A 39-year-old African American woman is admitted to the hospital following a seizure with a severe post-ictal headache. She was diagnosed with breast cancer 1 year ago when she presented with a hard, rock-like, immobile mass with irregular borders accompanied by changes in the breast skin, including erythema and dimpling. She had ipsilateral mobile axillary lymphadenopathy at that time. A biopsy confirmed the diagnosis of stage 2B invasive breast cancer. Her mother died at 42 years of age due to the same type of breast cancer. A CT scan done during this admission reveals multiple metastatic lesions in the brain and liver, along with the involvement of supra- and infra-clavicular lymph nodes. Which of the following molecular profile most likely characterizes this patient?
Q222
A 53-year-old farmer presents to the clinic for evaluation of a pigmented lesion on his arm. He states that he first noticed the lesion last year, but he believes that it has been slowly growing in size. He otherwise does not have any complaints and is generally healthy. Which of the following findings on physical exam would suggest a malignant diagnosis?
Q223
A 40-year-old man presents with an episode of rectal bleeding. He is concerned because his mother died of colorectal cancer at 50 years of age. He has no further information about his family history. Physical examination and digital rectal examination are normal. He undergoes a colonoscopy and is found to have innumerable adenomas in the left side of the colon ranging in size from 4–15 mm. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient illness?
Q224
A 55-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of a painless lump on her neck. Examination shows a hard nodule on the left side of her neck. A fine-needle aspiration biopsy shows well-differentiated cuboidal cells arranged spherically around colloid. She undergoes thyroidectomy. Histopathological examination of the surgical specimen shows invasion of the thyroid capsule and blood vessels. Which of the following cellular events is most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?
Q225
A 67-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of generalized fatigue. On examination, he appears pale. He also has multiple pinpoint, red, nonblanching spots on his extremities. His spleen is significantly enlarged. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 8.3 g/dL, a leukocyte count of 81,000/mm3, and a platelet count of 35,600/mm3. A peripheral blood smear shows immature cells with large, prominent nucleoli and pink, elongated, needle-shaped cytoplasmic inclusions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q226
A 40-year-old woman residing at an iodine-deficient endemic area presents to the physician with a painless and gradually progressive anterior neck mass. She has occasional dysphagia, but has no history of prior head and neck irradiation. The examination shows a mass that moves with deglutition, suggesting a thyroid mass. An ultrasound of the neck reveals a 3 cm x 3 cm (1.2 in x 1.2 in) mass in the right thyroid lobe with punctate microcalcifications, hypoechogenicity, irregular margins, and enhanced vascularity. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy. Her serum TSH is 3.3 mU/L, serum T3 is 2.2 nmol/L, and serum T4 is 111 nmol/L. An FNAC of the nodule shows abundant follicular cells suspicious of follicular neoplasm. A right lobectomy with isthmectomy is performed. Which of the following histopathological finding is diagnostic?
Q227
A 24-year-old woman complains of intermittent fever and joint pain. She says that these symptoms have been present for the past month. Before that, she had no signs or symptoms and was completely healthy. She has also lost her appetite and some weight. A complete blood count (CBC) showed severe pancytopenia. What is the next best step in evaluating this patient?
Q228
A 75-year-old female comes to the physician’s office with complaints of right lower quadrant pain. She has been experiencing these symptoms for the last 6 months and they have progressively gotten worse. An ultrasound reveals a large ovarian mass and abdominal and pelvic CT reveals no metastases. Her serum levels of CA-125 are elevated and the biopsy reveals the primary neoplasm as ovarian in origin. Her cancer is characterized as invasive carcinoma without metastasis. Which of the following cellular changes is consistent with this diagnosis?
Q229
A 49-year-old woman presents to her physician with complaints of breast swelling and redness of the skin over her right breast for the past 1 month. She also mentions that the skin above her right breast appears to have thickened. She denies any pain or nipple discharge. The past medical history is significant for a total abdominal hysterectomy at 45 years of age. Her last mammogram 1 year ago was negative for any pathologic changes. On examination, the right breast was diffusely erythematous with gross edema and tenderness and appeared larger than the left breast. The right nipple was retracted and the right breast was warmer than the left breast. No localized mass was palpated. Which of the following statements best describes the patient’s most likely condition?
