A 15-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, malaise, and shortness of breath for 1 week. Further history reveals that the patient experiences swelling in his face in the morning that disappears as the day progresses. Physical exam reveals hepatosplenomegaly. A complete blood count shows WBC 84,000 cells/mL. Most of this patient's leukocytes are likely to express which of the following cell surface markers?
Q92
A 58-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of fever, fatigue, generalized weakness, and bleeding gums. Past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, managed with metformin. The patient is afebrile, and her vitals are within normal limits. On physical examination, she has bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. A complete blood count and peripheral blood smear reveal normocytic anemia and leukocytosis. A bone marrow biopsy is performed, which shows > 20 % myeloperoxidase positive myeloblasts with splinter-shaped structures in the cytosol. The patient is started on a vitamin A derivative. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most likely responsible for this patient’s condition?
Q93
A 6-year-old girl is brought to the physician for pain and increasing swelling over her scalp for 1 month. She has not had any trauma to the area. There is no family or personal history of serious illness. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a 3-cm solitary, tender mass over the right parietal bone. X-ray of the skull shows a solitary osteolytic lesion. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.9 g/dL
Leukocyte count 7300/mm3
Serum
Na+ 136 mEq/L
K+ 3.7 mEq/L
Cl- 103 mEq/L
Ca2+ 9.1 mg/dL
Glucose 71 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q94
A 72-year-old man goes to his primary care provider for a checkup after some blood work showed lymphocytosis 3 months ago. He says he has been feeling a bit more tired lately but doesn’t complain of any other symptoms. Past medical history is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia. He takes lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and atorvastatin. Additionally, his right hip was replaced three years ago due to osteoarthritis. Family history is noncontributory. He drinks socially and does not smoke. Today, he has a heart rate of 95/min, respiratory rate of 17/min, blood pressure of 135/85 mm Hg, and temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F). On physical exam, he looks well. His heartbeat has a regular rate and rhythm and lungs that are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Additionally, he has mild lymphadenopathy of his cervical lymph nodes. A complete blood count with differential shows the following:
Leukocyte count 5,000/mm3
Red blood cell count 3.1 million/mm3
Hemoglobin 11.0 g/dL
MCV 95 um3
MCH 29 pg/cell
Platelet count 150,000/mm3
Neutrophils 40%
Lymphocytes 40%
Monocytes 5%
A specimen is sent for flow cytometry that shows a population that is CD 5, 19, 20, 23 positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q95
A 49-year-old man with HIV comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of intermittent diarrhea and abdominal pain. Abdominal examination shows mild, diffuse tenderness throughout the lower quadrants. His CD4+ T-lymphocyte count is 180/mm3 (normal ≥ 500/mm3). Colonoscopy shows multiple hemorrhagic nodules in the rectum and descending colon. Polymerase chain reaction of the lesions is positive for HHV-8. Histologic examination of the lesions is most likely to show which of the following findings?
Q96
A 7-year-old boy presents to his primary care physician for a general checkup. The patient has been feeling poorly for the past several weeks and has been losing weight. He states that he often feels weak and too tired to play with his friends. He is no longer interested in many recreational activities he used to be interested in. The patient's parents state that a few of their child's friends have been sick lately. His temperature is 102°F (38.9°C), blood pressure is 77/48 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, respirations are 24/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On exam, you note a fatigued appearing child who has lost 10 pounds since his last appointment. Left upper quadrant tenderness and a mass is noted on abdominal exam. Which of the following best describes the most likely diagnosis?
Q97
A 25-year-old man presents to his primary care provider complaining of scrotal swelling. He is a college student and plays basketball with his friends regularly. Two days ago, he sustained an injury close to his thigh. He does not have any significant past medical history. Today, his vitals are normal. A focused scrotal examination reveals a firm painless lump on the right testicle which is irregular and small. Ultrasound of the scrotum reveals a vascular 0.6 x 0.5 cm testicular mass. A pelvic lymph node exam is negative. He undergoes a radical orchiectomy and subsequent histopathological examination reveals sheets of small cuboidal cells, multinucleated cells, and large eosinophilic cells with pleomorphic nuclei consistent with choriocarcinoma. Which of the following tumor marker is most likely elevated in this patient?
