A 75-year-old man presents to the physician with a complaint of persistent back pain. The patient states that the pain has been constant and occurs throughout the day. He says that he has also been experiencing greater fatigue when carrying out his daily activities. On review of systems, the patient notes that he lost more than 10 pounds in the past month despite maintaining his usual diet and exercising less often due to his fatigue. Physical exam is notable for a systolic murmur at the right sternal border, mild crackles at the bases of both lungs, and tenderness to palpation of his lumbar spine. Laboratory values are below:
Serum:
Na+: 141 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 4.2 mEq/L
HCO3-: 23 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 101 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.6 mg/dL
Ca2+: 12.8 mg/dL
A peripheral blood smear is ordered for the patient’s work-up. Which of the following would be the most likely finding on peripheral blood smear?
Q192
A 70-year-old man presents to a medical office with painful micturition for 2 weeks. He denies any other symptoms. The past medical history is unremarkable. He has been a smoker most of his life, smoking approx. 1 pack of cigarettes every day. The physical examination is benign. A urinalysis shows an abundance of red blood cells. A cystoscopy is performed, which reveals a slightly erythematous area measuring 1.5 x 1 cm on the bladder mucosa. A biopsy is obtained and microscopic evaluation shows cells with an increased nuclear: cytoplasmic ratio and marked hyperchromatism involving the full thickness of the epithelium, but above the basement membrane. Which of the following best describes the biopsy findings?
Q193
A 29-year-old female reports having a positive home pregnancy test result 9 weeks ago. She presents today with vaginal bleeding and complains of recent onset abdominal pain. Ultrasound of the patient’s uterus is included as Image A. Subsequent histologic analysis (Image B) reveals regions of both normal as well as enlarged trophoblastic villi. Which of the following is the most likely karyotype associated with this pregnancy?
Q194
A 41-year-old woman presents to the office with a complaint of a headache for 1 month and an episode of abnormal body movement. The headaches are more severe in the morning, mostly after waking up. She doesn’t give a history of any major illness or trauma in the past. Her vital signs include: blood pressure 160/80 mm Hg, pulse 58/min, temperature 36.5°C (97.8°F), and respiratory rate 11/min. On fundoscopic examination, mild papilledema is present. Her pupils are equal and reactive to light. No focal neurological deficit can be elicited. A contrast computed tomography scan of the head is shown in the picture. Which of the following is the most likely biopsy finding in this case?
Q195
A 66-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Her symptoms began when she was eating dinner. She has a past medical history of obesity, constipation, intravenous drug use, and diabetes. The patient is instructed to be nil per os and is transferred to the surgical floor. Three days later she had a cholecystectomy and is recovering on the surgical floor. Her laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 11 g/dL
Hematocrit: 33%
Leukocyte count: 8,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 197,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.5 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase: 533 U/L
GGT: 50 U/L
AST: 22 U/L
ALT: 20 U/L
The patient is currently asymptomatic and states that she feels well. Which of the following is associated with this patient's underlying condition?
Q196
A 56-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 3, comes to the physician because her left breast has become larger, hot, and itchy over the past 2 months. The patient felt a small lump in her left breast 1 year ago but did not seek medical attention at that time. She has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Menarche was at the age of 11 years and menopause at the age of 46 years. Her mother died of breast cancer at the age of 45 years. The patient does not smoke or drink alcohol. Current medications include labetalol, simvastatin, and daily low-dose aspirin. She is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 78 kg (172 lb); BMI is 27 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37.7°C (99.9°F), pulse is 78/min, and blood pressure is 138/88 mm Hg. Examination shows large dense breasts. There is widespread erythema and edematous skin plaques over a breast mass in the left breast. The left breast is tender to touch and left-sided axillary lymphadenopathy is noted. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q197
A 63-year-old man presents to the physician with fever for 5 days. He has had increasing fatigue and dyspnea for the past 2 months. During this time, he has lost 3 kg (6.6 lb). He received outpatient treatment for pneumonia last month. He had urinary tract infection 2 weeks ago. He takes no other medications other than daily low dose aspirin and recent oral antibiotics. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. The vital signs include: temperature 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse 93/min, respiration rate 18/min, and blood pressure 110/65 mm Hg. On physical examination, he has petechiae distally on the lower extremities and several purpura on the trunk and extremities. Several enlarged lymph nodes are detected in the axillary and cervical regions on both sides. The examination of the lungs, heart, and abdomen shows no abnormalities. The laboratory test results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 10 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 90 μm3
Leukocyte count 18,000/mm3
Platelet count 40,000/mm3
A Giemsa-stained peripheral blood smear is shown by the image. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q198
A 58-year-old lifeguard develops squamous cell carcinoma of the skin on his forehead. Which of the following most likely preceded the development of this carcinoma?