Q230
A 57-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of multiple swellings in both her axillae. She says they are generally painless, but are sometimes painful on the weekends. She also has increased fatigue, recurring low-grade fevers, and generalized pruritus. She does not smoke. She drinks five to six beers on the weekends. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals multiple firm and nontender axillary lymph nodes. A lymph node biopsy shows multinucleate giant lymphocytes with prominent nucleoli that resemble eosinophilic inclusions. Which of the following additional findings would be associated with a poor prognosis in this patient?
Neoplasia US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 221: A 39-year-old African American woman is admitted to the hospital following a seizure with a severe post-ictal headache. She was diagnosed with breast cancer 1 year ago when she presented with a hard, rock-like, immobile mass with irregular borders accompanied by changes in the breast skin, including erythema and dimpling. She had ipsilateral mobile axillary lymphadenopathy at that time. A biopsy confirmed the diagnosis of stage 2B invasive breast cancer. Her mother died at 42 years of age due to the same type of breast cancer. A CT scan done during this admission reveals multiple metastatic lesions in the brain and liver, along with the involvement of supra- and infra-clavicular lymph nodes. Which of the following molecular profile most likely characterizes this patient?
A. PR, ER, HER2 positive
B. HER2 positive
C. Progesterone receptor (PR) positive
D. ER, PR, HER2 negative (Correct Answer)
E. Estrogen receptor (ER) positive
Explanation: ***ER, PR, HER2 negative***
- This patient's presentation with aggressive breast cancer at a relatively young age (39 years old), family history of early-onset breast cancer, rapid progression to metastatic disease in the brain and liver, and involvement of multiple lymph nodes (axillary, supra- and infra-clavicular) are all highly suggestive of a **triple-negative breast cancer (TNBC)**.
- TNBC is characterized by the absence of **estrogen receptors (ER)**, **progesterone receptors (PR)**, and **human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2)** overexpression, making it an aggressive subtype with limited targeted treatment options and a poor prognosis, consistent with the patient's rapidly worsening condition.
*PR, ER, HER2 positive*
- This molecular profile (also known as triple-positive breast cancer) generally indicates a more favorable prognosis due to the availability of **hormonal therapy** (for ER/PR positivity) and **anti-HER2 targeted therapy**.
- The aggressive course and rapid metastatic spread described in the patient are less typical for triple-positive disease, which often responds well to various targeted treatments.
*HER2 positive*
- HER2-positive breast cancer can be aggressive, but the presence of HER2 positivity allows for **HER2-targeted therapies** (e.g., trastuzumab, pertuzumab), which significantly improve outcomes.
- While HER2-positive cancers can metastasize to the brain, the overall clinical picture, especially the aggressive growth and lack of other receptor expression, aligns more with triple-negative disease.
*Progesterone receptor (PR) positive*
- PR positivity, often alongside ER positivity, indicates a **hormone-sensitive breast cancer**, which typically has a better prognosis and is amenable to **endocrine therapy**.
- The aggressive and rapid metastatic progression to multiple sites, including brain and liver, is not characteristic of a purely PR-positive tumor without other aggressive features.
*Estrogen receptor (ER) positive*
- ER-positive breast cancer is the most common subtype and is generally associated with a **better prognosis** and responsiveness to **endocrine therapy**.
- The patient's aggressive disease course, including early metastasis and family history of early-onset, aggressive breast cancer, does not align with the typical presentation of an exclusively ER-positive tumor.
Question 222: A 53-year-old farmer presents to the clinic for evaluation of a pigmented lesion on his arm. He states that he first noticed the lesion last year, but he believes that it has been slowly growing in size. He otherwise does not have any complaints and is generally healthy. Which of the following findings on physical exam would suggest a malignant diagnosis?
A. Symmetrical ovoid lesion
B. Flat lesion with symmetric hyperpigmentation
C. Tenderness to palpation
D. Hyperpigmented lesion with smooth borders
E. Different pigmentation throughout the lesion (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Different pigmentation throughout the lesion***
- **Malignant melanoma** often presents with **multicolor variegation** or areas of differing pigmentation within the same lesion, which is a key indicator for malignancy (the "C" in ABCDE).