Q98
A 55-year-old woman returns to her physician for a follow-up on the anemia that was detected last month. She received treatment for a nasopharyngeal infection 2 weeks ago. She was diagnosed with small cell lung cancer 2 years ago and was treated with combination chemotherapy. She was a 30-pack-year smoker and quit when she developed lung cancer. She has been a vegan for 2 years. The vital signs are within normal limits. Examination of the lungs, heart, abdomen, and extremities show no abnormalities. No lymphadenopathy is detected. The laboratory studies show the following:
Hemoglobin 8.5 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 105 μm3
Leukocyte count 4,500/mm3
Platelet count 160,000/mm3
An abdominal ultrasonography shows no organomegaly or other pathologic findings. A peripheral blood smear shows large and hypogranular platelets and neutrophils with hypo-segmented or ringed nuclei. No blasts are seen. A bone marrow aspiration shows hypercellularity. In addition, ring sideroblasts, hypogranulation, and hyposegmentation of granulocyte precursors, and megakaryocytes with disorganized nuclei are noted. Marrow myeloblasts are 4% in volume. Which of the following factors in this patient’s history most increased the risk of developing this condition?
Q99
A 66-year-old man comes to the physician for a 3-month history of fatigue. He has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. He had a transient ischemic attack 3 years ago. He drinks 3 beers a day, and sometimes a couple more on social occasions. He currently takes aspirin, simvastatin, hydrochlorothiazide, and metoprolol. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 78, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation on room air is 97%. He is in no distress but shows marked pallor and has multiple pinpoint, red, nonblanching spots on his extremities. On palpation, his spleen is significantly enlarged. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin of 8.0 g/dL, a leukocyte count of 80,000/mm3, and a platelet count of 34,000/mm3. A blood smear shows immature cells with large, prominent nucleoli and pink, elongated, needle-shaped cytoplasmic inclusions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q100
A 3-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his parents because of excessive growth and a large tongue. His past medical-social history reveals that he is a product of non-consanguineous marriage to a 20-year-old primigravida. He was born at full term with a birth weight of 3.8 kg (8.4 lb) and length of 52 cm (20.5 in). His temperature is 37.0ºC (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination shows a mass coming out from his umbilicus and his head circumference is below average compared with children his age. On systemic examination, hepatomegaly is present. Asymptomatic hypoglycemia (36 mg/dL) is also detected, for which dextrose infusion is given. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism that best explains the pathogenesis of this condition?
Neoplasia US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 91: A 15-year-old male presents to the emergency department with fever, malaise, and shortness of breath for 1 week. Further history reveals that the patient experiences swelling in his face in the morning that disappears as the day progresses. Physical exam reveals hepatosplenomegaly. A complete blood count shows WBC 84,000 cells/mL. Most of this patient's leukocytes are likely to express which of the following cell surface markers?
A. CD20
B. CD19 (Correct Answer)
C. CD10
D. CD16
E. CD2
Explanation: ***CD19***
- The clinical picture of a 15-year-old male with **fever**, **malaise**, **shortness of breath**, **facial swelling** (periorbital edema), and **hepatosplenomegaly** with a **WBC of 84,000 cells/mL** is highly suggestive of **acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL)**.
- **CD19** is a characteristic surface marker for **B-cell ALL**, which is the most common subtype of ALL in children and adolescents.
*CD20*
- **CD20** is also a B-cell marker, but its expression is usually seen in more mature B-cell lymphomas or leukemias, and less consistently or strongly in **precursor B-cell ALL** compared to CD19.
- While some B-ALL cases can express CD20, **CD19** is a more universal and defining marker for the lineage of the leukemic blasts in this context.
*CD10*
- **CD10** (common acute lymphoblastic leukemia antigen or CALLA) is a cell surface marker that can be expressed by **precursor B-cell ALL**, and its presence often correlates with a favorable prognosis.
- However, it is not expressed by all B-ALL cases and **CD19** is a more fundamental and consistently expressed pan-B-cell marker for these blasts.
