A 65-year-old man presents to his primary care provider with excessive fatigue, weight loss, and multiple small bruises on his arms and abdomen. These symptoms started several months ago. He reports worsening fatigue and a 20-pound (9 kg) weight loss in the past month. Past medical history is significant for an asymptomatic lymphocytosis noted 6 months ago on a yearly physical. On review of systems, he denies chest pain, difficulty breathing, swelling in the extremities, or change in bowel habits. Vitals include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 110/75 mm Hg, pulse 99/min, respirations 20/min, and oxygen saturation 91% on room air. On physical exam, the patient is listless. The cardiac exam is normal. Lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdominal exam is significant for mild splenomegaly. Scleral icterus is present and there is prominent generalized non-tender lymphadenopathy. Which of the following laboratory findings is best associated with this patient’s condition?
Q132
A 55-year-old man presents with severe fatigue and fever. His past medical history is significant for a recent history of mononucleosis from which he fully recovered 8 weeks ago. On physical examination, the patient seems pale. A chest radiograph shows multiple enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes. A biopsy of one of the enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes is performed and shows the presence of multinucleated cells with an 'owl-eye' appearance in a hypocellular background. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
Q133
A 60-year-old woman presents to the dermatologist with a lesion on her lower eyelid. She noticed it a month ago and looked like a pimple. She says that it has been bleeding lately with minimal trauma which alarmed her. She says the lesion has not grown in size and is not associated with pain or pruritus. No significant past medical history. Physical examination reveals a 0.5 cm lesion that has a pearly appearance with telangiectasia and central ulceration and curled borders. The lesion is biopsied. Histopathology reveals peripheral palisading cells with large, hyperchromatic nuclei and a high nuclear: cytoplasmic ratio. Which of the following mechanisms best describes the most common mode of spread of this patient’s neoplasm?
Q134
A 70-year-old man presents for a routine checkup. He says that he recently completely lost hearing in both ears and has been having occasional flare-ups of osteoarthritis in his hands and hips. Past medical history is significant for hypertension diagnosed 25 years ago that is well controlled. Family history is significant for his brother, who recently died from prostate cancer. The patient's blood pressure is 126/84 mm Hg. Laboratory findings are significant for an alkaline phosphatase level that is more than 3 times the upper limit. Right upper quadrant ultrasound and non-contrast computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis reveal no significant abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely complication of this patient’s condition?
Q135
A 34-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a routine check-up. She complains that she is not feeling her normal self, but has no specific complaints. After a routine examination, the physician orders a full thyroid workup, including TSH, T3, and free T4. He also refers her directly to an oncologist for an initial consultation. Which type of lymphadenopathy was most likely present during the physical examination that made the primary care physician react this way?
Q136
A 43-year-old man comes to the physician because of weight loss and swelling on the left side of his neck. Physical examination shows a firm, enlarged left upper cervical lymph node that is immobile. Immunohistochemical testing performed on a biopsy specimen from the lymph node stains positive for cytokeratin. Which of the following is the most likely site of the primary neoplasm in this patient?
Q137
A 13-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of a 4-month history of worsening dizziness, nausea, and feeling clumsy. An MRI of the brain shows a well-demarcated, 4-cm cystic mass in the posterior fossa. The patient undergoes complete surgical resection of the mass. Pathologic examination of the surgical specimen shows parallel bundles of cells with eosinophilic, corkscrew-like processes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q138
A 69-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of blood in the urine and fatigue. He also has had a 5.0-kg (11-lb) weight loss during the past month. Physical examination shows pallor and cachexia. A nontender right flank mass is palpated. A CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis shows a 5-cm right upper pole renal mass and several pulmonary lesions. A biopsy specimen of an affected area of the lung is obtained. A photomicrograph of the biopsy specimen is shown. Molecular evaluation of the specimen is most likely to show which of the following genetic changes?
