
*Hairy cell leukemia*
- This leukemia is characterized by lymphocytes with **fine cytoplasmic projections** (hairy cells) and typically leads to **pancytopenia**, particularly leukopenia, rather than the marked leukocytosis seen in this patient.
- The morphology in the image does not show these cytoplasmic projections.
*Adult T cell leukemia*
- This form of leukemia is caused by the **human T-lymphotropic virus type 1 (HTLV-1)** and is more prevalent in specific endemic regions (e.g., Japan, Caribbean).
- It usually presents with **atypical pleomorphic T-cells** with convoluted nuclei, often accompanied by skin lesions, hypercalcemia, and lymphadenopathy, none of which are mentioned or depicted.
*Acute myeloid leukemia*
- AML is characterized by an overgrowth of **myeloblasts** (immature myeloid cells) in the bone marrow and peripheral blood, often containing **Auer rods**.
- The cells in the image are clearly lymphoid in origin and do not show features of myeloblasts or Auer rods.
Question 256: A 6-year-old boy is brought in by his mother to his pediatrician for headache and nausea. His headaches began approximately 3 weeks ago and occur in the morning. Throughout the 3 weeks, his nausea has progressively worsened, and he had 2 episodes of emesis 1 day ago. On physical exam, cranial nerves are grossly intact, and his visual field is intact. The patient has a broad-based gait and difficulty with heel-to-toe walking, as well as head titubation. Fundoscopy demonstrates papilledema. A T1 and T2 MRI of the brain is demonstrated in Figures A and B, respectively. Which of the following is most likely the diagnosis?
A. Craniopharyngioma
B. Ependymoma
C. Pilocytic astrocytoma
D. Pinealoma
E. Medulloblastoma (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Medulloblastoma***
- The patient's symptoms, including **morning headaches**, **nausea/emesis**, **ataxia** (**broad-based gait**, **difficulty with heel-to-toe walking**, **head titubation**), and **papilledema**, are classic signs of increased **intracranial pressure** and **posterior fossa tumor** in a child. The MRI findings (Figures A and B showing a **large, well-circumscribed mass originating from the vermis of the cerebellum** that is **hypointense on T1-weighted images and hyperintense on T2-weighted images with diffusion restriction** and **heterogeneous enhancement** post-contrast) are highly consistent with medulloblastoma.
- Medulloblastoma is the **most common malignant brain tumor in children**, typically arising in the **cerebellum**, especially the **vermis**, and is known for its tendency to **disseminate via CSF pathways**.
*Craniopharyngioma*
- This tumor typically arises from **Rathke's pouch remnants** near the **sella turcica** and often presents with **endocrine dysfunction** (e.g., growth failure, diabetes insipidus) and **visual field defects** (e.g., bitemporal hemianopsia), none of which are described.
- While it can cause hydrocephalus and increased intracranial pressure due to its location, its characteristic MR appearance is often **cystic with calcifications** and it does not typically arise in the cerebellum.
*Ependymoma*
- Ependymomas commonly arise from the **ependymal lining of the ventricles**, most often the **fourth ventricle** in children, and can cause hydrocephalus.
- While it can present with similar symptoms due to increased ICP, the MRI appearance of the tumor in the vermis suggests a different etiology, and ependymomas characteristically show **heterogeneous signal intensity with calcifications** and sometimes "plasticity" in imaging, molding to the ventricular contours.
*Pilocytic astrocytoma*
- This is a common **benign brain tumor in children**, often occurring in the **cerebellum**. It typically presents as a **cystic lesion with a mural nodule** on imaging, which is not the primary finding described in this MRI.
- While it can cause symptoms of increased ICP and ataxia, the described mass on MRI (large, solid, heterogeneously enhancing with diffusion restriction) is less typical for a pilocytic astrocytoma.
*Pinealoma*
- **Pinealomas** arise from the pineal gland and often present with **Parinaud syndrome** (upward gaze palsy, pupillary disturbances) due to compression of the superior colliculi, and hydrocephalus due to aqueductal compression.
- The location of the tumor in the **cerebellar vermis** and the absence of specific pineal region mass effects make pinealoma an unlikely diagnosis.
Question 257: A 55-year-old male presents with complaints of intermittent facial flushing. He also reports feeling itchy after showering. On review of systems, the patient says he has been having new onset headaches recently. On physical exam, his vital signs, including O2 saturation, are normal. He has an abnormal abdominal mass palpable in the left upper quadrant. A complete blood count reveals: WBCs 6500/microliter; Hgb 18.2 g/dL; Platelets 385,000/microliter. Which of the following is most likely responsible for his presentation?