*CD16*
- **CD16** (FcγRIII) is typically expressed on **natural killer (NK) cells**, neutrophils, macrophages, and some T-cells.
- It is not a characteristic marker for **leukemic blasts** in **acute lymphoblastic leukemia**.
*CD2*
- **CD2** is a surface glycoprotein found on most **T-lymphocytes** and **NK cells**.
- Its presence would indicate a **T-cell ALL**, which presents similarly but the most common form is B-cell ALL, for which CD19 is the definitive marker.
Question 92: A 58-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of fever, fatigue, generalized weakness, and bleeding gums. Past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus, managed with metformin. The patient is afebrile, and her vitals are within normal limits. On physical examination, she has bilateral cervical lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. A complete blood count and peripheral blood smear reveal normocytic anemia and leukocytosis. A bone marrow biopsy is performed, which shows > 20 % myeloperoxidase positive myeloblasts with splinter-shaped structures in the cytosol. The patient is started on a vitamin A derivative. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is most likely responsible for this patient’s condition?
A. t(9;22)
B. t(15;17) (Correct Answer)
C. t(14;18)
D. t(11;14)
E. t(8;14)
Explanation: ***t(15;17)***
* This translocation is pathognomonic for **acute promyelocytic leukemia (APML)**, a subtype of AML.
* The presence of **myeloperoxidase (MPO) positive myeloblasts** with **splinter-shaped structures** (Auer rods), coupled with a response to a **vitamin A derivative (all-trans retinoic acid - ATRA)**, are classic features of APML.
*t(9;22)*
* This translocation, known as the **Philadelphia chromosome**, is characteristic of **chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)**, not AML.
* CML typically presents with marked leukocytosis, a left shift, and often a very high white blood cell count, but not usually with Auer rods or responsiveness to ATRA.
*t(14;18)*
* This translocation is associated with **follicular lymphoma**, a **B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma**.
* Follicular lymphoma is a lymphoid malignancy, entirely distinct from myeloid leukemias.
*t(11;14)*
* This translocation is highly characteristic of **mantle cell lymphoma**, another type of **B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma**.
* Like follicular lymphoma, this is a lymphoid malignancy and does not involve myeloblasts or present with the clinical picture described.
*t(8;14)*
* This translocation is classically associated with **Burkitt lymphoma**, a highly aggressive **B-cell non-Hodgkin lymphoma**.
* Burkitt lymphoma presents with different cytological features (e.g., starry sky appearance) and is not a myeloid leukemia.
Question 93: A 6-year-old girl is brought to the physician for pain and increasing swelling over her scalp for 1 month. She has not had any trauma to the area. There is no family or personal history of serious illness. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows a 3-cm solitary, tender mass over the right parietal bone. X-ray of the skull shows a solitary osteolytic lesion. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 10.9 g/dL
Leukocyte count 7300/mm3
Serum
Na+ 136 mEq/L
K+ 3.7 mEq/L
Cl- 103 mEq/L
Ca2+ 9.1 mg/dL
Glucose 71 mg/dL
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Giant-cell tumor of bone
B. Langerhans cell histiocytosis (Correct Answer)
C. Ewing sarcoma
D. Multiple myeloma
E. Aneurysmal bone cyst
Explanation: ***Langerhans cell histiocytosis***
- The presentation of a **solitary osteolytic skull lesion** in a child, especially with pain and swelling, is highly suggestive of **Langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH)**.
- LCH can manifest as **eosinophilic granuloma**, which is a localized form primarily affecting bone, often the skull, and commonly presents in children.
*Giant-cell tumor of bone*
- This tumor typically occurs in **young adults (20s-40s)**, not children, and most commonly affects the **epiphysis of long bones**, such as the distal femur or proximal tibia.
- While it can be lytic, its demographic and usual location are inconsistent with this case.
*Ewing sarcoma*
- Ewing sarcoma also presents in children and young adults with bone pain and swelling, but it often involves the **diaphysis of long bones** or the pelvis.
- Radiographically, it is classically described as an **"onion-skin" periosteal reaction** or a permeative lesion, which is not indicated here.