Q139
A 58-year-old woman with HIV infection is brought to the emergency department because of a 2-week history of headaches, blurred vision, and confusion. Her current medications include antiretroviral therapy and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Neurological examination shows ataxia and memory impairment. Her CD4+ T-lymphocyte count is 90/μL. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows lymphocytic predominant pleocytosis, and PCR is positive for Epstein-Barr virus DNA. An MRI of the brain with contrast shows a solitary, weakly ring-enhancing lesion with well-defined borders involving the corpus callosum. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q140
An obese 63-year-old man comes to the physician because of 3 episodes of red urine over the past week. He has also had recurrent headaches and intermittent blurry vision during the past month. He has benign prostatic hyperplasia. He works as an attendant at a gas station. The patient has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 40 years. He does not drink alcohol. Current medications include tamsulosin. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.4°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 152/95 mm Hg. Examination shows a flushed face. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft and non-tender. Digital rectal examination shows an enlarged prostate with no nodules. Urinalysis shows:
Blood 3+
Glucose negative
Protein negative
WBC 1-2/hpf
RBC 40-45/hpf
RBC casts none
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Neoplasia US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: A 65-year-old man presents to his primary care provider with excessive fatigue, weight loss, and multiple small bruises on his arms and abdomen. These symptoms started several months ago. He reports worsening fatigue and a 20-pound (9 kg) weight loss in the past month. Past medical history is significant for an asymptomatic lymphocytosis noted 6 months ago on a yearly physical. On review of systems, he denies chest pain, difficulty breathing, swelling in the extremities, or change in bowel habits. Vitals include: temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 110/75 mm Hg, pulse 99/min, respirations 20/min, and oxygen saturation 91% on room air. On physical exam, the patient is listless. The cardiac exam is normal. Lungs are clear to auscultation. The abdominal exam is significant for mild splenomegaly. Scleral icterus is present and there is prominent generalized non-tender lymphadenopathy. Which of the following laboratory findings is best associated with this patient’s condition?
A. Decreased serum ferritin
B. Codocytes on peripheral blood smear
C. Increased serum complement
D. Degmacytes on peripheral blood smear
E. Positive direct Coombs test (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Positive direct Coombs test***
- The patient's symptoms, including **fatigue**, **weight loss**, **bruising**, **splenomegaly**, **lymphadenopathy**, and prior **lymphocytosis**, are highly suggestive of **chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)**.
- CLL can be complicated by **autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)**, which is indicated by **scleral icterus** and rapid onset fatigue, and confirmed by a **positive direct Coombs test**.
*Decreased serum ferritin*
- **Decreased serum ferritin** is indicative of **iron deficiency anemia**. While anemia can cause fatigue, the presence of **scleral icterus** and prominent **lymphocytosis** suggests a hemolytic component rather than iron deficiency.
- Furthermore, the clinical picture is more consistent with a lymphoproliferative disorder like CLL, which can cause anemia through AIHA or bone marrow infiltration, not primarily iron deficiency.
*Codocytes on peripheral blood smear*
- **Codocytes**, also known as **target cells**, are typically seen in conditions like **thalassemia**, **sickle cell anemia**, and **liver disease**, or after **splenectomy**.
- While liver involvement could explain scleral icterus and bruising, it does not fully explain the severe **lymphocytosis** and **lymphadenopathy** seen in this patient.
*Increased serum complement*
- **Increased serum complement levels** are generally associated with **acute inflammatory processes** or specific infections.
- In autoimmune hemolytic anemia, complement can be consumed, leading to **decreased** rather than increased levels, especially in cases mediated by complement-fixing antibodies.
*Degmacytes on peripheral blood smear*
- **Degmacytes**, or **bite cells**, are red blood cells from which a portion of the membrane has been removed by macrophages, typically seen in conditions like **G6PD deficiency** or when there is **oxidative stress**.
- While hemolytic anemia can be part of this patient's presentation, **G6PD deficiency** does not typically cause **lymphadenopathy** or prior **lymphocytosis**, making it less likely than AIHA secondary to CLL.
Question 132: A 55-year-old man presents with severe fatigue and fever. His past medical history is significant for a recent history of mononucleosis from which he fully recovered 8 weeks ago. On physical examination, the patient seems pale. A chest radiograph shows multiple enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes. A biopsy of one of the enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes is performed and shows the presence of multinucleated cells with an 'owl-eye' appearance in a hypocellular background. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A. Extranodal marginal zone lymphoma
B. Classical Hodgkin lymphoma (Correct Answer)
C. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
D. Nodular lymphocyte-predominant lymphoma
E. Follicular lymphoma
Explanation: ***Classical Hodgkin lymphoma***
- The presence of **Reed-Sternberg cells** with their characteristic **'owl-eye' appearance** in a hypocellular background is pathognomonic for **Classical Hodgkin lymphoma**.
