Screening tests — MCQs

A 30-year-old woman comes to the physician for a pelvic examination and Pap smear. Menses have occurred at regular 28-day intervals since menarche at the age of 11 years and last for 5 days. The first day of her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She is sexually active with her husband and takes oral contraceptive pills. Her last Pap smear was 3 years ago. She has never had a mammography. Her mother and maternal aunt died of breast cancer. Pelvic examination shows a normal vagina and cervix. Bimanual examination shows a normal-sized uterus and no palpable adnexal masses. Which of the following health maintenance recommendations is most appropriate at this time?

A 17-year-old girl presents to her pediatrician for a wellness visit. She currently feels well but is concerned that she has not experienced menarche. She reports to recently developing headaches and describes them as pulsating, occurring on the left side of her head, associated with nausea, and relieved by ibuprofen. She is part of the school’s rugby team and competitively lifts weights. She is currently sexually active and uses condoms infrequently. She denies using any forms of contraception or taking any medications. Her temperature is 98.6°F (37°C), blood pressure is 137/90 mmHg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 17/min. On physical exam, she has normal breast development and pubic hair is present. A pelvic exam is performed. A urine hCG test is negative. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

A 24-year-old woman calls her gynecologist complaining of vaginal odor and vaginal discharge. She had an intrauterine device placed last year and does not use condoms with her boyfriend. She has a past medical history of constipation and depression. She recently was successfully treated for a urinary tract infection with a 2-day course of antibiotics. Physical exam demonstrates an off-white vaginal discharge and a strong odor. Pelvic exam demonstrates an absence of cervical motion tenderness and no adnexal tenderness. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 19-year-old woman presents for a sports physical. She says she feels healthy and has no concerns. Past medical history is significant for depression and seasonal allergies. Current medications are fluoxetine and oral estrogen/progesterone contraceptive pills. Family history is significant for a sister with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). The patient denies current or past use of alcohol, recreational drugs, or smoking. She reports that she has been on oral birth control pills since age 14 and uses condoms inconsistently. No history of STDs. She is sexually active with her current boyfriend, who was treated for chlamydia 2 years ago. She received and completed the HPV vaccination series starting at age 11. Her vital signs include: temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), pulse 97/min, respiratory rate 16/min, blood pressure 120/75 mm Hg. Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following are the recommended guidelines for cervical cancer screening for this patient at this time?

A 22-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 1-month history of a light greenish, milky discharge from both breasts. There is no mastalgia. She has hypothyroidism and migraine headaches. Her mother has breast cancer and is currently undergoing chemotherapy. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals with moderate flow; her last menstrual period was 1 week ago. Current medications include levothyroxine and propranolol. She appears anxious. Her temperature is 37.1°C (98.78F), pulse is 82/min, and blood pressure is 116/72 mm Hg. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Breast examination is unremarkable. Pelvic examination shows a normal vagina and cervix. Serum studies show: Thyroid-stimulating hormone 3.5 μU/mL Progesterone 0.7 ng/mL (Follicular phase: N < 3) Prolactin 18 ng/mL Follicle-stimulating hormone 20 mIU/mL A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 32-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist for an annual visit. She is currently sexually active with 3 men and reports the consistent use of condoms. She denies abnormal vaginal odor, discharge, or dysuria. A routine Pap test is performed, which shows atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US). Her last Pap test was normal. A reflex human papillomavirus (HPV) test is negative. What is the best next step in the management of this patient?

A 65-year-old G2P2 presents to her physician for a routine gynecologic check-up. She has been menopausal since 54 years of age, but has not been on hormone replacement therapy. Both pregnancies and deliveries were uneventful. Her husband has been her only sexual partner for the past 30 years. At 45 years of age she underwent a myomectomy for a submucosal uterine fibroid. She has never had any menstrual cycle disturbances. She does not smoke cigarettes and drinks alcohol occasionally. She has had normal Pap smears for the past 30 years. She also had HPV screening 5 years ago with the Pap smear. The co-test results were negative. Her Pap smear at 42 years of age showed a low-grade intraepithelial lesion, but the colposcopy was normal, and the subsequent Pap smear were normal. The screening tests obtained at the current presentation show the following results: Pap test HPV test Specimen adequacy: satisfactory for evaluation Interpretation: negative for intraepithelial lesion or malignancy Comments: atrophic cellular pattern negative Which of the following would be the most appropriate consideration regarding further screening of this patient?

A 38-year-old woman undergoes a diagnostic hysteroscopy for a 6-month history of small volume intermenstrual bleeding with no other complaints. There is no history of pelvic pain, painful intercourse, or vaginal discharge other than blood. During the procedure, a red beefy pedunculated mass is seen arising from the endometrium of the anterior wall of the uterus that has well-demarcated borders. This mass is resected and sent for histopathological examination. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A 27-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. She feels well. She had a chlamydia infection at the age of 22 years that was treated. Her only medication is an oral contraceptive. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 6 years. She has recently been sexually active with 3 male partners and uses condoms inconsistently. Her last Pap test was 4 years ago and results were normal. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A Pap test shows atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 28-year-old woman presents to an outpatient clinic for a routine gynecologic examination. She is concerned about some swelling on the right side of her vagina. She senses that the right side is larger than the left and complains that sometimes that area itches and there is a dull ache. She denies any recent travel or history of trauma. She mentions that she is sexually active in a monogamous relationship with her husband; they use condoms inconsistently. On physical examination her vital signs are normal. Examination of the pelvic area reveals a soft, non-tender, mobile mass that measures approximately 2 cm in the greatest dimension at the 8 o’clock position on the right side of the vulva, just below the vaginal wall. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?