A 31-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist for cervical cancer screening. She has no complaints and is sexually active. There is no history of cervical cancer or other malignancy in her family. A complete physical examination, including an examination of the genitourinary system, is normal. A sampling of the cervix is performed at the transformation zone and is sent for a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear examination and high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) DNA testing. After examination of the smear, the cytopathologist informs the gynecologist that it is negative for high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions, but that atypical squamous cells are present in the sample and it is difficult to distinguish between reactive changes and low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. Atypical glandular cells are not present. The high-risk HPV DNA test is positive. Which of the following is the next best step in this patient’s management?
Q22
A 24-year-old G1P1 presents to her physician to discuss the results of her Pap smear. Her previous 2 Pap smears were normal. Her family history is significant for breast cancer in her grandmother and cervical carcinoma in situ in her older sister. The results of her current Pap smear are as follows:
Specimen adequacy: satisfactory for evaluation
Interpretation: atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance
Which of the following options is the best next step in the management of this patient?
Q23
A P2G1 diabetic woman is at risk of delivering at 29 weeks gestation. Her obstetrician counsels her that there is a risk the baby could have significant pulmonary distress after it is born. However, she states she will give the mother corticosteroids, which will help prevent this from occurring. Additionally, the obstetrician states she will perform a test on the amniotic fluid which will indicate the likelihood of the infant being affected by this syndrome. Which of the following ratios would be most predictive of the infant having pulmonary distress?
Q24
A 21-year-old primigravida presents to her physician for a prenatal visit. She has a positive pregnancy test 1 week ago. The estimated gestational age is 16 weeks. She has no complaints. She has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus and takes insulin for glucose control. The urine dipstick test shows 3+ glucose and negative for protein. The blood tests ordered at the last visit 1 week ago are as follows:
Fasting glucose 110 mg/dL
HbA1c 8.3%
Which of the following tests should be highly recommended for this patient?
Q25
A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. She feels well. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last for 3–5 days, with normal flow. They are occasionally accompanied by pain. Three years ago, she was diagnosed with chlamydial cervicitis and treated with doxycycline. She has been sexually active with multiple partners since the age of 18 years. She regularly uses condoms for contraception. She drinks 2–3 beers on weekends and smokes half a pack of cigarettes daily. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination including a complete pelvic exam shows no abnormalities. A Pap smear shows a low-grade squamous epithelial lesion (LSIL). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q26
A 29-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks’ gestation comes to the physician for her first prenatal visit. She works as a paralegal and lives with her husband. Her current pregnancy was unexpected, and she did not take any prenatal medications or supplements. Physical examination shows a uterus 2 inches above the umbilicus. The concentration of α-fetoprotein in the maternal serum and concentrations of both α-fetoprotein and acetylcholinesterase in the amniotic fluid are elevated. Ultrasonography of the uterus shows an increased amniotic fluid volume. The fetus most likely has which of the following conditions?
Q27
A 62-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after an episode of light-headedness. She was using the bathroom when she felt light-headed and fell to the floor. Her daughter found her and brought her into the emergency department right away. The patient has a past medical history of obesity and diabetes mellitus. She came to the emergency department 1 week ago for a similar complaint. The patient states that she has otherwise felt well with the exception of fatigue, constipation, an odd sensation in her chest, and a decreased appetite and desire to drink recently causing her to lose 10 pounds. Her temperature is 98.0°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 122/88 mmHg, pulse is 92/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals a cardiopulmonary exam within normal limits and stable gait. The patient has an obese abdomen with abdominal distension. Strength is 5/5 in the upper and lower extremities. Which of the following is associated with the most likely diagnosis?
Q28
A 23-year-old woman approaches her university health services after a 5-day history of having a mucoid secretion that she has seen on her underwear upon waking up in the morning. She denies dysuria. She comments that 2 weeks ago, she engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse with both a male and a female classmate during a sorority party. During the physical examination, the practitioner finds pain with the mobilization of the cervix and a clear, mucoid secretion coming out of the urethra. The rest of the physical examination is normal. If you were to perform a urine exam for microscopic evaluation, which of the following would you expect to see?