- The patient's presentation with **fatigue**, **fever**, **pale appearance**, and **enlarged mediastinal lymph nodes** is highly suggestive of this diagnosis, particularly given the recent **mononucleosis**, which is associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and can precede Hodgkin lymphoma development.
*Extranodal marginal zone lymphoma*
- This lymphoma typically arises in **mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)**, often in the stomach in association with *H. pylori* infection.
- It is characterized by **small B cells** and **lymphoplasmacytic differentiation**, not Reed-Sternberg cells.
*Diffuse large B cell lymphoma*
- This is an **aggressive non-Hodgkin lymphoma** characterized by a proliferation of **large B cells**.
- While it can present with B symptoms and lymphadenopathy, the presence of **Reed-Sternberg cells** on biopsy rules out DLBCL.
*Nodular lymphocyte-predominant lymphoma*
- This is a rare type of Hodgkin lymphoma characterized by **lymphocyte-predominant (LP) cells** (popcorn cells), which are different from the classic Reed-Sternberg cells.
- It typically presents with **peripheral lymphadenopathy** and has a more indolent course than classical Hodgkin lymphoma.
*Follicular lymphoma*
- Follicular lymphoma is an **indolent non-Hodgkin lymphoma** characterized by a **follicular growth pattern** and composed of centrocytes and centroblasts.
- It does not feature the **Reed-Sternberg cells** with an 'owl-eye' appearance.
Question 133: A 60-year-old woman presents to the dermatologist with a lesion on her lower eyelid. She noticed it a month ago and looked like a pimple. She says that it has been bleeding lately with minimal trauma which alarmed her. She says the lesion has not grown in size and is not associated with pain or pruritus. No significant past medical history. Physical examination reveals a 0.5 cm lesion that has a pearly appearance with telangiectasia and central ulceration and curled borders. The lesion is biopsied. Histopathology reveals peripheral palisading cells with large, hyperchromatic nuclei and a high nuclear: cytoplasmic ratio. Which of the following mechanisms best describes the most common mode of spread of this patient’s neoplasm?
A. Hematogenous spread
B. Lymphatic spread
C. Local invasion via collagenase (Correct Answer)
D. Does not spread (tumor is typically benign)
E. Seeding
Explanation: ***Local invasion via collagenase***
- The patient's clinical presentation (pearly papule with telangiectasias, central ulceration, and rolled borders on the lower eyelid) and histological findings (peripheral **palisading cells** with large, hyperchromatic nuclei) are classic for **basal cell carcinoma (BCC)**.
- **BCC** is known for its **slow growth** and tendency for local tissue destruction through **collagenase-mediated invasion**, rarely metastasizing.
*Hematogenous spread*
- **Hematogenous spread** is characteristic of many aggressive cancers, such as melanoma or renal cell carcinoma, which directly enter the bloodstream.
- While possible in very rare, advanced cases of **BCC**, it is not the **most common** or typical mode of spread for this type of neoplasm.
*Lymphatic spread*
- **Lymphatic spread** is common for many carcinomas, like squamous cell carcinoma or breast cancer, where tumor cells invade lymphatic vessels and travel to regional lymph nodes.
- **Basal cell carcinoma** rarely metastasizes via the lymphatic system; its primary mode of invasion is local.
*Does not spread (tumor is typically benign)*
- While **basal cell carcinoma** grows slowly and rarely metastasizes, it is a **malignant neoplasm** that can cause significant local tissue destruction if left untreated.
- Referring to it as "typically benign" is incorrect, as its invasive growth pattern can lead to substantial morbidity.
*Seeding*
- **Seeding** (or transcoelomic spread) involves tumor cells detaching from the primary site and implanting onto a different surface within a body cavity (e.g., peritoneal carcinomatosis from ovarian cancer).
- This mechanism is not applicable to **basal cell carcinoma**, which originates from the epidermis and primarily invades adjacent dermal and subcutaneous tissues.
