A 24-year-old woman comes to the clinic because her period is 4 weeks late, and she is experiencing fatigue and morning nausea. She had her last period almost 8 weeks ago. She is gravida 0 para 0 with previously regular menses and an unremarkable medical history. She had her menarche at the age of 13 years. She has a single sexual partner and does not use contraception. At presentation, her vital signs are within normal limits. Gynecological examination reveals breast and uterine enlargement. There is also cyanosis and softening in the cervical and vaginal regions. Which of the following statements is correct?
Q82
A 34-year-old gravida 2 para 1 woman at 16 weeks gestation presents for prenatal care. Her prenatal course has been uncomplicated. She takes no medications besides her prenatal vitamin which she takes every day, and she has been compliant with routine prenatal care. She has a 7-year-old daughter who is healthy. The results of her recent quadruple screen are listed below:
AFP: Low
hCG: Low
Estriol: Low
Inhibin-A: Normal
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis?
Q83
A 40-year-old pregnant woman, G4 P3, visits your office at week 30 of gestation. She is very excited about her pregnancy and wants to be the healthiest she can be in preparation for labor and for her baby. What vaccination should she receive at this visit?
Q84
A 24-year-old primigravida at 28 weeks gestation presents to the office stating that she “can’t feel her baby kicking anymore.” She also noticed mild-to-moderate vaginal bleeding. A prenatal visit a few days ago confirmed the fetal cardiac activity by Doppler. The medical history is significant for GERD, hypertension, and SLE. The temperature is 36.78°C (98.2°F), the blood pressure is 125/80 mm Hg, the pulse is 70/min, and the respiratory rate is 14/min. Which of the following is the next best step in evaluation?
Q85
A 53-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of a 5-month history of painful sexual intercourse. She also reports vaginal dryness and occasional spotting. She has no pain with urination. She has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia. Her last menstrual period was 8 months ago. She is sexually active with her husband and has two children. Current medications include ramipril, metformin, atorvastatin, and aspirin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 85/min, and blood pressure is 140/82 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows decreasing labial fat pad, receding pubic hair, and clear vaginal discharge. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
Q86
A 15-year-old girl comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. She recently became sexually active with her boyfriend and requests a prescription for an oral contraception. She lives with her parents. She has smoked half a pack of cigarettes daily for the past 2 years. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
Q87
A 21-year-old woman comes to the physician because she had a positive pregnancy test at home. For the past 3 weeks, she has had nausea and increased urinary frequency. She also had three episodes of non-bloody vomiting. She attends college and is on the varsity soccer team. She runs 45 minutes daily and lifts weights for strength training for 1 hour three times per week. She also reports that she wants to renew her ski pass for the upcoming winter season. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?
Q88
A 24-year-old woman visits her physician to seek preconception advice. She is recently married and plans to have a child soon. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 5 days. She has sexual intercourse only with her husband and, at this time, they consistently use condoms for birth control. The patient consumes a well-balanced diet with moderate intake of meat and dairy products. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications currently. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. The patient’s history reveals no birth defects or severe genetic abnormalities in the family. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Pelvic examination indicates a normal vagina, cervix, uterus, and adnexa. To decrease the likelihood of fetal neural-tube defects in her future pregnancy, which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for initiation of folic acid supplementation?
Q89
An otherwise healthy 15-year-old girl is brought to the physician for evaluation of severe acne that involves her face, chest, and back. It has not improved with her current combination therapy of oral cephalexin and topical benzoyl peroxide. She is sexually active with one male partner, and they use condoms consistently. Facial scarring and numerous comedones are present, with sebaceous skin lesions on her face, chest, and back. Which of the following is indicated prior to initiating the appropriate treatment in this patient?
