Screening tests — MCQs

A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, at 12 weeks' gestation comes to her obstetrician for a prenatal visit. Screening tests in the first trimester showed a decreased level of pregnancy-associated plasma protein and an increased level of β-hCG. A genetic disorder is suspected. Which of the following results from an additional diagnostic test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

A 33-year-old woman comes to the physician for week-long episodes of headaches that have occurred every four weeks for the last year. During these episodes she also has bouts of lower abdominal pain and breast tenderness. She is often irritable at these times. Her menses occur at regular 28-day intervals with moderate flow. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She drinks two to five beers on social occasions and used to smoke a pack of cigarettes daily, but stopped 6 months ago. Her mother and sister have hypothyroidism. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?

A 32-year-old woman presents to her physician concerned about wet spots on the inside part of her dress shirts, which she thinks may be coming from one of her breasts. She states that it is painless and that the discharge is usually blood-tinged. She denies any history of malignancy in her family and states that she has been having regular periods since they first started at age 13. She does not have any children. The patient has normal vitals and denies any cough, fever. On exam, there are no palpable masses, and the patient does not have any erythema or induration. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 40-year-old woman in her 18th week of pregnancy based on the last menstrual period (LMP) presents to her obstetrician for an antenatal check-up. The antenatal testing is normal, except the quadruple screen results which are given below: Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MS-AFP) low Unconjugated estriol low Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) high Inhibin-A high Which of the following conditions is the most likely the cause of the abnormal quadruple screen?

An otherwise healthy 45-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 2-week history of an itchy rash on her left nipple. The rash began as small vesicles on the nipple and spread to the areola. It has become a painful ulcer with yellow, watery discharge that is occasionally blood-tinged. She has asthma treated with theophylline and inhaled salbutamol. Her younger sister was diagnosed with endometrial cancer a year ago. Examination shows a weeping, ulcerated lesion involving the entire left nipple-areolar complex. There are no breast masses, dimpling, or axillary lymphadenopathy. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 35-year-old woman gravida 2, para 1, comes to the physician for her first prenatal visit. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. She is not sure about the date of her last menstrual period. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 10-week gestation. An ultrasound examination confirms the gestational age and shows one fetus with no indication of multiple gestations. During counseling on pregnancy risks and possible screening and diagnostic tests, the patient states she would like to undergo screening for Down syndrome. She would prefer immediate and secure screening with a low risk to herself and the fetus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management at this time?

A 32-year-old woman makes an appointment with her family physician for a new-employment physical examination. She has no complaints and the physical examination is unremarkable. The family history is negative for malignancies and inherited disorders. During the visit, she provides the results of a Pap smear taken last week, which reports the presence of atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US), along with a test for HPV, which was negative. The previous Pap smear was normal (negative for intraepithelial lesions or malignancy). When would you recommend that she have another Pap smear?

A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician because of painless lesions on the vulva that she first noticed 2 days ago. She does not have any urinary symptoms. She has gastroesophageal reflux disease for which she takes omeprazole. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 10 years. She is sexually active with multiple partners and uses condoms inconsistently. Examination shows clusters of several 3- to 5-mm raised lesions with a rough texture on the vulva. Application of a dilute acetic acid solution turns the lesions white. An HIV test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 37-year-old woman presents for prenatal counseling at 18 weeks gestation. The patient tells you that her sister recently had a child with Down's syndrome, and the patient would like prenatal screening for Down's in her current pregnancy. Which of the following prenatal screening tests and results would raise concern for Down's syndrome?

A 33-year-old pregnant woman undergoes a routine quad-screen during her second trimester. The quad-screen results demonstrate the following: decreased alpha-fetoprotein, increased Beta-hCG, decreased estriol, and increased inhibin A. A presumptive diagnosis is made based upon these findings and is later confirmed with genetic testing. After birth, this child is at greatest risk for which of the following hematologic malignancies?