Question 134: A 70-year-old man presents for a routine checkup. He says that he recently completely lost hearing in both ears and has been having occasional flare-ups of osteoarthritis in his hands and hips. Past medical history is significant for hypertension diagnosed 25 years ago that is well controlled. Family history is significant for his brother, who recently died from prostate cancer. The patient's blood pressure is 126/84 mm Hg. Laboratory findings are significant for an alkaline phosphatase level that is more than 3 times the upper limit. Right upper quadrant ultrasound and non-contrast computed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis reveal no significant abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely complication of this patient’s condition?
A. Pulmonary metastasis
B. Hypoparathyroidism
C. Cushing syndrome
D. Osteosarcoma (Correct Answer)
E. Osteoid osteoma
Explanation: ***Osteosarcoma***
* The patient's presentation with **complete hearing loss**, **high alkaline phosphatase** (ALP) without other organ involvement, and **osteoarthritis** in weight-bearing joints suggests **Paget's disease of bone**.
* **Osteosarcoma** is a well-known, albeit rare, complication of long-standing Paget's disease, particularly in older patients, accounting for about 1% of cases where it undergoes sarcomatous degeneration.
*Pulmonary metastasis*
* While prostate cancer (family history) can lead to pulmonary metastases, there is no evidence of this in the patient's presentation or imaging, and the elevated **alkaline phosphatase** points to a bone turnover issue, not necessarily active malignancy with metastasis.
* The high ALP in this context is likely bone-specific and not related to metastatic prostate cancer, as the patient's prostate cancer status is unknown and there are no signs of primary tumor.
*Hypoparathyroidism*
* **Hypoparathyroidism** is characterized by **low calcium** and **low parathyroid hormone (PTH)** levels, which are not suggested by the clinical picture or the elevated ALP; ALP elevation is typically inversely related to hypoparathyroidism.
* Symptoms would include **tetany**, muscle cramps, and paresthesias, which are not present in this patient's history.
*Cushing syndrome*
* **Cushing syndrome** involves excessive **cortisol**, causing symptoms like central obesity, moon facies, and proximal muscle weakness, which are absent in this patient.
* It does **not explain the hearing loss** or the isolated, markedly elevated alkaline phosphatase related to bone activity.
*Osteoid osteoma*
* **Osteoid osteoma** is a benign bone tumor typically presenting in younger individuals with localized pain that is relieved by NSAIDs. It does not cause widespread bone remodeling, hearing loss, or a markedly elevated alkaline phosphatase.
* It is a **solitary lesion** and does not explain the systemic symptoms or the high ALP noted.
Question 135: A 34-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician for a routine check-up. She complains that she is not feeling her normal self, but has no specific complaints. After a routine examination, the physician orders a full thyroid workup, including TSH, T3, and free T4. He also refers her directly to an oncologist for an initial consultation. Which type of lymphadenopathy was most likely present during the physical examination that made the primary care physician react this way?
A. Generalized painful lymphadenopathy
B. Localized painful lymphadenopathy
C. Reactive lymphadenitis
D. Localized painless lymphadenopathy (Correct Answer)
E. Generalized painless lymphadenopathy
Explanation: ***Localized painless lymphadenopathy***
- The physician's immediate referral to an oncologist suggests a high suspicion of **malignancy**, which is often indicated by **painless, localized lymphadenopathy**.
- While the patient has diffuse, non-specific symptoms, the specific finding that led to an urgent oncology referral was likely a **firm, non-tender lymph node** in a particular region.
*Generalized painful lymphadenopathy*
- **Painful lymphadenopathy** typically indicates an **inflammatory** or **infectious process**, rather than a malignancy requiring immediate oncology consultation.
- While generalized findings could prompt further investigation, sudden, **widespread pain** often points away from primary malignancy.
*Localized painful lymphadenopathy*
- **Localized pain** in a lymph node is usually a sign of **acute inflammation or infection** in the drainage area.
- This presentation is less concerning for an urgent cancer diagnosis compared to a painless, firm node.
*Reactive lymphadenitis*
- **Reactive lymphadenitis** is characterized by enlarged, often **tender lymph nodes** in response to local infection or inflammation.
- It would not typically prompt an immediate cancer referral unless there were other concerning features.