- This **uneven coloration** reflects the uncontrolled proliferation of melanocytes producing melanin in varying amounts and patterns, a hallmark of dysplastic changes.
*Symmetrical ovoid lesion*
- **Benign nevi** (moles) typically maintain **symmetry** in their shape and border, meaning that if you were to draw a line through the middle of the lesion, both halves would largely match.
- While some melanomas can be ovoid, **asymmetry** is a more concerning feature for malignancy, unlike the description provided here.
*Flat lesion with symmetric hyperpigmentation*
- A **benign lesion** often has **symmetric pigmentation** and a uniform color distribution, with a flat appearance.
- **Irregular pigmentation** (color variegation) within the lesion is a more concerning sign for **melanoma**, falling under the "C" (color) criteria of the ABCDEs.
*Tenderness to palpation*
- **Tenderness** is not a typical characteristic of early or even advanced **melanoma**; pain or tenderness is often associated with inflammation, infection, or trauma rather than primary skin cancer.
- While ulcerated or infected tumors can be painful, tenderness alone without other suspicious features is **not a primary diagnostic criterion** for melanoma.
*Hyperpigmented lesion with smooth borders*
- **Benign moles** typically have **smooth, regular, and well-defined borders**, making them appear round or oval.
- In contrast, **malignant melanoma** often presents with **irregular, notched, or poorly defined borders (the "B" in ABCDE),** which would be more indicative of malignancy.
Question 223: A 40-year-old man presents with an episode of rectal bleeding. He is concerned because his mother died of colorectal cancer at 50 years of age. He has no further information about his family history. Physical examination and digital rectal examination are normal. He undergoes a colonoscopy and is found to have innumerable adenomas in the left side of the colon ranging in size from 4–15 mm. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient illness?
A. Mutation in DNA mismatch repair genes
B. Inactivation of RB1 gene
C. Alterations in STK11 gene
D. Inactivation of BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes
E. Mutations of the APC gene (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Mutations of the APC gene***
- The description of **innumerable adenomas** in the colon, particularly at a relatively young age and with a family history of early-onset colorectal cancer, is highly suggestive of **familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)**.
- FAP is an autosomal dominant condition caused by germline mutations in the **adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) gene**, a tumor suppressor gene, leading to the development of hundreds to thousands of adenomatous polyps and an almost 100% lifetime risk of colorectal cancer.
*Mutation in DNA mismatch repair genes*
- Mutations in **DNA mismatch repair genes** (e.g., MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, PMS2) are associated with **Lynch syndrome (hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer)**.
- Lynch syndrome typically presents with fewer polyps (though an increased risk of colorectal cancer, especially right-sided) and other extracolonic cancers, which is less consistent with "innumerable adenomas."
*Inactivation of RB1 gene*
- The **RB1 gene** is a tumor suppressor gene primarily associated with **retinoblastoma** and has a role in other cancers like osteosarcoma.
- It is not the primary genetic mechanism for the development of multiple colonic adenomas described in this patient.
*Alterations in STK11 gene*
- Alterations in the **STK11 gene** are associated with **Peutz-Jeghers syndrome**, an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by the development of multiple **hamartomatous polyps** mainly in the gastrointestinal tract, especially the small intestine, and characteristic **mucocutaneous pigmentation**.
- These polyps are hamartomatous, not adenomatous, and while they carry a cancer risk, the presentation of innumerable adenomas points away from Peutz-Jeghers syndrome.
*Inactivation of BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes*
- **BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes** are critical tumor suppressor genes primarily associated with an increased risk of **breast cancer** and **ovarian cancer**, as well as some other cancers like prostate and pancreatic cancer.
- While these genes are important in cancer development, they are not directly implicated in the pathogenesis of familial adenomatous polyposis or the significant number of colonic adenomas described.
Question 224: A 55-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 4-month history of a painless lump on her neck. Examination shows a hard nodule on the left side of her neck. A fine-needle aspiration biopsy shows well-differentiated cuboidal cells arranged spherically around colloid. She undergoes thyroidectomy. Histopathological examination of the surgical specimen shows invasion of the thyroid capsule and blood vessels. Which of the following cellular events is most likely involved in the pathogenesis of this patient's condition?