Q29
A 15-year-old girl is brought to the physician because of a 2-week history of vaginal discharge. She has type 1 diabetes mellitus and her only medication is insulin. Menses occur at 28- to 29-day intervals, and her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She does not want to share information regarding sexual activity. She is at the 60th percentile for height and weight. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows Tanner stage II breast development. Pelvic examination shows white, thin, odorless vaginal discharge. A wet mount of the discharge shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Q30
A 22-year-old female college student presents to the clinic with complaints of intense vaginal itching and a painful sensation when urinating. She also notes that she has felt more lethargic and has additionally been experiencing recent fevers and headaches. She says that she is sexually active and occasionally uses condoms. On physical exam, she is found to have red, vesicular ulcers on her labia that are painful to palpation and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely pathogen causing her presentation?
Screening tests US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 31-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist for cervical cancer screening. She has no complaints and is sexually active. There is no history of cervical cancer or other malignancy in her family. A complete physical examination, including an examination of the genitourinary system, is normal. A sampling of the cervix is performed at the transformation zone and is sent for a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear examination and high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) DNA testing. After examination of the smear, the cytopathologist informs the gynecologist that it is negative for high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions, but that atypical squamous cells are present in the sample and it is difficult to distinguish between reactive changes and low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion. Atypical glandular cells are not present. The high-risk HPV DNA test is positive. Which of the following is the next best step in this patient’s management?
A. Endometrial biopsy
B. Colposcopy (Correct Answer)
C. Loop electrosurgical excision
D. Follow-up after 3 years and repeat cytology by Pap smear
E. Follow-up after 1 year and repeat cytology by Pap smear and HPV testing
Explanation: ***Colposcopy***
- The presence of **atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US)** with a **positive high-risk HPV test** warrants further investigation to rule out cervical dysplasia.
- **Colposcopy** allows for direct visual examination of the cervix, identification of abnormal areas, and targeted biopsies, which is essential given the positive high-risk HPV.
*Endometrial biopsy*
- This procedure is indicated for evaluating the **endometrium**, typically in cases of abnormal uterine bleeding or suspicion of endometrial hyperplasia or cancer.
- It is not relevant for addressing **cervical cytological abnormalities** like ASC-US or positive high-risk HPV.
*Loop electrosurgical excision*
- This is a **therapeutic procedure** used to remove abnormal cervical tissue, usually after a diagnosis of **high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL)** or cervical cancer is confirmed by biopsy.
- It is not the initial diagnostic step for ASC-US with positive HPV.
*Follow-up after 3 years and repeat cytology by Pap smear*
- This extended follow-up period is typically recommended for patients with **normal co-testing (negative cytology and negative HPV)**, not for those with ASC-US and positive high-risk HPV.
- Waiting three years would delay the diagnosis of potential cervical precancerous lesions.
*Follow-up after 1 year and repeat cytology by Pap smear and HPV testing*
- This approach, known as **"reflex testing"** or **"co-testing"**, is generally used for women with negative cytology but positive HPV, or for certain ASC-US cases with negative HPV.
- However, for ASC-US with a **positive high-risk HPV result**, current guidelines recommend immediate colposcopy, especially in women over 30.
Question 22: A 24-year-old G1P1 presents to her physician to discuss the results of her Pap smear. Her previous 2 Pap smears were normal. Her family history is significant for breast cancer in her grandmother and cervical carcinoma in situ in her older sister. The results of her current Pap smear are as follows:
Specimen adequacy: satisfactory for evaluation
Interpretation: atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance
Which of the following options is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A. Resume routine screening schedule
B. Repeat Pap smear in 3 years
C. Perform colposcopy
D. Test for HPV (Correct Answer)
E. Obtain a vaginal smear
Explanation: ***Test for HPV***
- For women aged 21-29 with **atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASC-US)** Pap smear results, **reflex HPV testing** is the preferred next step in management.
- If the HPV test is positive, **colposcopy** is indicated; if negative, the patient can return to routine screening in 3 years.
