Screening tests — MCQs

A 23-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. She feels well. Menses have occurred at regular 30-day intervals and last for 5 days with normal flow. She has a history of gonorrhea that was treated at 20 years of age. She has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 3 years. She drinks one glass of wine daily. Her only medication is an oral contraceptive. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination including pelvic examination shows no abnormalities. A Pap smear shows high-grade squamous epithelial lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 20-year-old woman with no significant past medical history presents to the urgent care clinic with increased vaginal discharge and dysuria. On social history review, she endorses having multiple recent sexual partners. The patient uses oral contraceptive pills for contraception and states that she has not missed a pill. The patient's blood pressure is 119/80 mm Hg, pulse is 66/min, and respiratory rate is 16/min. On pelvic examination, there are multiple punctate, red petechiae on her cervix. Wet mount demonstrates motile flagellated organisms. Which of the following is the recommended treatment for her underlying diagnosis?

A 17-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother for the evaluation of irregular menstrual bleeding. Menses have occurred at 60- to 90-day intervals since menarche at the age of 12 years. Her last menstrual period was 4 weeks ago. She is sexually active with one male partner, and they use condoms consistently. She reports that she currently has no desire to have children. She is 165 cm (5 ft 5 in) tall and weighs 85 kg (187 lb); BMI is 31 kg/m2. Examination shows scattered pustules on the forehead and oily skin. There is coarse hair on the chin and upper lip. Fingerstick blood glucose concentration is 190 mg/dL. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?

A healthy 47-year-old woman presents to the women’s center for a routine pap smear. She has a past medical history of hypothyroidism and rheumatoid arthritis. She is taking levothyroxine, methotrexate, and adalimumab. The vital signs are within normal limits during her visit today. Her physical examination is grossly normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

A 16-year-old woman with no known past medical history and non-significant social and family histories presents to the outpatient clinic for an annual wellness checkup. She has no complaints, and her review of systems is negative. She is up to date on her childhood and adolescent vaccinations. The patient's blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg, pulse is 82/min, respiratory rate is 16/min, and temperature is 37.0°C (98.6°F). On further questioning, she discloses that she has recently become sexual active and enquires about any necessary screening tests for cervical cancer. What is the appropriate recommendation regarding cervical cancer screening in this patient?

A 27-year-old woman seeks evaluation by her general physician with complaints of an odorous yellow vaginal discharge and vaginal irritation for the past 3 days. She also complains of itching and soreness. The medical history is unremarkable. She is not diabetic. She has been sexually active with a single partner for the last 3 years. A vaginal swab is sent to the lab for microscopic evaluation, the results of which are shown in the exhibit, and the culture yields heavy growth of protozoa. A pregnancy test was negative. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

A 36-year-old primigravid woman at 15 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a routine prenatal visit. She has not been taking prenatal vitamins and admits to consuming alcohol regularly. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 15-week gestation. A quadruple screening test shows markedly elevated maternal serum α-fetoprotein. Maternal serum concentrations of β-human chorionic gonadotropin, estriol, and inhibin A are normal. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these findings?

A 41-year-old woman presents for evaluation of a mild bloody vaginal discharge for the past 4 months. Bleeding increases after sexual intercourse. For the past few weeks, the patient also began to note an unpleasant odor. The patient has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle. Her husband has been her only sexual partner for the past 15 years. She has a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive device (IUD) that was inserted 4 years ago. She does not take oral contraceptives. She has not had a gynecologic evaluation since the IUD was placed. She is a machine operator. Her past medical history is significant for Graves’ disease with thyrotoxicosis that was treated with radioactive iodine ablation. The BMI is 22 kg/m2. The gynecologic examination shows no vulvar or vaginal lesions. The cervix is deformed and a 4-cm exophytic mass with necrotization is noted arising from the posterior lip of the cervix. The uterus is not enlarged. No masses are palpable in the adnexa. What is the most probable cause of the patient’s condition?

An 18-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician for her first prenatal visit at 20 weeks' gestation. There is no family history of serious illness. She appears healthy and well-nourished. The uterus is palpated up to the level of the umbilicus. Laboratory studies show a maternal serum α-fetoprotein concentration of 8.2 MoM (N = 0.5–2.0). Ultrasonography shows a defect in the fetal abdominal wall to the right of the umbilical cord. A part of the fetus' bowels herniates through the abdominal defect and is suspended freely in the amniotic fluid. This fetus's condition is most likely associated with which of the following?

A 28-year-old G0P0 woman presents to a gynecologist for evaluation of a breast mass. She has never seen a gynecologist before but says she noticed the mass herself while showering yesterday. She also reports a neck ache following a minor car accident last week in which she was a restrained driver. She otherwise feels well and has no personal or family history of major illness. Her last menstrual period was 3 weeks ago. Physical exam reveals a hard, round, nontender, 2-cm mass of the inferomedial quadrant of the left breast with trace bruising. Regional lymph nodes are not palpable. Which of the following is the next best step in management?