A. BCR-ABL fusion
B. Chronic hypoxemia
C. Tyrosine kinase mutation (Correct Answer)
D. Fibrosis of bone marrow
E. Elevated serum erythropoietin levels
Explanation: ***Tyrosine kinase mutation***
- The patient's symptoms (facial flushing, post-showering pruritus, headaches) along with **elevated hemoglobin** (18.2 g/dL) and **splenomegaly** (abdominal mass in LUQ) strongly suggest **Polycythemia Vera (PV)**.
- PV is a **myeloproliferative neoplasm** typically caused by a **JAK2 V617F mutation**, which is a type of **tyrosine kinase mutation**, leading to constitutive activation of the JAK-STAT pathway and uncontrolled erythropoiesis.
*BCR-ABL fusion*
- A **BCR-ABL fusion gene** is characteristic of **Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)**, which typically presents with markedly elevated WBCs and splenomegaly.
- While splenomegaly is present here, the patient's symptoms and hematologic findings (elevated Hgb, normal WBCs) are not consistent with CML.
*Chronic hypoxemia*
- **Chronic hypoxemia** can cause **secondary erythrocytosis** due to increased erythropoietin production in response to low oxygen levels.
- However, the patient's **O2 saturation is normal**, ruling out chronic hypoxemia as the cause of his elevated hemoglobin.
*Fibrosis of bone marrow*
- **Bone marrow fibrosis** is a hallmark of **Primary Myelofibrosis**, another myeloproliferative neoplasm, which typically presents with anemia, marked splenomegaly, and teardrop cells on peripheral smear.
- While it can manifest with constitutional symptoms, the patient's **high hemoglobin** and absent anemia make primary myelofibrosis less likely.
*Elevated serum erythropoietin levels*
- **Elevated serum erythropoietin (EPO) levels** are characteristic of **secondary erythrocytosis**, where EPO production increases due to conditions like hypoxemia, renal tumors, or exogenous EPO use.
- In **Polycythemia Vera**, EPO levels are typically **low or undetectable** due to feedback inhibition from the high red blood cell mass.
Question 258: A 53-year-old man is being evaluated for a 3-week history of fatigue, difficulty to concentrate, dyspnea with exertion, dizziness, and digital pain that improves with cold. He has smoked half a pack of cigarettes a day since he was 20. His current medical history involves hypertension. He takes enalapril daily. The vital signs include a blood pressure of 131/82 mm Hg, a heart rate of 95/min, and a temperature of 36.9°C (98.4°F). On physical examination, splenomegaly is found. A complete blood count reveals thrombocytosis of 700,000 cells/μL. Lab work further shows decreased serum iron, iron saturation, and serum ferritin and increased total iron binding capacity. A blood smear reveals an increased number of abnormal platelets, and a bone marrow aspirate confirmed the presence of dysplastic megakaryocytes. A mutation on his chromosome 9 confirms the physician's suspicion of a certain clonal myeloproliferative disease. The patient is started on hydroxyurea. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Aplastic anemia
B. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
C. Polycythemia vera
D. Essential thrombocythemia (Correct Answer)
E. Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia
Explanation: ***Essential thrombocythemia***
- The patient presents with **thrombocytosis** (>450,000 cells/uL), **splenomegaly**, and **dysplastic megakaryocytes** in the bone marrow, which are characteristic findings.
- The presence of a **mutation on chromosome 9** (specifically, a **JAK2 V617F mutation**, although not explicitly named, is typical for this description) further supports the diagnosis, leading to increased platelet production.
*Aplastic anemia*
- Characterized by **pancytopenia** (low levels of all blood cell types), not thrombocytosis or splenomegaly.
- Bone marrow would show **hypocellularity** and fat replacement, not dysplastic megakaryocytes.
*Chronic myelogenous leukemia*
- While it can present with splenomegaly and high white blood cell counts, the hallmark is the **BCR-ABL1 fusion gene (Philadelphia chromosome)**, and typically presents with a very high white blood cell count, not primarily thrombocytosis of this magnitude as the presenting feature.
- The mutation on chromosome 9 mentioned (likely JAK2) is associated with other myeloproliferative neoplasms, not CML.
*Polycythemia vera*
- Primarily defined by **elevated red blood cell mass** (high hematocrit) in addition to potential thrombocytosis and leukocytosis.