A. TSH receptor gene mutation
B. Activation mutation in the BRAF gene
C. Mutation in the RET proto-oncogene
D. p53 tumor suppressor gene inactivation
E. PAX8-PPAR gamma gene rearrangement (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***PAX8-PPAR gamma gene rearrangement***
- The description of a **painless neck lump**, **well-differentiated cuboidal cells arranged spherically around colloid**, and **invasion of the thyroid capsule and blood vessels** is highly classic for **follicular thyroid carcinoma**.
- **PAX8-PPAR gamma rearrangement** is a characteristic genetic alteration found in a significant subset of **follicular thyroid carcinomas** and sometimes in follicular adenomas, playing a crucial role in tumorigenesis.
*TSH receptor gene mutation*
- This mutation is associated with **toxic thyroid adenomas** (Plummer's disease) and **diffuse toxic goiter** (Graves' disease), leading to hyperthyroidism.
- While it can cause nodular growth, it typically results in a **hyperfunctioning nodule** and is not primarily linked to the invasive features of follicular carcinoma described.
*Activation mutation in the BRAF gene*
- **BRAF V600E mutation** is the most common genetic alteration found in **papillary thyroid carcinoma**, which typically presents with **papillary architecture**, nuclear features like **Orphan Annie eye nuclei**, and **psammoma bodies**.
- The histological description of "well-differentiated cuboidal cells arranged spherically around colloid" does not fit papillary carcinoma.
*Mutation in the RET proto-oncogene*
- **RET proto-oncogene mutations** are characteristic of **medullary thyroid carcinoma**, a neuroendocrine tumor arising from parafollicular C cells.
- Medullary thyroid carcinoma has distinct histological features (e.g., amyloid deposition) and clinical presentations (e.g., calcitonin secretion) that are not described in this case.
*p53 tumor suppressor gene inactivation*
- **p53 inactivation** is primarily associated with **anaplastic thyroid carcinoma** and **poorly differentiated thyroid carcinoma**.
- These are highly aggressive tumors that would present with rapid growth, significant invasion, and poorly differentiated or anaplastic histology, which contradicts the "well-differentiated" description in the patient's biopsy.
Question 225: A 67-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 2-month history of generalized fatigue. On examination, he appears pale. He also has multiple pinpoint, red, nonblanching spots on his extremities. His spleen is significantly enlarged. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin concentration of 8.3 g/dL, a leukocyte count of 81,000/mm3, and a platelet count of 35,600/mm3. A peripheral blood smear shows immature cells with large, prominent nucleoli and pink, elongated, needle-shaped cytoplasmic inclusions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
B. Myelodysplastic syndrome
C. Hairy cell leukemia
D. Acute myelogenous leukemia (Correct Answer)
E. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
Explanation: ***Acute myelogenous leukemia***
- The presence of immature cells with **large, prominent nucleoli** and **pink, elongated, needle-shaped cytoplasmic inclusions** (**Auer rods**) on peripheral blood smear is pathognomonic for **acute myeloid leukemia (AML)**.
- The pancytopenia (anemia, thrombocytopenia) and extreme leukocytosis, along with generalized fatigue and pale appearance, are consistent with the presentation of AML.
*Acute lymphoblastic leukemia*
- Characterized by the proliferation of **lymphoblasts** (immature lymphocytes) in the bone marrow and peripheral blood, which typically lack Auer rods.
- While it can present with fatigue, pallor, and cytopenias, the specific morphologic features of the blast cells are different.
*Myelodysplastic syndrome*
- Involves ineffective hematopoiesis leading to **cytopenias** and dysplastic features in mature blood cells, but typically features less aggressive proliferation of immature cells than acute leukemias and **lacks Auer rods**.
- While it can progress to AML, the current description points to actively proliferating immature cells.
*Hairy cell leukemia*
- Characterized by **B lymphocytes with cytoplasmic projections** ("hairy cells") and is typically associated with **massive splenomegaly** and **pancytopenia**, but the characteristic Auer rods are absent.
- The cell morphology described (large nucleoli, needle-shaped inclusions) is inconsistent with hairy cells.