Q90
A 33-year-old pregnant woman in the 28th week of gestation presents to the emergency department for evaluation of bilateral edema of her legs. It seems to worsen at the end of the day and has lasted for the past 3 weeks. History reveals that this is her 3rd pregnancy. Vital signs include: blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate 74/min, respiratory rate 18/min, and temperature 36.6°C (98.0°F). Body mass index is 36 kg/m2. Physical examination reveals bilateral leg edema with engorged surface veins. A photograph of the patient’s legs is shown. Which of the following is the best initial management of the patient?
Prenatal Care US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: A 24-year-old woman comes to the clinic because her period is 4 weeks late, and she is experiencing fatigue and morning nausea. She had her last period almost 8 weeks ago. She is gravida 0 para 0 with previously regular menses and an unremarkable medical history. She had her menarche at the age of 13 years. She has a single sexual partner and does not use contraception. At presentation, her vital signs are within normal limits. Gynecological examination reveals breast and uterine enlargement. There is also cyanosis and softening in the cervical and vaginal regions. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Hyperestrogenemia is the most probable cause of this patient’s menstrual delay
B. Estrone has the largest blood concentration among the estrogens in this patient
C. In the patient’s condition, blood estrogen level falls dramatically
D. As the patient's condition progresses, her estriol levels may rise up to 100-300 fold
E. The venous congestion in the patient’s reproductive organs is due to the influence of estrogens (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***The venous congestion in the patient’s reproductive organs is due to the influence of estrogens***
- The patient's symptoms (late period, fatigue, morning nausea, breast and uterine enlargement, cyanosis, and softening of the cervix and vagina) are highly suggestive of **early pregnancy**.
- During pregnancy, **estrogen levels dramatically increase**, causing increased blood flow and venous congestion in the reproductive organs, leading to signs like **Chadwick's sign** (cyanosis of the cervix and vagina).
*Hyperestrogenemia is the most probable cause of this patient’s menstrual delay*
- While estrogen levels are high in pregnancy, it is the **presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)** maintaining the corpus luteum and subsequently the placenta that prevents menstruation, not simply hyperestrogenemia alone.
- The primary cause of menstrual delay in early pregnancy is the **absence of luteolysis** due to hCG, leading to continued progesterone production by the corpus luteum.
*Estrone has the largest blood concentration among the estrogens in this patient*
- **Estradiol** is the predominant estrogen produced by the ovaries in non-pregnant women and during early pregnancy.
- In later pregnancy, **estriol** becomes the most abundant estrogen due to production by the fetal adrenal glands and placenta.
*In the patient’s condition, blood estrogen level falls dramatically*
- In early pregnancy, **estrogen levels actually rise** significantly to support the uterine environment and fetal development.
- A dramatic fall in estrogen levels would typically indicate a **missed abortion or luteal phase defect**, which is contrary to the clinical presentation.
*As the patient's condition progresses, her estriol levels may rise up to 100-300 fold*
- While estriol levels do rise significantly during pregnancy, the primary early estrogen of pregnancy is **estradiol**.
- **Estriol** levels increase dramatically later in pregnancy, reflecting fetal-placental unit function, but it is not the initial dominant estrogen and the rise is typically more pronounced than 100-300 fold relative to non-pregnant levels.
Question 82: A 34-year-old gravida 2 para 1 woman at 16 weeks gestation presents for prenatal care. Her prenatal course has been uncomplicated. She takes no medications besides her prenatal vitamin which she takes every day, and she has been compliant with routine prenatal care. She has a 7-year-old daughter who is healthy. The results of her recent quadruple screen are listed below:
AFP: Low
hCG: Low
Estriol: Low
Inhibin-A: Normal
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis?
A. Chorionic villus sampling
B. Amniocentesis (Correct Answer)
C. Ultrasound for nuchal translucency
D. Folic acid supplementation
E. Return to clinic in 4 weeks
Explanation: ***Amniocentesis***
- The presented quad screen results (low AFP, low hCG, low estriol, normal Inhibin-A) are highly suggestive of **trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome)**. Amniocentesis is a **definitive diagnostic test** that can confirm aneuploidy by providing a fetal karyotype.