*Resume routine screening schedule*
- This is incorrect because an ASC-US result indicates a potential abnormality that requires further investigation, not immediate return to routine screening.
- **HPV co-testing** or a repeat Pap smear is needed to rule out underlying cervical dysplasia.
*Repeat Pap smear in 3 years*
- This is incorrect because for an ASC-US result, a 3-year interval is only appropriate if the **HPV test is negative**; otherwise, colposcopy or earlier re-evaluation is needed.
- Waiting 3 years risks progression of potential high-grade lesions if HPV is positive.
*Perform colposcopy*
- This is incorrect as **colposcopy** is generally reserved for patients with a positive **HPV test** following an ASC-US result or for more severe Pap smear abnormalities (e.g., HSIL, ASC-H).
- Performing colposcopy without prior HPV testing for ASC-US may lead to unnecessary procedures and costs, as many HPV-negative ASC-US cases resolve spontaneously.
*Obtain a vaginal smear*
- A vaginal smear is generally used to evaluate cells from the vaginal wall, often for infections like **bacterial vaginosis** or **candidiasis**, or for a history of hysterectomy.
- It is not the appropriate next step for an ASC-US Pap smear, which specifically concerns cervical cell abnormalities and requires HPV evaluation for risk stratification.
Question 23: A P2G1 diabetic woman is at risk of delivering at 29 weeks gestation. Her obstetrician counsels her that there is a risk the baby could have significant pulmonary distress after it is born. However, she states she will give the mother corticosteroids, which will help prevent this from occurring. Additionally, the obstetrician states she will perform a test on the amniotic fluid which will indicate the likelihood of the infant being affected by this syndrome. Which of the following ratios would be most predictive of the infant having pulmonary distress?
A. lecithin:phosphatidylserine < 1.5
B. lecithin:sphingomyelin < 1.5 (Correct Answer)
C. lecithin:sphingomyelin > 1.5
D. lecithin:phosphatidylserine > 3.0
E. lecithin:sphingomyelin > 3.0
Explanation: ***lecithin:sphingomyelin < 1.5***
- A lecithin:sphingomyelin (L:S) ratio less than 2:1 (or 1.5 in some clinical contexts) indicates **fetal lung immaturity** and a **high risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)**.
- The **lecithin level increases** significantly in the amniotic fluid during the third trimester as fetal lungs mature, while **sphingomyelin levels remain relatively constant**.
*lecithin:phosphatidylserine < 1.5*
- While **phosphatidylserine** is a component of surfactant, the **Lecithin:Sphingomyelin (L:S) ratio** is the established and most commonly used marker for fetal lung maturity.
- There is **no widely recognized or clinically validated threshold** for a lecithin:phosphatidylserine ratio in predicting respiratory distress syndrome.
*lecithin:sphingomyelin > 1.5*
- An L:S ratio **greater than 2:1 (or 1.5, in some labs)** generally indicates **fetal lung maturity** and a low risk for respiratory distress syndrome.
- Therefore, this ratio would suggest a **lower likelihood of pulmonary distress**, which contradicts the aim of identifying risk.
*lecithin:phosphatidylserine > 3.0*
- As with an L:S ratio, a higher ratio would generally indicate **lung maturity**, not increased risk for pulmonary distress.
- There is **no clinical standard for lecithin:phosphatidylserine ratio** to assess lung maturity for preventing RDS.
*lecithin:sphingomyelin > 3.0*
- An L:S ratio of **greater than 2:1 (or 3.0 in certain clinical scenarios)** is a strong indicator of **fetal lung maturity**, meaning the risk of respiratory distress syndrome is low.
- The question asks for a ratio that would be **predictive of pulmonary distress**, whereas this ratio indicates the opposite.
Question 24: A 21-year-old primigravida presents to her physician for a prenatal visit. She has a positive pregnancy test 1 week ago. The estimated gestational age is 16 weeks. She has no complaints. She has a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus and takes insulin for glucose control. The urine dipstick test shows 3+ glucose and negative for protein. The blood tests ordered at the last visit 1 week ago are as follows:
Fasting glucose 110 mg/dL
HbA1c 8.3%
Which of the following tests should be highly recommended for this patient?