*Chronic myelogenous leukemia*
- Characterized by the **Philadelphia chromosome (BCR-ABL1 fusion gene)** and a marked increase in mature and immature myeloid cells, including granulocytes at various stages of maturation, but typically **lacks Auer rods** and usually has a higher proportion of mature rather than acutely immature cells.
- While it presents with leukocytosis and splenomegaly, the prominent immature cells with nucleoli and Auer rods are not features of CML.
Question 226: A 40-year-old woman residing at an iodine-deficient endemic area presents to the physician with a painless and gradually progressive anterior neck mass. She has occasional dysphagia, but has no history of prior head and neck irradiation. The examination shows a mass that moves with deglutition, suggesting a thyroid mass. An ultrasound of the neck reveals a 3 cm x 3 cm (1.2 in x 1.2 in) mass in the right thyroid lobe with punctate microcalcifications, hypoechogenicity, irregular margins, and enhanced vascularity. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy. Her serum TSH is 3.3 mU/L, serum T3 is 2.2 nmol/L, and serum T4 is 111 nmol/L. An FNAC of the nodule shows abundant follicular cells suspicious of follicular neoplasm. A right lobectomy with isthmectomy is performed. Which of the following histopathological finding is diagnostic?
A. Well-differentiated follicular cells without vascular invasion
B. Hyperplastic parafollicular C cells
C. Follicular cells that lack nuclear atypia, with capsular and vascular invasion (Correct Answer)
D. Highly undifferentiated malignant cells with areas of necrosis and inflammation
E. Presence of Psammoma bodies
Explanation: ***Follicular cells that lack nuclear atypia, with capsular and vascular invasion***
- The presence of **capsular and vascular invasion** by follicular cells, even without nuclear atypia, is the diagnostic feature of **follicular thyroid carcinoma**. This invasion distinguishes it from follicular adenoma.
- The ultrasound findings (microcalcifications, hypoechogenicity, irregular margins, enhanced vascularity) are highly suspicious for malignancy, and the FNAC suggested a follicular neoplasm, which requires surgical excision for definitive diagnosis.
*Well-differentiated follicular cells without vascular invasion*
- This description typically points to a **follicular adenoma**, a benign tumor.
- Absence of **vascular or capsular invasion** is the key histological feature differentiating adenoma from carcinoma.
*Hyperplastic parafollicular C cells*
- An increase in **parafollicular C cells** (often with an amyloid stroma) is characteristic of **medullary thyroid carcinoma**.
- This type of cancer is derived from neuroendocrine cells, not follicular cells, and has distinct histological features.
*Highly undifferentiated malignant cells with areas of necrosis and inflammation*
- This describes **anaplastic thyroid carcinoma**, a highly aggressive and poorly differentiated malignancy.
- While malignant, the FNAC result of "follicular neoplasm" and the patient's presentation are more consistent with a differentiated follicular cancer rather than an anaplastic one.
*Presence of Psammoma bodies*
- **Psammoma bodies** are concentric calcified laminated structures characteristic of **papillary thyroid carcinoma**.
- Papillary thyroid carcinoma also typically shows specific nuclear features (e.g., ground glass nuclei, nuclear grooves, intranuclear inclusions) that are not mentioned in the FNAC findings of "follicular neoplasm."
Question 227: A 24-year-old woman complains of intermittent fever and joint pain. She says that these symptoms have been present for the past month. Before that, she had no signs or symptoms and was completely healthy. She has also lost her appetite and some weight. A complete blood count (CBC) showed severe pancytopenia. What is the next best step in evaluating this patient?
A. Repeated CBCs for several weeks and reassess
B. Treatment with corticosteroids
C. Treatment with antibiotics
D. Treatment for acute leukemia
E. Bone marrow examination (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Bone marrow examination***
- The combination of **fever**, **joint pain**, **weight loss**, and **pancytopenia** in a previously healthy young woman raises suspicion for serious hematologic conditions like **aplastic anemia** or **acute leukemia**.
- A **bone marrow examination** is crucial for definitive diagnosis by evaluating the cellularity, morphology, and presence of abnormal cells.
*Repeated CBCs for several weeks and reassess*
- This approach is inappropriate given the **severe pancytopenia** and progressive symptoms, which indicate an urgent underlying pathology.