Q199
A 40-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of a several-month history of episodic sweating and heart racing. Her husband noticed that she becomes pale during these episodes. She also has progressive episodic pounding headaches which are not relieved by paracetamol. Her family history is negative for hypertension, endocrinopathies, or tumors. Vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg, temperature (normal) and pulse of 110/min. Fundus examination reveals hypertensive retinal changes. This patient condition is most likely due to neoplasm arising from which of the following?
Q200
A 32-year-old G0P0 African American woman presents to the physician with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding as well as menstrual bleeding in between her periods. She also reports feeling fatigued and having bizarre cravings for ice and chalk. Despite heavy bleeding, she does not report any pain with menstruation. Physical examination is notable for an enlarged, asymmetrical, firm uterus with multiple palpable, non-tender masses. Biopsy confirms the diagnosis of a benign condition. Which of the following histological characteristics would most likely be seen on biopsy in this patient?
Neoplasia US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: A 75-year-old man presents to the physician with a complaint of persistent back pain. The patient states that the pain has been constant and occurs throughout the day. He says that he has also been experiencing greater fatigue when carrying out his daily activities. On review of systems, the patient notes that he lost more than 10 pounds in the past month despite maintaining his usual diet and exercising less often due to his fatigue. Physical exam is notable for a systolic murmur at the right sternal border, mild crackles at the bases of both lungs, and tenderness to palpation of his lumbar spine. Laboratory values are below:
Serum:
Na+: 141 mEq/L
Cl-: 101 mEq/L
K+: 4.2 mEq/L
HCO3-: 23 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 101 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.6 mg/dL
Ca2+: 12.8 mg/dL
A peripheral blood smear is ordered for the patient’s work-up. Which of the following would be the most likely finding on peripheral blood smear?
A. Rouleaux formation (Correct Answer)
B. Schistocytes
C. Atypical lymphocytes
D. Target cells
E. Echinocytes
Explanation: ***Rouleaux formation***
- The patient's symptoms (persistent back pain, fatigue, weight loss, elevated calcium) are highly suggestive of **multiple myeloma**.
- **Rouleaux formation** (stacking of red blood cells like coins) is a classic finding in multiple myeloma due to increased plasma proteins (monoclonal paraproteins) reducing the zeta potential between RBCs.
*Schistocytes*
- **Schistocytes** are fragmented red blood cells, typically seen in **microangiopathic hemolytic anemias** (e.g., TTP, HUS, DIC) or mechanical destruction (e.g., prosthetic heart valves).
- This patient's presentation does not suggest a hemolytic process or microangiopathy.
*Atypical lymphocytes*
- **Atypical lymphocytes** are typically associated with **viral infections** (e.g., infectious mononucleosis, CMV) or some lymphoproliferative disorders.
- The clinical picture of bone pain, hypercalcemia, and weight loss does not align with a primary diagnosis indicated by atypical lymphocytes.
*Target cells*
- **Target cells** (codocytes) are red blood cells with a central darkly stained area and an outer rim of hemoglobin, often seen in **liver disease**, **thalassemia**, and **iron deficiency anemia**.
- While anemia can be present in multiple myeloma, target cells are not a primary and specific peripheral smear finding for this condition, and hypercalcemia is not characteristic of these disorders.
*Echinocytes*
- **Echinocytes** (burr cells) are red blood cells with evenly spaced spicules, often indicative of **uremia**, pyruvate kinase deficiency, or artifact.