*Multiple myeloma*
- This is a malignancy of **plasma cells** almost exclusively seen in **older adults**, typically over 60 years of age.
- It presents with widespread **punched-out lytic lesions** in the skull, vertebrae, and other bones, along with systemic symptoms like anemia and renal dysfunction.
*Aneurysmal bone cyst*
- An aneurysmal bone cyst is a benign, expansile, lytic bone lesion that can occur in children and often causes pain and swelling.
- However, it typically presents as an **eccentric, expansile lesion** with a thin rim of periosteal new bone formation, and more often affects the metaphysis of long bones or vertebrae, rather than a purely lytic lesion in the parietal bone without trauma.
Question 94: A 72-year-old man goes to his primary care provider for a checkup after some blood work showed lymphocytosis 3 months ago. He says he has been feeling a bit more tired lately but doesn’t complain of any other symptoms. Past medical history is significant for hypertension and hyperlipidemia. He takes lisinopril, hydrochlorothiazide, and atorvastatin. Additionally, his right hip was replaced three years ago due to osteoarthritis. Family history is noncontributory. He drinks socially and does not smoke. Today, he has a heart rate of 95/min, respiratory rate of 17/min, blood pressure of 135/85 mm Hg, and temperature of 36.8°C (98.2°F). On physical exam, he looks well. His heartbeat has a regular rate and rhythm and lungs that are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Additionally, he has mild lymphadenopathy of his cervical lymph nodes. A complete blood count with differential shows the following:
Leukocyte count 5,000/mm3
Red blood cell count 3.1 million/mm3
Hemoglobin 11.0 g/dL
MCV 95 um3
MCH 29 pg/cell
Platelet count 150,000/mm3
Neutrophils 40%
Lymphocytes 40%
Monocytes 5%
A specimen is sent for flow cytometry that shows a population that is CD 5, 19, 20, 23 positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (Correct Answer)
B. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
C. Aplastic anemia
D. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
E. Tuberculosis
Explanation: ***Chronic lymphocytic leukemia***
- The patient presents with mild **lymphadenopathy**, a **history of lymphocytosis**, and a **flow cytometry** showing cells positive for **CD5, CD19, CD20, and CD23**, which is pathognomonic for **CLL**.
- While the total leukocyte count is within normal limits due to the absolute neutrophil decrease, the persistent lymphocytosis and characteristic immunophenotype are highly indicative of CLL.
*Immune thrombocytopenic purpura*
- This condition is characterized by **isolated thrombocytopenia** caused by autoantibody-mediated platelet destruction, which is not supported by the patient's normal platelet count (150,000/mm3).
- While it can cause fatigue, it doesn't explain the lymphocytosis or the specific **CD marker profile**.
*Aplastic anemia*
- Aplastic anemia involves **pancytopenia** (decreased red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) due to bone marrow failure, which is not consistent with the patient's normal-range leukocyte and platelet counts.
- The patient's presentation with lymphocytosis and lymphadenopathy further makes this diagnosis unlikely.
*Acute lymphoblastic leukemia*
- **ALL** typically presents with symptoms related to **bone marrow failure** (anemia, thrombocytopenia, infections) and often very **high blast counts** in the peripheral blood and bone marrow.
- While it involves lymphocytes, the specific **CD5/19/20/23 co-expression** is characteristic of CLL, and ALL usually involves more aggressive symptoms and a different immunophenotype.
*Tuberculosis*
- **Tuberculosis** is an infectious disease that can cause **lymphadenopathy** and systemic symptoms like fatigue, but it is typically associated with a **caseating granulomatous inflammation** and is diagnosed via cultures or PCR rather than flow cytometry.
- It would not explain the specific **B-cell lymphocytosis** with the described immunophenotype.
Question 95: A 49-year-old man with HIV comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of intermittent diarrhea and abdominal pain. Abdominal examination shows mild, diffuse tenderness throughout the lower quadrants. His CD4+ T-lymphocyte count is 180/mm3 (normal ≥ 500/mm3). Colonoscopy shows multiple hemorrhagic nodules in the rectum and descending colon. Polymerase chain reaction of the lesions is positive for HHV-8. Histologic examination of the lesions is most likely to show which of the following findings?