*Generalized painless lymphadenopathy*
- While certain malignancies can cause **generalized painless lymphadenopathy** (e.g., lymphomas), the question emphasizes a specific finding in the physical exam that prompted the rapid referral to an oncologist.
- **Localized painless lymphadenopathy**, especially in areas like the supraclavicular or axillary regions, is often a more direct and concerning sign of malignancy.
Question 136: A 43-year-old man comes to the physician because of weight loss and swelling on the left side of his neck. Physical examination shows a firm, enlarged left upper cervical lymph node that is immobile. Immunohistochemical testing performed on a biopsy specimen from the lymph node stains positive for cytokeratin. Which of the following is the most likely site of the primary neoplasm in this patient?
A. Nerve sheath
B. Bone
C. Muscle
D. Skin
E. Nasopharynx (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Nasopharynx***
- A **firm, enlarged, immobile cervical lymph node** in the upper neck (Level II) with **cytokeratin positivity** indicates metastatic carcinoma of epithelial origin.
- **Nasopharyngeal carcinoma** classically presents with **cervical lymphadenopathy as the initial manifestation** in up to 90% of cases, often before other symptoms develop.
- The **left upper cervical location** is characteristic of nasopharyngeal primary tumors, which have a strong predilection for Level II nodal metastasis.
- **Weight loss** suggests systemic disease consistent with advanced carcinoma.
- Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is **cytokeratin-positive** (epithelial origin) and frequently presents with isolated neck mass **without nasal symptoms** in early stages.
*Skin*
- While cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma can metastasize to cervical nodes, it would require a **visible primary skin lesion** on the head, neck, or scalp, which would be evident on physical examination.
- Skin primaries more commonly metastasize to **posterior cervical nodes (Level V)** from scalp lesions, not upper anterior cervical nodes.
- This presentation is **far less common** than mucosal head and neck primaries for isolated cervical metastasis.
*Nerve sheath*
- Nerve sheath tumors such as **schwannomas** or **neurofibromas** are of mesenchymal origin and stain positive for **S-100 protein**, not cytokeratin.
- These tumors are typically **benign and mobile**, not firm and immobile like metastatic carcinoma.
*Bone*
- Primary bone tumors (e.g., osteosarcoma) do not express **cytokeratin** and would not present with isolated cervical lymphadenopathy.
- Bone tumors would show characteristic imaging findings and typically metastasize to lungs, not regional lymph nodes.
*Muscle*
- Muscle-derived tumors such as **rhabdomyosarcoma** or **leiomyosarcoma** are mesenchymal in origin.
- These tumors stain positive for **desmin** and **actin**, not cytokeratin, which is specific to epithelial cells.
Question 137: A 13-year-old boy is brought to the physician because of a 4-month history of worsening dizziness, nausea, and feeling clumsy. An MRI of the brain shows a well-demarcated, 4-cm cystic mass in the posterior fossa. The patient undergoes complete surgical resection of the mass. Pathologic examination of the surgical specimen shows parallel bundles of cells with eosinophilic, corkscrew-like processes. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pinealoma
B. Medulloblastoma
C. Pilocytic astrocytoma (Correct Answer)
D. Craniopharyngioma
E. Ependymoma
Explanation: **Pilocytic astrocytoma**
- The clinical presentation of **posterior fossa symptoms** (dizziness, nausea, clumsiness) in a child, coupled with an **MRI showing a cystic mass**, is highly suggestive of pilocytic astrocytoma.
- Histologically, this tumor is characterized by **Rosenthal fibers** (eosinophilic, corkscrew-like processes) and **bipolar cells arranged in parallel bundles**.
*Pinealoma*
- Pinealomas typically present with symptoms related to compression of the **aqueduct of Sylvius** (hydrocephalus) or the **superior colliculus** (Parinaud's syndrome), such as impaired upward gaze.
- They are located in the **pineal region**, not the posterior fossa, and their histology is distinct from the described features.
*Medulloblastoma*
- Medulloblastomas are common **posterior fossa tumors** in children, often presenting with similar symptoms.
- However, they are typically **solid, poorly demarcated** masses on imaging, and their histology reveals **small, round blue cells** with **Homer-Wright rosettes**, not Rosenthal fibers.