- While the patient has elevated creatinine, the presence of rouleaux formation in the context of hypercalcemia and bone pain points more strongly to multiple myeloma.
Question 192: A 70-year-old man presents to a medical office with painful micturition for 2 weeks. He denies any other symptoms. The past medical history is unremarkable. He has been a smoker most of his life, smoking approx. 1 pack of cigarettes every day. The physical examination is benign. A urinalysis shows an abundance of red blood cells. A cystoscopy is performed, which reveals a slightly erythematous area measuring 1.5 x 1 cm on the bladder mucosa. A biopsy is obtained and microscopic evaluation shows cells with an increased nuclear: cytoplasmic ratio and marked hyperchromatism involving the full thickness of the epithelium, but above the basement membrane. Which of the following best describes the biopsy findings?
A. Microinvasion
B. Urothelial metaplasia
C. Urothelial carcinoma-in-situ (Correct Answer)
D. Urothelial hyperplasia
E. Reactive atypia
Explanation: ***Urothelial carcinoma-in-situ***
- The biopsy findings of cells with an increased **nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio**, **marked hyperchromatism**, and involvement of the **full thickness of the epithelium** but *above the basement membrane* are classic for **carcinoma-in-situ (CIS)**.
- This represents a **high-grade dysplasia** confined to the epithelium, without invasion into the underlying stroma.
*Microinvasion*
- **Microinvasion** would involve the malignant cells breaching the **basement membrane** and entering the lamina propria.
- The description explicitly states the changes are *above the basement membrane*, ruling out invasion.
*Urothelial metaplasia*
- **Urothelial metaplasia** involves the replacement of normal urothelium with another epithelial type, such as squamous or glandular epithelium.
- While it can be a precursor to malignancy, it does not typically show the **severe cytologic atypia** and **full-thickness involvement** described.
*Urothelial hyperplasia*
- **Urothelial hyperplasia** is characterized by an increase in the number of layers of urothelial cells, but the cells themselves retain a relatively **benign appearance** with minimal atypia.
- It lacks the prominent **cytologic abnormalities** (increased N:C ratio, hyperchromasia) seen in this biopsy.
*Reactive atypia*
- **Reactive atypia** (or inflammatory atypia) involves cellular changes due to inflammation or irritation, such as mild nuclear enlargement and irregular contours.
- However, reactive changes generally do not exhibit the **marked cytologic abnormalities** and **full-thickness involvement** characteristic of high-grade dysplasia or CIS.
Question 193: A 29-year-old female reports having a positive home pregnancy test result 9 weeks ago. She presents today with vaginal bleeding and complains of recent onset abdominal pain. Ultrasound of the patient’s uterus is included as Image A. Subsequent histologic analysis (Image B) reveals regions of both normal as well as enlarged trophoblastic villi. Which of the following is the most likely karyotype associated with this pregnancy?
A. 46 XY, both of paternal origin
B. 45 XO
C. 69 XXY (Correct Answer)
D. 46 XX, both of maternal origin
E. 47 XXY
Explanation: ***69 XXY***
- The presence of **both normal and enlarged trophoblastic villi** on histologic analysis, along with the clinical presentation of vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain in early pregnancy, is highly suggestive of a **partial hydatidiform mole**.
- Partial moles typically result from **dispermy** (fertilization of one egg by two sperm) and have a **triploid karyotype**, most commonly 69 XXY.
*46 XY, both of paternal origin*
- This karyotype describes a **complete hydatidiform mole**, which is characterized by the **absence of fetal tissue** and **diffuse hydropic villi** without normal villi, unlike the partial mole in this case.
- Complete moles arise from the fertilization of an **empty egg** by a single sperm that duplicates its chromosomes, or by two sperm.
*45 XO*
- This karyotype corresponds to **Turner syndrome**, which is associated with **cystic hygroma** and other fetal anomalies, but not typically with hydropic villi or a molar pregnancy.
- While it can result in a non-viable pregnancy, the histological findings do not align with Turner syndrome.
