Operative vaginal delivery — MCQs

A 26-year-old primigravid woman at 39 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor. Pregnancy was complicated by mild oligohydramnios detected a week ago, which was managed with hydration. Her pulse is 92/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 134/76 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows 100% cervical effacement and 10 cm cervical dilation; the vertex is at 0 station. Cardiotocography is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 34-year-old pregnant woman with unknown medical history is admitted to the hospital at her 36th week of gestation with painful contractions. She received no proper prenatal care during the current pregnancy. On presentation, her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure is 110/60 mm Hg, heart rate is 102/min, respiratory rate is 23/min, and temperature is 37.0℃ (98.6℉). Fetal heart rate is 179/min. Pelvic examination shows a closed non-effaced cervix. During the examination, the patient experiences a strong contraction accompanied by a high-intensity pain after which contractions disappear. The fetal heart rate becomes 85/min and continues to decrease. The fetal head is now floating. Which of the following factors would most likely be present in the patient’s history?

A 36-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 37 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department because of sparse vaginal bleeding for 3 hours. She also noticed the bleeding 3 days ago. She has had no prenatal care. Both of her previous children were delivered by lower segment transverse cesarean section. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.8°F), pulse is 90/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg. The abdomen is nontender, and no contractions are felt. Examination shows that the fetus is in a vertex presentation. The fetal heart rate is 160/min and shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Three hours after the onset of labor, a 39-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 40 weeks' gestation has sudden worsening of abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. 18 months ago her first child was delivered by a lower segment transverse cesarean section because of cephalopelvic disproportion. Her temperature is 37.5°C (99.5°F), pulse is 120/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. Examination shows abdominal tenderness and the absence of uterine contractions. The cervix is 100% effaced and 10 cm dilated; the vertex is at -3 station. An hour before, the vertex was at 0 station. Cardiotocography shows fetal bradycardia, late decelerations, and decreased amplitude of uterine contractions. Which of the following is the most specific feature of this patient's condition?

A 4430-g (9-lb 10-oz) male newborn is delivered at term to a 27-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1. The second stage of labor was prolonged and required vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery. Apgar scores are 9 and 10 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. Examination of the neonate 2 hours later shows a soft, nonpulsatile swelling over the left parietal bone that does not cross suture lines. Vital signs are within normal limits. The pupils are equal and reactive to light. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Heart sounds are normal. The spine is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Immediately following prolonged delivery of the placenta at 40 weeks gestation, a 32-year-old multiparous woman develops vaginal bleeding. Other than mild asthma, the patient’s pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has attended many prenatal appointments and followed the physician's advice about screening for diseases, laboratory testing, diet, and exercise. Previous pregnancies were uncomplicated. She has no history of a serious illness. She is currently on intravenous infusion of oxytocin. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure is 108/60 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 17/min. Uterine palpation reveals a soft enlarged fundus that extends above the umbilicus. Based on the assessment of the birth canal and placenta, which of the following options is the most appropriate initial step in patient management?

A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 39 weeks gestation presents to the hospital with painful contractions and a rupture of membranes. She reports that the contractions started a couple hours ago and are now occurring every 4 minutes. She is accompanied by her husband who states, “her water broke an hour ago before we left for the hospital." The patient denies vaginal bleeding, and fetal movements are normal. The patient has attended all her pre-natal visits without pregnancy complications. She has no chronic medical conditions and takes only pre-natal vitamins. Her blood pressure is 110/75 mm Hg and pulse is 82/min. A fetal heart rate tracing shows a pulse of 140/min with moderate variability and no decelerations. Cervical examination reveals a cervix that is 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced with the fetal head at -1 station. The patient forgoes epidural anesthesia. During which of the following scenarios should a cesarean delivery be considered for this patient?

A 63-year-old woman with a past medical history significant for hypertension presents to the outpatient clinic for evaluation of vaginal dryness, loss of libido, and hot flashes. These symptoms have been progressively worsening over the past 3 months. Her vital signs are: blood pressure 131/81 mm Hg, pulse 68/min, and respiratory rate 16/min. She is afebrile. On further review of systems, she endorses having irregular periods for almost a year, and asks if she has begun menopause. Which of the following parameters is required to formally diagnosis menopause in this patient?

A 37-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 35 weeks' gestation is brought to the emergency department for the evaluation of continuous, dark, vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain for one hour. Her first child was delivered by lower segment transverse cesarean section because of a nonreassuring fetal heart rate. The patient has a history of hypertension and has been noncompliant with her hypertensive regimen. Her medications include methyldopa, folic acid, and a multivitamin. Her pulse is 90/min, respirations are 16/min, and blood pressure is 145/90 mm Hg. The abdomen is tender, and hypertonic contractions can be felt. There is blood on the vulva, the introitus, and on the medial aspect of both thighs. The fetus is in a breech presentation. The fetal heart rate is 180/min with recurrent decelerations. Which of the following is the cause of fetal compromise?

A 57-year-old, multiparous, woman comes to the physician because of urinary leakage for the past 6 months. She involuntarily loses a small amount of urine after experiencing a sudden, painful sensation in the bladder. She has difficulty making it to the bathroom in time, and feels nervous when there is no bathroom nearby. She also started having to urinate at night. She does not have hematuria, abdominal pain, or pelvic pain. She has insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus type 2, and underwent surgical treatment for symptomatic pelvic organ prolapse 3 years ago. Menopause was 6 years ago, and she is not on hormone replacement therapy. She works as an administrative manager, and drinks 3–4 cups of coffee daily at work. On physical examination, there is no suprapubic tenderness. Pelvic examination shows no abnormalities and Q-tip test was negative. Ultrasound of the bladder shows a normal post-void residual urine. Which of the following is the primary underlying etiology for this patient's urinary incontinence?