- Delaying diagnosis could worsen the patient's condition and compromise treatment outcomes due to the potential for severe infections or bleeding.
*Treatment with corticosteroids*
- While corticosteroids might be used in some autoimmune conditions causing pancytopenia, initiating treatment without a definitive diagnosis is premature and could mask the underlying cause, especially in cases of malignancy.
- There is no specific indication for corticosteroid use in this scenario without further diagnostic information.
*Treatment with antibiotics*
- Although **fever** is present, there's no clear evidence of an infection (like localized symptoms or positive cultures), and **pancytopenia** is not primarily managed with antibiotics.
- Administering antibiotics empirically without a confirmed infection addresses a symptom rather than the underlying progressive hematological disorder.
*Treatment for acute leukemia*
- While **acute leukemia** is a strong possibility, definitive treatment should only commence after a confirmed diagnosis through **bone marrow examination**, as misdiagnosis can lead to inappropriate and harmful therapy.
- Other conditions like severe aplastic anemia also present with similar features but require different management strategies.
Question 228: A 75-year-old female comes to the physician’s office with complaints of right lower quadrant pain. She has been experiencing these symptoms for the last 6 months and they have progressively gotten worse. An ultrasound reveals a large ovarian mass and abdominal and pelvic CT reveals no metastases. Her serum levels of CA-125 are elevated and the biopsy reveals the primary neoplasm as ovarian in origin. Her cancer is characterized as invasive carcinoma without metastasis. Which of the following cellular changes is consistent with this diagnosis?
A. Seeding via capillaries
B. Increased proliferation of cells with preservation of size and shape
C. Loss of E-cadherin (Correct Answer)
D. Intact basement membrane
E. Appropriate basal to apical differentiation
Explanation: ***Loss of E-cadherin***
- The diagnosis of **invasive carcinoma without metastasis** implies that tumor cells have gained the ability to invade surrounding tissues but have not yet spread to distant sites.
- **Loss of E-cadherin** is a crucial step in the **epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT)**, allowing carcinoma cells to detach from the primary tumor and invade, consistent with an invasive but non-metastatic cancer.
*Seeding via capillaries*
- This describes **hematogenous spread**, a form of **metastasis** where tumor cells enter the bloodstream.
- The clinical presentation states **no metastases**, making this an unlikely cellular characteristic for the current stage.
*Increased proliferation of cells with preservation of size and shape*
- **Increased proliferation** is a hallmark of cancer, but **preservation of size and shape** indicates a well-differentiated or benign tumor.
- Invasive carcinoma typically involves **cellular pleomorphism** (variability in cell size and shape) and **loss of differentiation**.
*Intact basement membrane*
- An **intact basement membrane** is characteristic of **carcinoma in situ** or non-invasive tumors.
- **Invasive carcinoma** is defined by the **breach of the basement membrane** by malignant cells.
*Appropriate basal to apical differentiation*
- **Appropriate differentiation** indicates normal tissue organization and function, which is inconsistent with cancer, especially invasive carcinoma.
- Malignant tumors, including invasive carcinomas, are characterized by **dysplasia** and often a **loss of normal differentiation**.
Question 229: A 49-year-old woman presents to her physician with complaints of breast swelling and redness of the skin over her right breast for the past 1 month. She also mentions that the skin above her right breast appears to have thickened. She denies any pain or nipple discharge. The past medical history is significant for a total abdominal hysterectomy at 45 years of age. Her last mammogram 1 year ago was negative for any pathologic changes. On examination, the right breast was diffusely erythematous with gross edema and tenderness and appeared larger than the left breast. The right nipple was retracted and the right breast was warmer than the left breast. No localized mass was palpated. Which of the following statements best describes the patient’s most likely condition?
A. It shows predominant lymphatic spread.
B. The lesion expresses receptors for estrogen and progesterone.
C. The lesion is due to Streptococcal infection.
D. It is a benign lesion.
E. The inflammation is due to obstruction of dermal lymphatic vessels. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***The inflammation is due to obstruction of dermal lymphatic vessels.***
- The presentation of **rapid-onset breast swelling, redness, thickening of the skin, warmth, and nipple retraction** without a palpable mass is highly suggestive of **inflammatory breast cancer (IBC)**.