A. Chorionic villus sampling
B. Triple test (Correct Answer)
C. Serum creatinine
D. C-peptide assessment
E. Oral glucose tolerance test
Explanation: ***Triple test***
- This 21-year-old patient with **pre-existing diabetes** and an **HbA1c of 8.3%** has a significantly increased risk of fetal neural tube defects and other chromosomal abnormalities. The triple test, performed between **15 and 20 weeks**, can screen for these risks by measuring **alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)**, **human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)**, and **unconjugated estriol (uE3)**.
- Given the patient's **poor glycemic control** (HbA1c 8.3% indicates consistently high blood glucose levels), the triple test offers a non-invasive screening method to assess these elevated risks.
*Chorionic villus sampling*
- While CVS can detect chromosomal abnormalities and some genetic disorders, it is an **invasive procedure** associated with a risk of miscarriage and is typically performed earlier in pregnancy (10-13 weeks).
- It is usually reserved for cases with **higher risk factors** identified through non-invasive screening or a history of genetic disorders, which are not explicitly stated as the primary concern here compared to the hyperglycemia-related defects.
*Serum creatinine*
- **Serum creatinine** is used to assess kidney function and is essential in diabetic patients to monitor for nephropathy, but it is **not a screening test for fetal abnormalities**.
- While important for the mother's health management, it does not directly address the immediate concern of fetal risk due to uncontrolled diabetes during pregnancy.
*C-peptide assessment*
- **C-peptide** is a marker of endogenous insulin production and is useful in classifying diabetes type or assessing residual beta-cell function; however, this patient is a known **type 1 diabetic** taking insulin.
- While it has diagnostic utility for the mother's condition, it does not provide information about fetal well-being or the risk of congenital anomalies.
*Oral glucose tolerance test*
- An **oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)** is used to diagnose **gestational diabetes mellitus** (GDM) in women without pre-existing diabetes, or to confirm it in those with borderline values.
- This patient already has a confirmed diagnosis of **type 1 diabetes**; therefore, an OGTT is not indicated for her as she is already being treated for diabetes.
Question 25: A 24-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. She feels well. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last for 3–5 days, with normal flow. They are occasionally accompanied by pain. Three years ago, she was diagnosed with chlamydial cervicitis and treated with doxycycline. She has been sexually active with multiple partners since the age of 18 years. She regularly uses condoms for contraception. She drinks 2–3 beers on weekends and smokes half a pack of cigarettes daily. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination including a complete pelvic exam shows no abnormalities. A Pap smear shows a low-grade squamous epithelial lesion (LSIL). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Colposcopy with endocervical and endometrial sampling
B. Repeat Pap smear in 12 months (Correct Answer)
C. Colposcopy with endocervical sampling
D. Loop electrosurgical excision procedure
E. Repeat Pap smear in 3 years
Explanation: **Repeat Pap smear in 12 months**
* For women aged 21-24 years with a **low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (LSIL)**, the recommended management is a repeat Pap test in **12 months**, as many of these lesions spontaneously regress.
* Given her age and that she is **asymptomatic**, watchful waiting with repeat cytology is a safe and appropriate approach.
*Colposcopy with endocervical and endometrial sampling*
* **Colposcopy** is generally reserved for persistent LSIL, **high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (HSIL)**, or certain HPV co-testing results in older women.
* **Endometrial sampling** is not indicated in this case as there are no symptoms suggestive of endometrial pathology, nor does LSIL on a Pap smear necessitate it.
*Colposcopy with endocervical sampling*
* As above, **colposcopy** is not the initial step for LSIL in this age group, unless persistence is noted.
* **Endocervical sampling** (ECC) is performed during colposcopy to evaluate the endocervical canal, but the initial management for LSIL in young women is observation.
*Loop electrosurgical excision procedure*
* **Loop electrosurgical excision procedure (LEEP)** is an **ablative or excisional procedure** used to remove cervical lesions, primarily for persistent HSIL or CIN2/3.
