Screening tests — MCQs

A 39-year-old woman presents to her gynecologist for a routine visit. She has no complaints during this visit. She had an abnormal pap test 6 years ago that showed atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance. The sample was negative for human papillomavirus. On her follow-up Pap test 3 years later, there was no abnormality. The latest pap test results show atypical glandular cells with reactive changes in the cervical epithelium. The gynecologist decides to perform a colposcopy, and some changes are noted in this study of the cervical epithelium. The biopsy shows dysplastic changes in the epithelial cells. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?

A 16-year-old girl comes to her primary care physician for an annual check-up. She has no specific complaints. Her medical history is significant for asthma. She uses an albuterol inhaler as needed. She has no notable surgical history. Her mom had breast cancer and her grandfather died of colon cancer. She received all her childhood scheduled vaccinations up to age 8. She reports that she is doing well in school but hates math. She is sexually active with her boyfriend. They use condoms consistently, and they both tested negative recently for gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis and human immunodeficiency virus. She asks about birth control. In addition to educating the patient on her options for contraception, which of the following is the best next step in management?

A 36-year old pregnant woman (gravida 4, para 1) presents at week 11 of pregnancy. Currently, she has no complaints. She had an uncomplicated 1st pregnancy that ended in an uncomplicated vaginal delivery at the age of 28 years. Her male child was born healthy, with normal physical and psychological development over the years. Two of her previous pregnancies were spontaneously terminated in the 1st trimester. Her elder sister has a child born with Down syndrome. The patient denies smoking and alcohol consumption. Her blood analysis reveals the following findings: Measured values Beta human chorionic gonadotropin (beta-hCG) High Pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (PAPP-A) Low Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 32-year-old woman presents with three-days of vaginal burning, itching, and pain with intercourse. She is in a monogamous relationship with her husband and has an intrauterine device for contraception. Her past medical history is unremarkable, except for recently being treated with antibiotics for sinusitis. Pelvic exam is remarkable for vulvar excoriations, vaginal wall edema, and thick, white discharge in the vault. Wet mount with KOH staining reveals budding filaments with pseudohyphae and hyphae. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician for a routine gynecological examination. She feels well. Menses occur with normal flow at regular 28-day intervals and last for 3 to 5 days. Her last menstrual period was 20 days ago. She is sexually active with one male partner and they use condoms inconsistently. Her sister was diagnosed with breast cancer at the age of 40 years. She drinks a glass of wine occasionally with dinner and has smoked 10 cigarettes daily for the past 15 years. The patient's vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination including a complete pelvic exam shows no abnormalities. Urine pregnancy test is negative. A Pap smear shows atypical glandular cells. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 56-year-old woman is referred to your office with mammography results showing a dense, spiculated mass with clustered microcalcifications. The family history is negative for breast, endometrial, and ovarian cancers. She was formerly a flight attendant and since retirement, she has started a strict Mediterranean diet because she was "trying to compensate for her lack of physical activity". She is the mother of two. She breastfed each infant for 18 months, as recommended by her previous physician. Her only two surgical procedures have been a breast augmentation with implants and tubal ligation. The physical examination is unremarkable. There are no palpable masses and no nipple or breast skin abnormalities. The patient lacks a family history of breast cancer. Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for the development of breast cancer in this patient?

A 27-year-old female presents to her OB/GYN for a check-up. During her visit, a pelvic exam and Pap smear are performed. The patient does not have any past medical issues and has had routine gynecologic care with normal pap smears every 3 years since age 21. The results of the Pap smear demonstrate atypical squamous cells of undetermined significance (ASCUS). Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?

A 58-year-old woman presents to the physician’s office with vaginal bleeding. The bleeding started as a spotting and has increased and has become persistent over the last month. The patient is G3P1 with a history of polycystic ovary syndrome and type 2 diabetes mellitus. She completed menopause 4 years ago. She took cyclic estrogen-progesterone replacement therapy for 1 year at the beginning of menopause. Her weight is 89 kg (196 lb), height 157 cm (5 ft 2 in). Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 135/70 mm Hg, heart rate 78/min, respiratory rate 12/min, and temperature 36.7℃ (98.1℉). Physical examination is unremarkable. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals an endometrium of 6 mm thickness. Speculum examination shows a cervix without focal lesions with bloody discharge from the non-dilated external os. On pelvic examination, the uterus is slightly enlarged, movable, and non-tender. Adnexa is non-palpable. What is the next appropriate step in the management of this patient?

A 21-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of intermittent bouts of lower abdominal and pelvic pain over the last week. The pain is primarily localized to the right side and is non-radiating. The patient is not sexually active at this time and is not currently under any medication. At the hospital, her vitals are normal. A pelvic examination reveals a tender palpable mass on the right adnexal structure. A pelvic CT scan reveals a 7-cm solid adnexal mass that was surgically removed with the ovary. Histological evaluation indicates sheets of uniform cells resembling a 'fried egg', consistent with dysgerminoma. Which of the following tumor markers is most likely elevated with this type of tumor?

A 22-year-old female presents to her physician for evaluation of a vaginal discharge, itching, and irritation. She recently started a new relationship with her boyfriend, who is her only sexual partner. He does not report any genitourinary symptoms. She takes oral contraceptives and does not use barrier contraception. The medical history is unremarkable. The vital signs are within normal limits. A gynecologic examination reveals a thin, yellow, frothy vaginal discharge with a musty, unpleasant odor and numerous punctate red maculae on the ectocervix. The remainder of the exam is normal. Which of the following organisms will most likely be revealed on wet mount microscopy?