*46 XX, both of maternal origin*
- This karyotype is incompatible with normal embryonic development due to **genomic imprinting** - both maternal and paternal genetic contributions are required for viable pregnancy.
- A diploid genome of entirely maternal origin can occur in **ovarian teratomas** (dermoid cysts) arising from parthenogenetic activation, but this is not a pregnancy and does not produce the trophoblastic villous changes seen in molar pregnancies.
*47 XXY*
- This karyotype describes **Klinefelter syndrome**, a sex chromosome abnormality that affects males and typically presents with infertility, eunuchoid body habitus, and gynecomastia.
- It is not associated with molar pregnancies or the characteristic villous changes described.
Question 194: A 41-year-old woman presents to the office with a complaint of a headache for 1 month and an episode of abnormal body movement. The headaches are more severe in the morning, mostly after waking up. She doesn’t give a history of any major illness or trauma in the past. Her vital signs include: blood pressure 160/80 mm Hg, pulse 58/min, temperature 36.5°C (97.8°F), and respiratory rate 11/min. On fundoscopic examination, mild papilledema is present. Her pupils are equal and reactive to light. No focal neurological deficit can be elicited. A contrast computed tomography scan of the head is shown in the picture. Which of the following is the most likely biopsy finding in this case?
A. Pseudopalisading pleomorphic tumor cells
B. Oligodendrocytes with round nuclei and clear surrounding cytoplasm giving a fried-egg appearance
C. Closely arranged thin walled capillaries with minimal intervening parenchyma
D. Spindle cells concentrically arranged in whorled pattern with laminated calcification (Correct Answer)
E. Large quantities of lymphocytes without a particular growth pattern
Explanation: ***Spindle cells concentrically arranged in whorled pattern with laminated calcification***
- This describes **meningioma**, which is consistent with the patient's presentation of a **slow-growing mass** causing increased intracranial pressure (headache, papilledema) and seizures (abnormal body movements).
- Meningiomas are typically **extra-axial (dural-based)**, enhancing tumors, and calcifications are common, leading to the characteristic histologic appearance of spindle cells arranged in **whorls** with **psammoma bodies** (laminated calcifications).
*Pseudopalisading pleomorphic tumor cells*
- This is characteristic of **glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)**, a highly aggressive primary brain tumor that typically presents with rapid onset and severe neurological deficits.
- While GBM causes increased intracranial pressure, its **rapid progression** and imaging features (ring enhancement with central necrosis) differ from the chronic symptoms described.
*Oligodendrocytes with round nuclei and clear surrounding cytoplasm giving a fried-egg appearance*
- This describes **oligodendroglioma**, which can present with seizures and headaches.
- However, oligodendrogliomas often show **calcifications** on imaging, but their typical histological appearance is of cells with clear halos, not predominantly whorled spindle cells with psammoma bodies.
*Closely arranged thin walled capillaries with minimal intervening parenchyma*
- This description is characteristic of a **hemangioblastoma**, a vascular tumor typically found in the cerebellum, brainstem, or spinal cord.
- While hemangioblastomas can cause symptoms of increased intracranial pressure, their location and the specific histological description do not match the most likely diagnosis suggested by the patient's multifocal symptoms and the common presentation of such a lesion.
*Large quantities of lymphocytes without a particular growth pattern*
- This describes **primary central nervous system lymphoma (PCNSL)**. PCNSL can present with headaches and focal neurological deficits, and often shows homogeneous enhancement on imaging.
- However, meningioma is much more common and the histological description does not fit the typical appearance of a lymphoma.
Question 195: A 66-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Her symptoms began when she was eating dinner. She has a past medical history of obesity, constipation, intravenous drug use, and diabetes. The patient is instructed to be nil per os and is transferred to the surgical floor. Three days later she had a cholecystectomy and is recovering on the surgical floor. Her laboratory values are ordered as seen below.