- While typically performed between **15 and 20 weeks gestation**, it can differentiate between trisomy 18 and trisomy 21 (Down syndrome), which usually presents with high hCG and high Inhibin-A.
*Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)*
- **CVS** is typically performed earlier in pregnancy, between **10 and 13 weeks gestation**, meaning it is too late to perform at 16 weeks gestation.
- While it can provide a fetal karyotype for genetic diagnosis, the gestational age presented in the vignette makes this option currently inappropriate.
*Ultrasound for nuchal translucency*
- **Nuchal translucency (NT)** is part of the first-trimester screening, usually measured between **11 and 14 weeks gestation**.
- At 16 weeks gestation, measuring NT would be **outside the appropriate timeframe**, and the second-trimester quad screen has already been completed, making further screening rather than diagnosis less useful.
*Folic acid supplementation*
- **Folic acid supplementation** is crucial before and during early pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects, which would be associated with high AFP.
- The patient is already taking prenatal vitamins (which contain folic acid), and her quad screen results are not indicative of a neural tube defect but rather a chromosomal abnormality.
*Return to clinic in 4 weeks*
- The abnormal quad screen results indicate a **high risk for aneuploidy**, specifically trisomy 18, which requires immediate follow-up and definitive diagnosis.
- Delaying further assessment for 4 weeks would be clinically inappropriate and could increase patient anxiety and potentially reduce options for further management.
Question 83: A 40-year-old pregnant woman, G4 P3, visits your office at week 30 of gestation. She is very excited about her pregnancy and wants to be the healthiest she can be in preparation for labor and for her baby. What vaccination should she receive at this visit?
A. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)
B. Varicella vaccine
C. Herpes zoster vaccine
D. Live attenuated influenza vaccine
E. Tetanus, diphtheria, and acellular pertussis (Tdap) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Tetanus, diphtheria, and acellular pertussis (Tdap)***
- The Tdap vaccine is recommended during each pregnancy, preferably between **27 and 36 weeks of gestation**, to maximize maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the fetus.
- This provides critical protection against **pertussis (whooping cough)** for the newborn, who is too young to be vaccinated.
*Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)*
- The **MMR vaccine is a live vaccine** and is **contraindicated during pregnancy** due to the theoretical risk of congenital rubella syndrome, although no cases have been reported.
- It should be administered **postpartum** if the mother is not immune to rubella.
*Varicella vaccine*
- The **varicella vaccine is a live vaccine** and is **contraindicated during pregnancy** due to the theoretical risk of congenital varicella syndrome.
- Like MMR, it should be offered in the **postpartum period** if the woman is not immune.
*Herpes zoster vaccine*
- The herpes zoster vaccine is typically recommended for **older adults** (50 years and older) for shingles prevention.
- It is **not routinely recommended during pregnancy**, and its safety and efficacy in this population have not been sufficiently established.
*Live attenuated influenza vaccine*
- The **live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)** is **contraindicated during pregnancy** due to its live virus content.
- Pregnant women should receive the **inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)**, which is safe and recommended during any trimester.
Question 84: A 24-year-old primigravida at 28 weeks gestation presents to the office stating that she “can’t feel her baby kicking anymore.” She also noticed mild-to-moderate vaginal bleeding. A prenatal visit a few days ago confirmed the fetal cardiac activity by Doppler. The medical history is significant for GERD, hypertension, and SLE. The temperature is 36.78°C (98.2°F), the blood pressure is 125/80 mm Hg, the pulse is 70/min, and the respiratory rate is 14/min. Which of the following is the next best step in evaluation?
A. Confirmation of cardiac activity by Doppler (Correct Answer)
B. Order platelet count, fibrinogen, PT and PTT levels
C. Abdominal delivery
D. Speculum examination
E. Misoprostol
Explanation: ***Confirmation of cardiac activity by Doppler***
- The patient presents with **decreased fetal movement** and **vaginal bleeding** at 28 weeks, which are concerning signs for complications like **placental abruption** or **fetal demise**.