*Craniopharyngioma*
- Craniopharyngiomas are typically located in the **suprasellar region**, causing symptoms like **visual field defects** (bitemporal hemianopsia) and **endocrine dysfunction**.
- While they can be cystic, their location and characteristic histology (e.g., **wet keratin**, calcifications) differentiate them from the given case.
*Ependymoma*
- Ependymomas commonly arise from the **ventricular system**, especially the **fourth ventricle** in children, and can cause hydrocephalus and posterior fossa symptoms.
- Histologically, they are characterized by **perivascular pseudorosettes** and true rosettes, lacking the described corkscrew-like processes.
Question 138: A 69-year-old man comes to the physician because of a 1-week history of blood in the urine and fatigue. He also has had a 5.0-kg (11-lb) weight loss during the past month. Physical examination shows pallor and cachexia. A nontender right flank mass is palpated. A CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis shows a 5-cm right upper pole renal mass and several pulmonary lesions. A biopsy specimen of an affected area of the lung is obtained. A photomicrograph of the biopsy specimen is shown. Molecular evaluation of the specimen is most likely to show which of the following genetic changes?
A. NF1 gene inactivation
B. TSC1 gene insertion
C. WT1 gene deletion
D. PKD1 gene mutation
E. VHL gene deletion (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***VHL gene deletion***
- The clinical presentation of a **right flank mass** with **hematuria**, **weight loss**, and **pulmonary lesions** points to **renal cell carcinoma (RCC)**, which is further supported by the photomicrograph showing clear cells. The **VHL gene** is a tumor suppressor gene, and its inactivation (e.g., through deletion) is the most common genetic alteration in **clear cell RCC**.
- The image displays classic features of **clear cell RCC**, characterized by cells with **clear cytoplasm** due to abundant lipids and glycogen, arranged in **nests or cords with fine vascular networks**.
*NF1 gene inactivation*
- **NF1 gene inactivation** is associated with **neurofibromatosis type 1**, a genetic disorder that predisposes individuals to various tumors, including neurofibromas, optic gliomas, and pheochromocytomas, but not typically clear cell RCC.
- While patients with neurofibromatosis type 1 can develop kidney tumors, they are usually not clear cell RCC and the absence of other NF1 stigmata makes this less likely.
*TSC1 gene insertion*
- **TSC1 gene mutations** are linked to **tuberous sclerosis complex**, a genetic disorder characterized by tumor formation in multiple organs, including the brain, skin, heart, and kidneys (e.g., angiomyolipomas).
- While kidney tumors can occur, typical clear cell RCC is not the primary renal manifestation, and the image does not suggest angiomyolipoma.
*WT1 gene deletion*
- **WT1 gene deletion** is primarily associated with **Wilms' tumor (nephroblastoma)**, a childhood kidney cancer.
- This patient is 69 years old, making Wilms' tumor highly unlikely.
*PKD1 gene mutation*
- **PKD1 gene mutations** are responsible for **autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)**, a condition causing multiple cysts in the kidneys and other organs.
- While ADPKD can lead to kidney failure and may rarely be associated with RCC, the clinical presentation and microscopic image are not characteristic of ADPKD or its associated RCC type, which is often papillary RCC.
Question 139: A 58-year-old woman with HIV infection is brought to the emergency department because of a 2-week history of headaches, blurred vision, and confusion. Her current medications include antiretroviral therapy and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Neurological examination shows ataxia and memory impairment. Her CD4+ T-lymphocyte count is 90/μL. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis shows lymphocytic predominant pleocytosis, and PCR is positive for Epstein-Barr virus DNA. An MRI of the brain with contrast shows a solitary, weakly ring-enhancing lesion with well-defined borders involving the corpus callosum. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Glioblastoma multiforme
B. Cerebral toxoplasmosis
C. Primary cerebral lymphoma (Correct Answer)
D. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
E. AIDS dementia
Explanation: ***Primary cerebral lymphoma***
- The combination of **HIV infection** with a very low **CD4 count (<100/μL)**, **weakly ring-enhancing solitary lesion** in the corpus callosum, Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) DNA in CSF, and typical neurological symptoms points strongly to **primary cerebral lymphoma (PCL)**.
- PCL is a common **AIDS-defining illness** and is highly associated with **EBV infection** in immunocompromised individuals.