Hemoglobin: 11 g/dL
Hematocrit: 33%
Leukocyte count: 8,500/mm^3 with normal differential
Platelet count: 197,000/mm^3
Serum:
Na+: 139 mEq/L
Cl-: 100 mEq/L
K+: 4.3 mEq/L
HCO3-: 25 mEq/L
BUN: 20 mg/dL
Glucose: 99 mg/dL
Creatinine: 1.1 mg/dL
Ca2+: 10.5 mg/dL
Alkaline phosphatase: 533 U/L
GGT: 50 U/L
AST: 22 U/L
ALT: 20 U/L
The patient is currently asymptomatic and states that she feels well. Which of the following is associated with this patient's underlying condition?
A. Repeat gastrointestinal tract obstruction
B. Blastic and lytic skeletal lesions (Correct Answer)
C. Qualitative bone defect
D. Reemergence of a hepatitis infection
E. Monoclonal plasma cell replication
Explanation: ***Blastic and lytic skeletal lesions***
- The patient's **markedly elevated alkaline phosphatase** (533 U/L) with **normal liver enzymes** (AST, ALT) and **relatively normal GGT** indicates a **bone source** of the elevated alkaline phosphatase.
- This laboratory pattern, in an asymptomatic elderly patient with normal calcium, is highly suggestive of **Paget's disease of bone**.
- **Paget's disease** is characterized by abnormal bone remodeling with three phases: initial osteolytic phase, mixed lytic-blastic phase, and final osteoblastic phase, resulting in **both blastic and lytic skeletal lesions** on imaging.
- The disease features disorganized bone remodeling with increased osteoclastic resorption followed by excessive osteoblastic activity, producing the characteristic mixed lytic-blastic pattern.
*Repeat gastrointestinal tract obstruction*
- While the patient had abdominal pain requiring cholecystectomy, there is no association between **Paget's disease** and recurrent gastrointestinal obstruction.
- Paget's disease primarily affects bone and does not cause mechanical GI complications.
*Qualitative bone defect*
- **Qualitative bone defects** refer to abnormalities in bone matrix composition, such as **osteomalacia** (defective mineralization) or **osteogenesis imperfecta** (defective collagen).
- **Paget's disease** is a **quantitative** disorder of bone remodeling with excessive, disorganized bone turnover, not a qualitative defect in bone matrix composition.
- The bone formed in Paget's disease is structurally abnormal but has normal mineral and collagen composition.
*Reemergence of a hepatitis infection*
- There is no clinical or laboratory evidence of hepatitis reactivation.
- The patient's **liver enzymes** (ALT 20, AST 22) are completely normal, excluding active hepatitis.
- While the patient has a history of IV drug use (risk factor for hepatitis), this is unrelated to the current isolated elevation of alkaline phosphatase from bone.
*Monoclonal plasma cell replication*
- **Multiple myeloma** (characterized by monoclonal plasma cell proliferation) can present with hypercalcemia and lytic bone lesions.
- However, alkaline phosphatase is typically **normal or low** in multiple myeloma because it causes purely lytic lesions without osteoblastic activity.
- This patient's **markedly elevated alkaline phosphatase** (533 U/L) rules out multiple myeloma and points to a condition with increased osteoblastic activity like Paget's disease.
Question 196: A 56-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 3, comes to the physician because her left breast has become larger, hot, and itchy over the past 2 months. The patient felt a small lump in her left breast 1 year ago but did not seek medical attention at that time. She has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. Menarche was at the age of 11 years and menopause at the age of 46 years. Her mother died of breast cancer at the age of 45 years. The patient does not smoke or drink alcohol. Current medications include labetalol, simvastatin, and daily low-dose aspirin. She is 170 cm (5 ft 7 in) tall and weighs 78 kg (172 lb); BMI is 27 kg/m2. Her temperature is 37.7°C (99.9°F), pulse is 78/min, and blood pressure is 138/88 mm Hg. Examination shows large dense breasts. There is widespread erythema and edematous skin plaques over a breast mass in the left breast. The left breast is tender to touch and left-sided axillary lymphadenopathy is noted. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Paget's disease of the breast
B. Inflammatory breast cancer (Correct Answer)
C. Mastitis
D. Breast fibroadenoma
E. Breast abscess
Explanation: ***Inflammatory breast cancer***
- The rapid onset of a **hot, itchy, and enlarged breast** with widespread **erythema and edematous skin plaques** (peau d'orange appearance) covering a breast mass, along with **axillary lymphadenopathy** and a history of a growing lump, are classic signs of inflammatory breast cancer.