- Although it shares the **JAK2 V617F mutation** and splenomegaly, the patient's symptoms (fatigue, dyspnea, dizziness) are attributed to the thrombocytosis, and there is no mention of erythrocytosis.
*Myelofibrosis with myeloid metaplasia*
- Characterized by **bone marrow fibrosis**, **extramedullary hematopoiesis** (leading to significant splenomegaly), and typically a **leukoerythroblastic blood smear** with teardrop cells.
- While thrombocytosis can occur early, the dominant feature is marrow fibrosis and progressive cytopenias.
Question 259: A 43-year-old woman presents to your clinic for the evaluation of an abnormal skin lesion on her forearm. The patient is worried because her mother passed away from melanoma. You believe that the lesion warrants biopsy for further evaluation for possible melanoma. Your patient is concerned about her risk for malignant disease. What is the most important prognostic factor of melanoma?
A. Depth of invasion of atypical cells (Correct Answer)
B. S-100 tumor marker present
C. Evolution of lesion over time
D. Age at presentation
E. Level of irregularity of the borders
Explanation: ***Depth of invasion of atypical cells***
- The **Breslow depth**, which measures the vertical thickness of the melanoma from the granular layer of the epidermis to the deepest part of the tumor, is the **single most important prognostic factor** for localized melanoma.
- A greater depth of invasion correlates directly with a higher risk of **metastasis** and a poorer prognosis due to increased likelihood of reaching dermal lymphatics or blood vessels.
*S-100 tumor marker present*
- While **S-100 protein** is a marker expressed in melanoma cells and can be used to detect metastatic disease (e.g., in lymph nodes), its mere presence does not serve as the primary prognostic indicator for the primary lesion itself.
- S-100 reflects the presence of melanoma cells but does not provide information about the **depth or biological aggressiveness** of the initial tumor.
*Evolution of lesion over time*
- The **evolution or change** in a lesion (e.g., in size, shape, color, new symptoms) is a crucial diagnostic criterion for identifying suspicious lesions for biopsy.
- While important for diagnosis, it is not a direct prognostic factor once melanoma is confirmed; the **pathological features** after biopsy, particularly depth, determine prognosis.
*Age at presentation*
- **Age** can influence treatment decisions and overall health status, but it is not the most important independent prognostic factor for melanoma.
- Prognosis is primarily driven by tumor-specific characteristics rather than the patient's age.
*Level of irregularity of the borders*
- **Border irregularity** is one of the ABCDE criteria (Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color variation, Diameter >6mm, Evolving) used to identify suspicious pigmented lesions.
- It is a diagnostic indicator that warrants further investigation but does not independently determine **prognosis** as definitively as the Breslow depth after biopsy.
Question 260: An investigator studying targeted therapy in patients with gastrointestinal stromal tumors requires a reliable test to determine the spatial distribution of CD117-positive cells in biopsy specimens. Which of the following is the most appropriate test?
A. Northern blot
B. Immunohistochemistry (Correct Answer)
C. Flow cytometry
D. Fluorescence in-situ hybridization
E. Western blot
Explanation: ***Immunohistochemistry***
- **Immunohistochemistry (IHC)** uses **antibodies** to target specific antigens (like **CD117**) within tissue sections, allowing for **visualization of their spatial distribution** under a microscope.
- This technique is ideal for identifying the precise location and quantity of **CD117-positive cells** within a biopsy, which is crucial for assessing targeted therapy in gastrointestinal stromal tumors.
*Northern blot*
- **Northern blot** is used to detect and quantify specific **RNA** sequences in a sample.
- It does not provide information about **protein expression** or the **spatial distribution of cells** within tissue.
*Flow cytometry*
- **Flow cytometry** is used for analyzing and sorting cells based on their **surface or intracellular markers** by passing them in a fluid stream through laser light.
- While it can quantify **CD117-positive cells**, it requires cells to be in suspension and thus **destroys the tissue architecture**, preventing analysis of spatial distribution.
*Fluorescence in-situ hybridization*
- **Fluorescence in-situ hybridization (FISH)** uses **fluorescent probes** to detect and locate specific **DNA or RNA sequences** on chromosomes or in cells.
- FISH is primarily used for genetic analysis and **does not directly assess protein expression** or cellular distribution in the context of targeted therapy.
*Western blot*
- **Western blot** is used to detect and quantify specific **proteins** from a sample by separating them by size, but it is performed on **tissue homogenates**.
- This technique provides information on the **total protein content** but **does not preserve the spatial arrangement** of cells within the original tissue.