- IBC is characterized by the **obstruction of dermal lymphatic vessels by tumor cells**, leading to the classic inflammatory signs and **peau d'orange** appearance.
*It shows predominant lymphatic spread.*
- While IBC does involve **lymphatic spread**, this statement alone does not fully encompass the characteristic pathology of the condition causing the observed symptoms.
- The obstruction of the **dermal lymphatic vessels** is a more precise description of the immediate cause of the clinical presentation.
*The lesion expresses receptors for estrogen and progesterone.*
- Although some breast cancers are **hormone receptor-positive (ER/PR positive)**, there is no direct information in the vignette to suggest this specificity for the patient's condition.
- This statement refers to a **molecular characteristic** that is not a defining feature of the clinical presentation of IBC.
*The lesion is due to Streptococcal infection.*
- While a **bacterial infection** (like **streptococcal cellulitis**) can cause redness, swelling, and warmth, it typically presents with more acute symptoms, fever, and often a clearer response to antibiotics.
- The **thickening of the skin** and **nipple retraction** point away from a simple infection and towards a malignant process.
*It is a benign lesion.*
- The rapid progression of symptoms, pronounced skin changes, and nipple retraction are all **red flags for malignancy**, specifically inflammatory breast cancer.
- **Benign lesions** rarely cause such diffuse, severe, and rapidly progressing inflammatory signs.
Question 230: A 57-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of multiple swellings in both her axillae. She says they are generally painless, but are sometimes painful on the weekends. She also has increased fatigue, recurring low-grade fevers, and generalized pruritus. She does not smoke. She drinks five to six beers on the weekends. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 80/min, respirations are 12/min, and blood pressure is 130/70 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals multiple firm and nontender axillary lymph nodes. A lymph node biopsy shows multinucleate giant lymphocytes with prominent nucleoli that resemble eosinophilic inclusions. Which of the following additional findings would be associated with a poor prognosis in this patient?
A. Axillary tumor 6 cm across
B. Mediastinal tumor occupying 7% of the chest's width
C. Leukocyte count of 9,000/mm3
D. Erythocyte sedimentation rate of 65 mm/h (Correct Answer)
E. Nodular lymphocyte predominant type tumor
Explanation: ***Erythocyte sedimentation rate of 65 mm/h***
- An **elevated ESR** (typically >50 mm/h or >70 mm/h, depending on the staging system used) is a recognized **adverse prognostic factor** in Hodgkin lymphoma per the International Prognostic Score (IPS).
- It indicates significant systemic inflammation and disease activity, suggesting a more aggressive disease course or higher tumor burden.
*Axillary tumor 6 cm across*
- While a large tumor size can be a poor prognostic factor, it is often considered in relation to other factors like the number of involved nodal areas and extranodal extension. A single axillary tumor of this size alone is not as strong an indicator of poor prognosis as an elevated ESR per IPS.
- The **IPS** typically defines a bulky disease as a single nodal mass >10 cm or >1/3 the chest width. Thus, 6 cm is significant but not above this IPS threshold for poor prognosis.
*Mediastinal tumor occupying 7% of the chest's width*
- This size of mediastinal tumor (7% of chest width) is typically not considered a poor prognostic indicator. Bulky mediastinal disease, defined as a mass >1/3 the chest width, is a poor prognostic factor.
- **Bulky disease** (specifically mediastinal) of less than 1/3 the chest width is not considered a poor prognostic factor according to the International Prognostic Score (IPS) for Hodgkin lymphoma.
*Leukocyte count of 9,000/mm3*
- A leukocyte count of 9,000/mm3 is within the normal range (typically 4,000-11,000/mm3) and does not indicate an adverse prognosis.
- **Leukocytosis** (WBC count >15,000/mm3) is considered a poor prognostic factor in Hodgkin lymphoma.
*Nodular lymphocyte predominant type tumor*
- **Nodular lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma (NLPHL)** typically has a more indolent course and an excellent prognosis compared to classical Hodgkin lymphoma (cHL), which is suggested by the Reed-Sternberg-like cells described.
- While it can transform into an aggressive non-Hodgkin lymphoma in a minority of cases, its initial presentation is generally associated with a better prognosis and lower stage at diagnosis.