A. Spindle-shaped cells with leukocytic infiltration (Correct Answer)
B. Mucin-filled cell with peripheral nucleus
C. Cords of atypical cells with extracellular mucin
D. Enlarged cells with intranuclear inclusion bodies
E. Polygonal cells with racket-shaped organelles
Explanation: ***Spindle-shaped cells with leukocytic infiltration***
- The presentation of an HIV-positive patient with a low CD4+ count, hemorrhagic nodules in the colon, and positive HHV-8 PCR is highly suggestive of **Kaposi sarcoma**.
- Histologically, Kaposi sarcoma is characterized by proliferation of **spindle-shaped endothelial cells**, often forming slit-like vascular channels, and an inflammatory infiltrate rich in lymphocytes and plasma cells.
*Mucin-filled cell with peripheral nucleus*
- This describes a **signet ring cell**, which is characteristic of diffuse-type gastric carcinoma and other mucinous adenocarcinomas, not Kaposi sarcoma.
- Signet ring cells contain a large **mucin vacuole** that pushes the nucleus to the periphery.
*Cords of atypical cells with extracellular mucin*
- This finding is typical of certain types of **adenocarcinoma**, particularly those with a mucinous component, such as mucinous colorectal carcinoma.
- It does not align with the known histopathology of Kaposi sarcoma, which is a vascular tumor.
*Enlarged cells with intranuclear inclusion bodies*
- This description is characteristic of a **cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection**, particularly in immunocompromised patients. Inclusions are often described as "owl's eye" inclusions.
- While CMV can cause gastrointestinal symptoms in HIV patients, the positive HHV-8 PCR points specifically to Kaposi sarcoma.
*Polygonal cells with racket-shaped organelles*
- This describes the characteristic cells of **Langerhans cell histiocytosis**, where the cells are Langerhans cells containing Birbeck granules (racket-shaped organelles).
- This condition is a proliferative disorder of dendritic cells and does not fit the clinical or pathological findings of this case.
Question 96: A 7-year-old boy presents to his primary care physician for a general checkup. The patient has been feeling poorly for the past several weeks and has been losing weight. He states that he often feels weak and too tired to play with his friends. He is no longer interested in many recreational activities he used to be interested in. The patient's parents state that a few of their child's friends have been sick lately. His temperature is 102°F (38.9°C), blood pressure is 77/48 mmHg, pulse is 110/min, respirations are 24/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. On exam, you note a fatigued appearing child who has lost 10 pounds since his last appointment. Left upper quadrant tenderness and a mass is noted on abdominal exam. Which of the following best describes the most likely diagnosis?
A. Smudge cells on peripheral smear
B. TdT positive cells (Correct Answer)
C. Infection sensitive to oseltamivir
D. Auer rods on peripheral smear
E. Parental mistreatment of the child
Explanation: ***TdT positive cells***
- This patient's symptoms, including **fever**, **weight loss**, **fatigue**, and **splenomegaly** (left upper quadrant tenderness and mass), are highly suggestive of **Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)**.
- **Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)** is a DNA polymerase found in immature lymphocytes (blasts) and is a key marker for diagnosing ALL.
- ALL is the **most common childhood malignancy**, particularly prevalent in children aged 2-10 years.
*Smudge cells on peripheral smear*
- **Smudge cells** are characteristic of **Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)**, which predominantly affects older adults and is rare in children.
- The clinical picture of rapid decline and significant systemic symptoms in a child is inconsistent with CLL.
*Infection sensitive to oseltamivir*
- Oseltamivir is an **antiviral medication for influenza**, and while the child has a fever, the profound **weight loss**, **fatigue**, and **abdominal mass** point towards a hematologic malignancy, not a typical viral infection.
- Viral infections rarely present with such a significant abdominal mass or sustained constitutional symptoms for several weeks.
*Auer rods on peripheral smear*
- **Auer rods** are cytoplasmic inclusions pathognomonic for **Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML)**.
- While AML can occur in children, **ALL is far more common in this age group** (85% of childhood leukemias), and the presentation is highly classic for ALL, making TdT positivity the best diagnostic marker.