- Inflammatory breast cancer is an aggressive form of breast cancer characterized by cancer cells blocking lymph vessels in the skin of the breast, leading to these distinctive inflammatory symptoms.
*Paget's disease of the breast*
- Typically presents as a **red, scaly, patchy rash** resembling eczema on the nipple and areola, sometimes with itching or burning.
- While it is a type of breast cancer, it usually does not cause the diffuse breast enlargement, warmth, and widespread edematous plaques seen in this case.
*Mastitis*
- Although it causes a **hot, red, and painful breast** and can be accompanied by fever, mastitis is typically associated with **lactation** and presents more acutely.
- The presence of a long-standing "small lump" that has grown and the specific "peau d'orange" skin changes make mastitis less likely than cancer.
*Breast fibroadenoma*
- Fibroadenomas are **benign, solid lumps** that are typically **painless, movable, and rubbery**.
- They do not cause diffuse breast enlargement, heat, itching, skin changes like erythema and edema, or axillary lymphadenopathy.
*Breast abscess*
- A breast abscess is a **localized collection of pus** within the breast, often following mastitis, characterized by severe localized pain, redness, swelling, and sometimes a fluctuant mass.
- While it causes warmth and tenderness, the **widespread edematous plaques** and diffuse nature of the skin changes, coupled with a history of a growing lump, are more indicative of inflammatory breast cancer.
Question 197: A 63-year-old man presents to the physician with fever for 5 days. He has had increasing fatigue and dyspnea for the past 2 months. During this time, he has lost 3 kg (6.6 lb). He received outpatient treatment for pneumonia last month. He had urinary tract infection 2 weeks ago. He takes no other medications other than daily low dose aspirin and recent oral antibiotics. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. The vital signs include: temperature 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse 93/min, respiration rate 18/min, and blood pressure 110/65 mm Hg. On physical examination, he has petechiae distally on the lower extremities and several purpura on the trunk and extremities. Several enlarged lymph nodes are detected in the axillary and cervical regions on both sides. The examination of the lungs, heart, and abdomen shows no abnormalities. The laboratory test results are as follows:
Hemoglobin 10 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 90 μm3
Leukocyte count 18,000/mm3
Platelet count 40,000/mm3
A Giemsa-stained peripheral blood smear is shown by the image. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hairy cell leukemia
B. Burkitt lymphoma
C. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D. MALT lymphoma
E. Acute myeloblastic leukemia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Acute myeloblastic leukemia***
- The presentation of **fever**, increasing **fatigue**, **dyspnea**, and **weight loss** over 2 months, along with signs of **petechiae** and **purpura** (suggesting thrombocytopenia), and **enlarged lymph nodes**, points towards an acute leukemia.
- Laboratory findings of **anemia** (Hb 10 g/dL), **leukocytosis** (WBC 18,000/mm³), and severe **thrombocytopenia** (platelet count 40,000/mm³) are classic for acute leukemia. The presence of **blast cells** on the peripheral blood smear (indicated implicitly by the question regarding its importance in diagnosis in the context of acute leukemia) confirms the diagnosis.
*Hairy cell leukemia*
- This condition typically presents with **pancytopenia**, **splenomegaly**, and characteristic "hairy" cells. Although pancytopenia fits partially here, the patient's presentation with significant leukocytosis and prominent lymphadenopathy makes this less likely.
- The microscopic image would show cells with fine, hairlike cytoplasmic projections, which are not described as the primary finding here for the diagnosis of AML.
*Burkitt lymphoma*
- Burkitt lymphoma is a high-grade **B-cell lymphoma** characterized by rapid tumor growth, often presenting as an **extranodal mass** (e.g., jaw or abdomen) or as an acute leukemia.