* It is an **overtreatment** for an initial diagnosis of LSIL in a 24-year-old woman, especially given the high rate of spontaneous regression.
*Repeat Pap smear in 3 years*
* While some guidelines allow for less frequent screening in women with normal Pap results and negative HPV co-testing, a **3-year interval** is too long for follow-up of an LSIL result.
* The risk of progression, although low, requires closer monitoring within the **12-month timeframe** to identify persistent lesions.
Question 26: A 29-year-old primigravid woman at 18 weeks’ gestation comes to the physician for her first prenatal visit. She works as a paralegal and lives with her husband. Her current pregnancy was unexpected, and she did not take any prenatal medications or supplements. Physical examination shows a uterus 2 inches above the umbilicus. The concentration of α-fetoprotein in the maternal serum and concentrations of both α-fetoprotein and acetylcholinesterase in the amniotic fluid are elevated. Ultrasonography of the uterus shows an increased amniotic fluid volume. The fetus most likely has which of the following conditions?
A. Anencephaly (Correct Answer)
B. Holoprosencephaly
C. Spina bifida occulta
D. Myelomeningocele
E. Lissencephaly
Explanation: ***Anencephaly***
- **Elevated maternal serum α-fetoprotein (MSAFP)** and **amniotic fluid α-fetoprotein (AFAFP)**, along with elevated **acetylcholinesterase (AChE)** in amniotic fluid, are classic markers for **open neural tube defects**. Anencephaly, characterized by the **absence of a major portion of the brain and skull**, is an open neural tube defect.
- The **increased amniotic fluid volume (polyhydramnios)** is due to the fetus's inability to swallow amniotic fluid, a common finding in anencephaly.
*Holoprosencephaly*
- This condition involves incomplete separation of the **prosencephalon (forebrain)**, leading to **severe facial abnormalities** and brain malformations.
- While it is a severe brain malformation, it is typically a **closed neural tube defect** or a developmental anomaly not involving an open lesion, and therefore, it is usually not associated with elevated MSAFP, AFAFP, or AChE.
*Spina bifida occulta*
- This is the **mildest form of spina bifida**, involving a small gap in the vertebrae without protrusion of the spinal cord or meninges.
- It is a **closed neural tube defect** and is typically asymptomatic, often not associated with elevated MSAFP or AFAFP levels.
*Myelomeningocele*
- While a **myelomeningocele** is an **open neural tube defect** that would cause elevated MSAFP, AFAFP, and AChE, it is characterized by the protrusion of the spinal cord and meninges through a vertebral defect.
- The primary characteristic of anencephaly (absence of a major portion of the brain/skull) better fits the severe degree of neural tube defect suggested by the findings, particularly the polyhydramnios due to absent swallowing reflex.
*Lissencephaly*
- This is a brain malformation characterized by a **lack of gyri and sulci**, resulting in a smooth brain surface.
- It is a brain development defect, not an **open neural tube defect**, and as such, it is not associated with elevated MSAFP, AFAFP, or AChE.
Question 27: A 62-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after an episode of light-headedness. She was using the bathroom when she felt light-headed and fell to the floor. Her daughter found her and brought her into the emergency department right away. The patient has a past medical history of obesity and diabetes mellitus. She came to the emergency department 1 week ago for a similar complaint. The patient states that she has otherwise felt well with the exception of fatigue, constipation, an odd sensation in her chest, and a decreased appetite and desire to drink recently causing her to lose 10 pounds. Her temperature is 98.0°F (36.7°C), blood pressure is 122/88 mmHg, pulse is 92/min, respirations are 14/min, and oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical exam reveals a cardiopulmonary exam within normal limits and stable gait. The patient has an obese abdomen with abdominal distension. Strength is 5/5 in the upper and lower extremities. Which of the following is associated with the most likely diagnosis?
A. CA-125 (Correct Answer)
B. Seasonal viral infection
C. Cardiac arrhythmia
D. Vagal response
E. Dehydration
Explanation: ***CA-125***
- The patient's symptoms of **fatigue, constipation, decreased appetite/thirst, abdominal distension, and weight loss** in an older female are highly concerning for **ovarian cancer**, for which **CA-125** is a tumor marker.