*Glioblastoma multiforme*
- While GBM is a primary brain tumor, it typically presents with a **strongly and irregularly enhancing lesion**, often with a **necrotic center**, rather than a solitary, weakly enhancing lesion.
- GBM is not directly associated with **HIV infection** or **EBV DNA in CSF**, which are key features in this case.
*Cerebral toxoplasmosis*
- Cerebral toxoplasmosis typically presents with **multiple ring-enhancing lesions**, often in the **basal ganglia**, rather than a solitary lesion as described.
- Diagnosis is usually confirmed by **serology for *Toxoplasma gondii*** and a positive response to empiric anti-toxoplasma therapy, not EBV DNA in CSF.
*Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy*
- PML is characterized by **non-enhancing white matter lesions** on MRI, rather than a ring-enhancing lesion.
- It is caused by the **JC virus**, not EBV, and typically presents with **rapidly progressive neurological deficits** without mass effect.
*AIDS dementia*
- AIDS dementia complex (now HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder) presents as **diffuse cerebral atrophy** and **white matter changes** on MRI, without focal or ring-enhancing lesions.
- It is a diagnosis of exclusion in HIV patients with cognitive decline, and the presence of a focal lesion with mass effect points to another etiology.
Question 140: An obese 63-year-old man comes to the physician because of 3 episodes of red urine over the past week. He has also had recurrent headaches and intermittent blurry vision during the past month. He has benign prostatic hyperplasia. He works as an attendant at a gas station. The patient has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for the last 40 years. He does not drink alcohol. Current medications include tamsulosin. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.4°F), pulse is 90/min, and blood pressure is 152/95 mm Hg. Examination shows a flushed face. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft and non-tender. Digital rectal examination shows an enlarged prostate with no nodules. Urinalysis shows:
Blood 3+
Glucose negative
Protein negative
WBC 1-2/hpf
RBC 40-45/hpf
RBC casts none
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Nephrolithiasis
B. Renal cell carcinoma (Correct Answer)
C. Transitional cell bladder carcinoma
D. IgA nephropathy
E. Renal oncocytoma
Explanation: ***Correct: Renal cell carcinoma***
- This patient presents with **painless gross hematuria**, a common initial symptom of renal cell carcinoma, especially concerning in a long-term **smoker** with hypertension.
- The constellation of **headaches, blurry vision, and flushed face** could indicate paraneoplastic syndromes associated with RCC, such as **erythrocytosis (polycythemia)** causing facial flushing and hyperviscosity symptoms, or **hypertension due to renin secretion** by the tumor.
- RCC is strongly associated with **smoking** (major risk factor) and **obesity**.
*Incorrect: Nephrolithiasis*
- While nephrolithiasis can cause hematuria, it is typically associated with **severe, colicky flank pain** radiating to the groin, which is absent in this patient.
- The patient's other symptoms like headaches, blurry vision, and flushed face are not characteristic of nephrolithiasis.
*Incorrect: Transitional cell bladder carcinoma*
- Bladder cancer often presents with **painless gross hematuria**, similar to RCC.
- However, the additional symptoms of **headaches, blurry vision, flushed face, and hypertension in a long-term smoker** point more strongly towards a renal mass with **paraneoplastic effects** (polycythemia, renin secretion) rather than solely bladder involvement.
- Urothelial carcinoma is also associated with smoking but does not typically cause these systemic paraneoplastic manifestations.
*Incorrect: IgA nephropathy*
- IgA nephropathy is characterized by recurrent episodes of **gross hematuria**, often following an upper respiratory or gastrointestinal infection (synpharyngitic hematuria).
- Urinalysis would typically show **dysmorphic RBCs and RBC casts** (indicating glomerular bleeding), which are **absent** here.
- The non-glomerular hematuria pattern (no casts, no proteinuria) argues against this diagnosis.
*Incorrect: Renal oncocytoma*
- Renal oncocytomas are **benign renal tumors** that are often asymptomatic and discovered incidentally on imaging.
- While they can cause hematuria, they are **rarely associated with systemic symptoms** like headaches, blurry vision, hypertension, or flushed face.
- Unlike RCC, oncocytomas do **not produce paraneoplastic syndromes** (no erythropoietin or renin secretion).