- While it can present with lymphadenopathy and B symptoms (fever, weight loss), the peripheral blood smear would typically not show the characteristic blast cells of AML; rather, it would show lymphoid cells with specific cytogenetic translocations (e.g., t(8;14)).
*Hodgkin's lymphoma*
- Hodgkin's lymphoma typically presents with **painless lymphadenopathy** (often cervical or supraclavicular) and B symptoms (fever, night sweats, weight loss).
- Peripheral blood findings usually show **lymphocytosis or eosinophilia**, but not the classic triad of anemia, leukocytosis with blasts, and severe thrombocytopenia seen in acute leukemia. The hallmark is the presence of **Reed-Sternberg cells** in lymph node biopsy.
*MALT lymphoma*
- MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue) lymphoma is a type of **low-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma** that typically arises in extranodal sites, most commonly the **stomach**, often associated with *Helicobacter pylori* infection.
- It is a slow-growing lymphoma and would not typically present with aggressive symptoms like high fever, rapid weight loss, significant cytopenias (especially severe thrombocytopenia), or a peripheral blood picture consistent with acute leukemia.
Question 198: A 58-year-old lifeguard develops squamous cell carcinoma of the skin on his forehead. Which of the following most likely preceded the development of this carcinoma?
A. Dermatophyte infection
B. Hamartomatous lesion of sebaceous glands
C. Dry, scaly, hyperkeratotic papule (Correct Answer)
D. A single, large pink patch
E. UVC exposure
Explanation: ***Dry, scaly, hyperkeratotic papule***
- This description is characteristic of an **actinic keratosis**, a common **precursor lesion** to cutaneous **squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)**, especially in sun-exposed areas like the forehead of a lifeguard.
- Actinic keratoses arise from chronic **UV radiation exposure** and represent **atypical epidermal keratinocytes**.
*Dermatophyte infection*
- A **dermatophyte infection** (e.g., ringworm) is a **fungal infection** of the skin, hair, or nails.
- It does not typically progress to squamous cell carcinoma; rather, it causes inflammatory and scaling lesions.
*Hamartomatous lesion of sebaceous glands*
- A **hamartoma** is a benign, localized malformation of mature cells and tissues that occurs in normal configuration but in an abnormal quantity or arrangement.
- A hamartomatous lesion of sebaceous glands is generally known as a **sebaceous nevus** (Nevus sebaceous of Jadassohn), which is present at birth and, while it carries a small risk of developing secondary tumors (including basal cell carcinoma, but less commonly SCC), it is not described as a "dry, scaly, hyperkeratotic papule" and is less common as a direct precursor in adults.
*A single, large pink patch*
- A **single, large pink patch** could describe various benign or malignant skin conditions, such as a **superficial basal cell carcinoma** or a form of **eczema**, but it is not specific for a precursor to SCC.
- **Bowen's disease** (SCC in situ) can appear as a pink or reddish scaly patch, but the description "dry, scaly, hyperkeratotic papule" is more fitting for **actinic keratosis**, a more common antecedent lesion.
*UVC exposure*
- While **UV radiation** (specifically UVA and UVB) is a primary risk factor for SCC, **UVC radiation** is mostly blocked by the ozone layer and does not typically reach the Earth's surface or cause skin cancer in humans from environmental exposure.
- The question asks for what most likely *preceded* the carcinoma in terms of a physical lesion, not the type of radiation that caused it.
Question 199: A 40-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of a several-month history of episodic sweating and heart racing. Her husband noticed that she becomes pale during these episodes. She also has progressive episodic pounding headaches which are not relieved by paracetamol. Her family history is negative for hypertension, endocrinopathies, or tumors. Vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 220/120 mm Hg, temperature (normal) and pulse of 110/min. Fundus examination reveals hypertensive retinal changes. This patient condition is most likely due to neoplasm arising from which of the following?
A. Extra-adrenal chromaffin cells
B. Zona glomerulosa
C. Zona fasciculata
D. Adrenal chromaffin cells (Correct Answer)
E. Zona reticularis
Explanation: **Adrenal chromaffin cells**
- The patient's symptoms of **episodic sweating, heart racing, pallor, pounding headaches**, and **severe hypertension** are classic for a **pheochromocytoma**.