*Parental mistreatment of the child*
- While some symptoms (weight loss, fatigue) could potentially be seen in neglect, the presence of **fever**, **splenomegaly** (abdominal mass), and **hypotension** points strongly to a severe underlying medical condition.
- Objective signs of systemic illness necessitate a thorough medical workup rather than suspicion of abuse.
Question 97: A 25-year-old man presents to his primary care provider complaining of scrotal swelling. He is a college student and plays basketball with his friends regularly. Two days ago, he sustained an injury close to his thigh. He does not have any significant past medical history. Today, his vitals are normal. A focused scrotal examination reveals a firm painless lump on the right testicle which is irregular and small. Ultrasound of the scrotum reveals a vascular 0.6 x 0.5 cm testicular mass. A pelvic lymph node exam is negative. He undergoes a radical orchiectomy and subsequent histopathological examination reveals sheets of small cuboidal cells, multinucleated cells, and large eosinophilic cells with pleomorphic nuclei consistent with choriocarcinoma. Which of the following tumor marker is most likely elevated in this patient?
A. Placental alkaline phosphatase
B. Prostate-specific antigen
C. Carcinoembryonic antigen
D. Testosterone
E. Beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Beta-human chorionic gonadotropin***
- **Choriocarcinoma** is a rare and aggressive type of germ cell tumor that secretes **beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG)**, which serves as a crucial tumor marker for diagnosis and monitoring.
- The presence of multinucleated cells and large eosinophilic cells (syncytiotrophoblasts) in the histopathology is characteristic of choriocarcinoma, and these cells are responsible for β-hCG production.
*Placental alkaline phosphatase*
- **Placental alkaline phosphatase (PLAP)** is primarily associated with **seminoma**, another type of testicular germ cell tumor, but is not typically elevated in choriocarcinoma.
- While PLAP can be detected in some non-seminomatous germ cell tumors, it is not the primary or most sensitive marker for choriocarcinoma.
*Prostate-specific antigen*
- **Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)** is a tumor marker used for the screening and monitoring of **prostate cancer** and is not associated with testicular germ cell tumors.
- Testicular pathology would not lead to an elevation of PSA.
*Carcinoembryonic antigen*
- **Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)** is a tumor marker commonly associated with **colorectal cancer**, as well as other adenocarcinomas such as those of the lung, breast, and pancreas, but not testicular cancers.
- Its elevation would not be expected in a patient with choriocarcinoma.
*Testosterone*
- **Testosterone** is the primary male sex hormone produced by the testicles and adrenal glands; its levels can be affected by testicular pathologies but it is **not a tumor marker** for choriocarcinoma.
- While some testicular tumors can lead to hormonal imbalances, testosterone itself does not serve as a diagnostic or monitoring marker for testicular choriocarcinoma.
Question 98: A 55-year-old woman returns to her physician for a follow-up on the anemia that was detected last month. She received treatment for a nasopharyngeal infection 2 weeks ago. She was diagnosed with small cell lung cancer 2 years ago and was treated with combination chemotherapy. She was a 30-pack-year smoker and quit when she developed lung cancer. She has been a vegan for 2 years. The vital signs are within normal limits. Examination of the lungs, heart, abdomen, and extremities show no abnormalities. No lymphadenopathy is detected. The laboratory studies show the following:
Hemoglobin 8.5 g/dL
Mean corpuscular volume 105 μm3
Leukocyte count 4,500/mm3
Platelet count 160,000/mm3
An abdominal ultrasonography shows no organomegaly or other pathologic findings. A peripheral blood smear shows large and hypogranular platelets and neutrophils with hypo-segmented or ringed nuclei. No blasts are seen. A bone marrow aspiration shows hypercellularity. In addition, ring sideroblasts, hypogranulation, and hyposegmentation of granulocyte precursors, and megakaryocytes with disorganized nuclei are noted. Marrow myeloblasts are 4% in volume. Which of the following factors in this patient’s history most increased the risk of developing this condition?