- Ovarian cancer can cause **paraneoplastic syndromes** or **mass effect** leading to these diffuse, non-specific symptoms, and unexplained falls/light-headedness.
*Seasonal viral infection*
- While viral infections can cause fatigue and decreased appetite, they typically present with more acute symptoms like **fever, cough, or myalgias**, which are absent here.
- Viral infections are unlikely to cause **significant weight loss** (10 lbs) and **abdominal distension** without other clear infectious signs.
*Cardiac arrhythmia*
- An arrhythmia could explain light-headedness and falls, but the patient's other symptoms like **constipation, abdominal distension, and significant weight loss** are not typical.
- The "odd sensation in her chest" is vague and could be benign, and her pulse of 92/min is not diagnostic of a specific arrhythmia.
*Vagal response*
- A vagal response can cause light-headedness and falls, especially during straining (e.g., using the bathroom), but it is usually a **transient event**.
- It does not explain the **chronic symptoms** of fatigue, constipation, abdominal distension, weight loss, and recurrent episodes suggesting an underlying systemic issue.
*Dehydration*
- Dehydration can cause light-headedness and falls, especially in older adults with decreased thirst, but it is unlikely to be the primary cause of such **significant weight loss** (10 pounds) and **abdominal distension**.
- The patient's blood pressure is stable (122/88 mmHg), which is not typical for significant dehydration causing frequent falls.
Question 28: A 23-year-old woman approaches her university health services after a 5-day history of having a mucoid secretion that she has seen on her underwear upon waking up in the morning. She denies dysuria. She comments that 2 weeks ago, she engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse with both a male and a female classmate during a sorority party. During the physical examination, the practitioner finds pain with the mobilization of the cervix and a clear, mucoid secretion coming out of the urethra. The rest of the physical examination is normal. If you were to perform a urine exam for microscopic evaluation, which of the following would you expect to see?
A. White blood cells + gram-negative rod
B. White blood cells + gram-negative diplococci
C. White blood cells alone (Correct Answer)
D. White blood cells + gram-negative coccobacilli
E. White blood cells + motile flagellates
Explanation: ***White blood cells alone***
- The patient's symptoms (mucoid secretion, cervical motion tenderness, clear urethral discharge, history of unprotected intercourse with multiple partners) are highly suggestive of **Chlamydia trachomatis infection**.
- **Chlamydia** is an obligate intracellular bacterium that does not show up on a routine Gram stain of urethral or cervical discharge, so only **white blood cells** would be seen, indicating inflammation.
*White blood cells + gram-negative rod*
- The presence of **gram-negative rods** in the urinary tract would suggest a common bacterial urinary tract infection (UTI) caused by organisms like *E. coli* or *Klebsiella*.
- This typically presents with **dysuria** and more purulent discharge, which is not consistent with the patient's presentation of mucoid discharge and absence of dysuria.
*White blood cells + gram-negative diplococci*
- **Gram-negative diplococci** are characteristic of **Neisseria gonorrhoeae** infection. While gonorrhea can cause cervicitis and urethritis, the discharge is usually **purulent** and opaque, not clear and mucoid as described.
- While coinfection is common, the most fitting single description for the *reported* discharge and lack of specific gram-stainable organisms points away from gonorrhea as the sole microscopic finding.
*White blood cells + gram-negative coccobacilli*
- **Gram-negative coccobacilli** could suggest infections from organisms like *Gardnerella vaginalis* (bacterial vaginosis) or *Haemophilus ducreyi* (chancroid).
- These conditions typically present with different clinical pictures, such as a **fishy odor** for bacterial vaginosis or **painful genital ulcers** for chancroid, none of which are described here.
*White blood cells + motile flagellates*
- The presence of **motile flagellates** in a vaginal or urethral swab is characteristic of **Trichomonas vaginalis** infection.
- While *Trichomonas* can cause urethritis and cervicitis, the discharge is typically **frothy**, yellow-green, and malodorous, which differs from the clear, mucoid secretion described in this case.