- A pheochromocytoma is a **neuroendocrine tumor** arising from the **chromaffin cells** of the **adrenal medulla**, which produce and release excess catecholamines.
*Extra-adrenal chromaffin cells*
- While pheochromocytomas can arise from **extra-adrenal chromaffin cells** (paragangliomas), the adrenal medulla is the most common site (approximately 80-85% of cases).
- The symptoms are identical, but without imaging or further biochemical localization, the adrenal origin is statistically more likely.
*Zona glomerulosa*
- The **zona glomerulosa** of the adrenal cortex produces **mineralocorticoids**, primarily **aldosterone**.
- Tumors of the zona glomerulosa (aldosteronomas) cause **primary hyperaldosteronism**, characterized by hypertension, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis, but not the episodic symptoms described.
*Zona fasciculata*
- The **zona fasciculata** of the adrenal cortex produces **glucocorticoids**, primarily **cortisol**.
- Tumors of the zona fasciculata cause **Cushing's syndrome**, characterized by central obesity, moon facies, striae, and hypertension, which are not consistent with the episodic symptoms presented.
*Zona reticularis*
- The **zona reticularis** of the adrenal cortex produces **androgen precursors**.
- Tumors or hyperplasia of the zona reticularis can lead to hyperandrogenism, causing virilization symptoms, which are not present in this patient.
Question 200: A 32-year-old G0P0 African American woman presents to the physician with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding as well as menstrual bleeding in between her periods. She also reports feeling fatigued and having bizarre cravings for ice and chalk. Despite heavy bleeding, she does not report any pain with menstruation. Physical examination is notable for an enlarged, asymmetrical, firm uterus with multiple palpable, non-tender masses. Biopsy confirms the diagnosis of a benign condition. Which of the following histological characteristics would most likely be seen on biopsy in this patient?
A. Whorled pattern of smooth muscle bundles with well-defined borders (Correct Answer)
B. Granulosa cells scattered around collections of eosinophilic fluid
C. Laminated, concentric spherules with dystrophic calcification
D. Presence of endometrial glands and stroma in the myometrium
E. Clustered pleomorphic, hyperchromatic smooth muscle cells with extensive mitosis
Explanation: ***Whorled pattern of smooth muscle bundles with well-defined borders***
- The patient's symptoms (heavy and intermenstrual bleeding, enlarged, asymmetrical, firm uterus with palpable masses, fatigue, and **pica** due to **iron deficiency anemia**) are classic for **uterine leiomyomas** (fibroids).
- Leiomyomas are benign tumors composed of **smooth muscle cells** arranged in a **whorled pattern** with distinct borders, differentiating them from the surrounding myometrium.
*Granulosa cells scattered around collections of eosinophilic fluid*
- This histological description is characteristic of a **granulosa cell tumor of the ovary**, which is a malignant tumor.
- Granulosa cell tumors often present with symptoms related to **estrogen production**, such as abnormal uterine bleeding, but the uterine examination would not show an enlarged, firm, and asymmetrical uterus with palpable masses.
*Laminated, concentric spherules with dystrophic calcification*
- This describes **psammoma bodies**, which are often seen in conditions like **papillary thyroid carcinoma**, **meningiomas**, **ovarian serous cystadenocarcinomas**, and **papillary renal cell carcinoma**.
- They are not associated with uterine findings described in this patient.
*Presence of endometrial glands and stroma in the myometrium*
- This is the histological hallmark of **adenomyosis**, a condition where endometrial tissue infiltrates the myometrium.
- While adenomyosis can cause heavy menstrual bleeding and an enlarged uterus, it typically causes a **globular, symmetrically enlarged uterus** that is often **tender**, and severe **dysmenorrhea** (painful periods), which is notably absent in this patient.
*Clustered pleomorphic, hyperchromatic smooth muscle cells with extensive mitosis*
- This description is highly suggestive of a **leiomyosarcoma**, which is a malignant tumor of smooth muscle.
- The question explicitly states that the biopsy confirms a **benign condition**, ruling out malignancy.