A. Tobacco smoking
B. Chemotherapy (Correct Answer)
C. Epstein-Barr virus infection
D. Vegan diet
E. Small cell lung cancer
Explanation: ***Chemotherapy***
- The patient's presentation with **macrocytic anemia**, **cytopenias**, and **dysplastic features** in the peripheral blood and bone marrow (e.g., ring sideroblasts, hypogranular neutrophils, disorganized megakaryocytes) strongly suggests **myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)**.
- Previous **chemotherapy** for small cell lung cancer is a significant risk factor for developing **therapy-related MDS (t-MDS)** due to its mutagenic effects on hematopoietic stem cells.
*Tobacco smoking*
- While **tobacco smoking** is a risk factor for various cancers, including lung cancer, and can contribute to other hematologic disorders, it is not the primary or most direct risk factor for this specific presentation of **myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)** compared to prior chemotherapy.
- MDS linked to smoking typically involves different genetic mutations than t-MDS, and the *cytotoxic effects of chemotherapy* are a more direct cause of the marrow dysplasia seen here.
*Epstein-Barr virus infection*
- **Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection** is associated with various lymphoproliferative disorders and certain cancers (e.g., Hodgkin lymphoma, nasopharyngeal carcinoma), but it is not a known direct cause or major risk factor for developing **myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS)**.
- The patient's recent nasopharyngeal infection is likely unrelated to the underlying chronic marrow disorder.
*Vegan diet*
- A **vegan diet** can lead to **vitamin B12 deficiency**, which can cause **macrocytic anemia** and sometimes pancytopenia, mimicking some features of MDS (e.g., high MCV).
- However, it does not explain the extensive **dysplastic features** observed in the peripheral smear and bone marrow (ring sideroblasts, hypo-segmented granulocytes, disorganized megakaryocytes) or the 4% marrow myeloblasts, which are characteristic of MDS and not typically found solely due to nutrient deficiencies.
*Small cell lung cancer*
- The **small cell lung cancer** itself is the primary disease that *necessitated* the chemotherapy, but it is not the direct causal factor for the development of the **myelodysplastic syndrome**.
- It is the **treatment** for the cancer (chemotherapy) that induces genomic damage in hematopoietic stem cells, leading to therapy-related MDS.
Question 99: A 66-year-old man comes to the physician for a 3-month history of fatigue. He has hypertension and hyperlipidemia. He had a transient ischemic attack 3 years ago. He drinks 3 beers a day, and sometimes a couple more on social occasions. He currently takes aspirin, simvastatin, hydrochlorothiazide, and metoprolol. His temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 78, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation on room air is 97%. He is in no distress but shows marked pallor and has multiple pinpoint, red, nonblanching spots on his extremities. On palpation, his spleen is significantly enlarged. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin of 8.0 g/dL, a leukocyte count of 80,000/mm3, and a platelet count of 34,000/mm3. A blood smear shows immature cells with large, prominent nucleoli and pink, elongated, needle-shaped cytoplasmic inclusions. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Cirrhosis
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
D. Myelodysplastic syndrome
E. Acute myelogenous leukemia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Acute myelogenous leukemia**
- The presence of **fatigue**, **marked pallor**, **splenomegaly**, **petechiae** (pinpoint, red, nonblanching spots), and **pancytopenia** (anemia, leukocytosis with immature forms, thrombocytopenia) are highly suggestive of acute leukemia.
- The blood smear findings of **immature cells with large, prominent nucleoli** and **pink, elongated, needle-shaped cytoplasmic inclusions** (likely **Auer rods**) are pathognomonic for **acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)**.
*Cirrhosis*
- While **splenomegaly** and **pancytopenia** can occur in cirrhosis due to portal hypertension and hypersplenism, the specific blood smear findings of **immature cells** and **Auer rods** are not characteristic of cirrhosis.
- The patient's alcohol intake could contribute to cirrhosis, but the hematological picture points definitively away from liver disease as the primary diagnosis.
*Acute lymphoblastic leukemia*
- Although acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) presents with **fatigue**, **pallor**, and **pancytopenia**, the **immature cells** in ALL are lymphoblasts, which **lack Auer rods**.