Question 29: A 15-year-old girl is brought to the physician because of a 2-week history of vaginal discharge. She has type 1 diabetes mellitus and her only medication is insulin. Menses occur at 28- to 29-day intervals, and her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. She does not want to share information regarding sexual activity. She is at the 60th percentile for height and weight. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows Tanner stage II breast development. Pelvic examination shows white, thin, odorless vaginal discharge. A wet mount of the discharge shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Vaginal foreign body
B. Bacterial vaginosis
C. Physiologic leukorrhea (Correct Answer)
D. Vaginal candidiasis
E. Trichomoniasis
Explanation: ***Physiologic leukorrhea***
- The presentation of **thin, white, odorless vaginal discharge** in an adolescent with normal vital signs and no other symptoms is highly suggestive of **physiologic leukorrhea**.
- **Physiologic leukorrhea** is a normal discharge that varies in consistency, color, and amount throughout the menstrual cycle due to fluctuating hormone levels. The absence of abnormalities on wet mount further supports this diagnosis.
*Vaginal foreign body*
- A **vaginal foreign body** would typically present with a **foul-smelling, often blood-tinged discharge**, which is not described here.
- While possible, the characteristics of the discharge and lack of additional symptoms make this diagnosis less likely.
*Bacterial vaginosis*
- **Bacterial vaginosis** is characterized by a **thin, gray-white discharge with a foul, fishy odor**, particularly after intercourse.
- Diagnosis typically involves a positive whiff test and the presence of **clue cells** on wet mount, neither of which were observed.
*Vaginal candidiasis*
- **Vaginal candidiasis** (yeast infection) presents with a **thick, white, curd-like discharge**, often accompanied by **pruritus, erythema**, and dysuria.
- The patient's discharge is described as thin and white, not curd-like, and there are no other associated symptoms.
*Trichomoniasis*
- **Trichomoniasis** typically causes a **yellow-green, frothy, malodorous discharge**, often associated with vaginal itching, burning, and dyspareunia.
- Microscopy would reveal motile **trichomonads**, which were not seen on the wet mount.
Question 30: A 22-year-old female college student presents to the clinic with complaints of intense vaginal itching and a painful sensation when urinating. She also notes that she has felt more lethargic and has additionally been experiencing recent fevers and headaches. She says that she is sexually active and occasionally uses condoms. On physical exam, she is found to have red, vesicular ulcers on her labia that are painful to palpation and tender inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely pathogen causing her presentation?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Klebsiella granulomatis
C. Treponema pallidum
D. Herpes simplex virus type 2 (Correct Answer)
E. Herpes simplex virus type 1
Explanation: ***Herpes simplex virus type 2***
- The presence of **red, vesicular ulcers on the labia** that are painful, along with **tender inguinal lymphadenopathy**, fevers, headaches, and lethargy, are classic signs of a primary HSV-2 infection.
- HSV-2 is the most common cause of **genital herpes**, leading to painful vesicular or ulcerative lesions in the genital area.
*Chlamydia trachomatis*
- This pathogen typically causes **urethritis**, **cervicitis**, or **pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)**, often with minimal or no symptoms, or with discharge or dysuria.
- It does not typically present with **painful vesicular or ulcerative lesions** and systemic symptoms like fever and headache are less common.
*Klebsiella granulomatis*
- This bacterium causes **granuloma inguinale (donovanosis)**, characterized by progressive, painless, beefy red **ulcers** with rolled borders, not vesicles.
- The lesions are typically **not painful** and do not usually present with systemic symptoms like fever and headache in the initial stages.
*Treponema pallidum*
- The primary stage of syphilis, caused by *Treponema pallidum*, presents as a **painless chancre**, which is a firm, indurated ulcer.
- The lesions in this patient are described as **painful and vesicular**, which is inconsistent with a syphilitic chancre.
*Herpes simplex virus type 1*
- While HSV-1 can cause genital herpes, it is more commonly associated with **oral herpes (cold sores)**.
- Genital HSV-1 infections are typically **less severe** and **recur less frequently** than HSV-2 infections.