- The specific morphology described (large, prominent nucleoli, needle-shaped cytoplasmic inclusions) is inconsistent with ALL.
*Chronic lymphocytic leukemia*
- CLL typically presents with **lymphocytosis** (extremely high leukocyte count composed of mature-appearing lymphocytes) and often **splenomegaly**, but usually **without significant anemia or thrombocytopenia** at presentation.
- The presence of **immature cells** and **Auer rods** is inconsistent with CLL, which involves mature B-lymphocytes.
*Myelodysplastic syndrome*
- MDS can cause **cytopenias** and may involve **immature blast forms**, but the blast count is typically less than 20% in the bone marrow (or periphery) and it does **not typically present with Auer rods** in circulating blasts.
- The profound leukocytosis with highly immature cells and specific inclusions points beyond MDS to an acute leukemia.
Question 100: A 3-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his parents because of excessive growth and a large tongue. His past medical-social history reveals that he is a product of non-consanguineous marriage to a 20-year-old primigravida. He was born at full term with a birth weight of 3.8 kg (8.4 lb) and length of 52 cm (20.5 in). His temperature is 37.0ºC (98.6°F), pulse is 90/min, and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination shows a mass coming out from his umbilicus and his head circumference is below average compared with children his age. On systemic examination, hepatomegaly is present. Asymptomatic hypoglycemia (36 mg/dL) is also detected, for which dextrose infusion is given. Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism that best explains the pathogenesis of this condition?
A. Mutation in tumor suppressor gene on the long arm of chromosome 22
B. Mutation in tumor suppressor gene on the long arm of chromosome 17
C. Nondisjunction of chromosome 21
D. Mutation in tumor suppressor gene on the short arm of chromosome 11 (Correct Answer)
E. Mutation in tumor suppressor gene on the long arm of chromosome 11
Explanation: ***Mutation in tumor suppressor gene on the short arm of chromosome 11***
- The presented symptoms (excessive growth, macroglossia, umbilical mass/omphalocele, hepatomegaly, and hypoglycemia) in a 3-year-old boy are characteristic of **Beckwith-Wiedemann Syndrome (BWS)**.
- BWS is a **genomic imprinting disorder** involving a cluster of imprinted genes on the **short arm of chromosome 11 (11p15.5)**, which includes the tumor suppressor gene *CDKN1C* and growth-promoting gene *IGF2*.
- Loss of function of tumor suppressor genes and/or overexpression of growth factors in this region lead to the overgrowth phenotype and increased tumor risk (Wilms tumor, hepatoblastoma).
*Mutation in tumor suppressor gene on the long arm of chromosome 22*
- Mutations on the long arm of chromosome 22 are associated with **neurofibromatosis type 2 (NF2)** at 22q12 or deletions at 22q11.2 causing **DiGeorge syndrome** (developmental defects, not overgrowth).
- The clinical features described, such as macrosomia, macroglossia, and omphalocele, do not align with disorders linked to chromosome 22q alterations.
*Mutation in tumor suppressor gene on the long arm of chromosome 17*
- A mutation in the tumor suppressor gene *TP53* on the short arm of chromosome 17 (17p13.1) is associated with **Li-Fraumeni syndrome**, which predisposes individuals to various cancers including sarcomas, breast cancer, and brain tumors.
- This genetic alteration does not explain the characteristic features of BWS, such as overgrowth, macroglossia, omphalocele, or neonatal hypoglycemia.
*Nondisjunction of chromosome 21*
- **Nondisjunction of chromosome 21** leads to **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)**, characterized by distinct facial features, intellectual disability, hypotonia, and congenital heart defects.
- This condition does not present with the excessive growth, macroglossia, omphalocele, or hepatomegaly seen in this patient; rather, Down syndrome is associated with growth retardation.
*Mutation in tumor suppressor gene on the long arm of chromosome 11*
- While chromosome 11 is involved in BWS, the critical region for this syndrome is on the **short arm (11p15.5)**, not the long arm.
- Alterations on the long arm of chromosome 11 (11q) are linked to other genetic disorders, such as certain forms of leukemia (MLL gene rearrangements) or ataxia-telangiectasia, which do not match the presented clinical picture.