- The immediate priority is to assess **fetal viability** by confirming the presence of a **fetal heartbeat**, with **Doppler ultrasonography** being the quickest and most accessible method.
*Order platelet count, fibrinogen, PT and PTT levels*
- While **coagulation studies** are important in cases of significant vaginal bleeding, especially if **placental abruption** is suspected, they are not the *next best step*.
- Assessing **fetal well-being** takes precedence, as the presence or absence of a **fetal heart rate** will guide subsequent emergency management.
*Abdominal delivery*
- **Abdominal delivery (C-section)** is a definitive intervention and should only be considered *after* an immediate assessment of **fetal status** and maternal stability.
- Delivery at 28 weeks gestation would be considered **preterm**, and careful evaluation is needed before making such a critical decision.
*Speculum examination*
- A **speculum examination** is used to investigate the source of vaginal bleeding, assess the cervix, and rule out causes such as **cervical lesions** or **cervical dilation**.
- However, given the *decreased fetal movement* and the potential for severe obstetrical emergencies, **fetal viability** must be confirmed first.
*Misoprostol*
- **Misoprostol** is a **prostaglandin analog** used to induce cervical ripening and uterine contractions, primarily for **labor induction** or **abortion**.
- It is not indicated as an initial diagnostic or therapeutic step in a patient with *decreased fetal movement* and *vaginal bleeding* without a clear diagnosis or indication for delivery.
Question 85: A 53-year-old woman comes to the physician for evaluation of a 5-month history of painful sexual intercourse. She also reports vaginal dryness and occasional spotting. She has no pain with urination. She has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia. Her last menstrual period was 8 months ago. She is sexually active with her husband and has two children. Current medications include ramipril, metformin, atorvastatin, and aspirin. Her temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), pulse is 85/min, and blood pressure is 140/82 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows decreasing labial fat pad, receding pubic hair, and clear vaginal discharge. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Topical estrogen cream (Correct Answer)
B. Oral fluconazole
C. Oral metronidazole
D. Topical nystatin
E. Topical corticosteroids
Explanation: ***Topical estrogen cream***
- The patient's symptoms (painful sexual intercourse, vaginal dryness, occasional spotting, last menstrual period 8 months ago) and examination findings (decreasing **labial fat pad**, receding **pubic hair**) are highly suggestive of **genitourinary syndrome of menopause (GSM)**, previously known as vulvovaginal atrophy.
- **Topical estrogen therapy** directly addresses the underlying **estrogen deficiency**, restoring vaginal moisture, elasticity, and reducing dyspareunia.
*Oral fluconazole*
- This is an **antifungal medication** used to treat **yeast infections**, which typically present with itching, burning, and a cottage cheese-like discharge.
- The patient's symptoms are not consistent with a fungal infection, and her discharge is described as clear, not characteristic of candidiasis.
*Oral metronidazole*
- This is an **antibiotic** primarily used to treat **bacterial vaginosis** (characterized by a foul-smelling, thin, gray discharge) or **trichomoniasis** (vaginal discharge that is green/yellow, frothy, and malodorous).
- The patient's clinical picture does not align with either of these infections.
*Topical nystatin*
- Nystatin is another **antifungal agent**, primarily used for topical treatment of **cutaneous candidiasis** or in oral suspension for oral thrush.
- It would not be effective for the symptoms of vaginal atrophy and is not a first-line treatment for vaginal candidiasis (fluconazole is preferred).
*Topical corticosteroids*
- Corticosteroids are **anti-inflammatory agents** used to treat conditions like dermatological inflammation, allergic reactions, or certain autoimmune skin diseases.
- They would not address the **estrogen deficiency** underlying the patient's symptoms and are not indicated for genitourinary syndrome of menopause.
Question 86: A 15-year-old girl comes to the physician for a routine health maintenance examination. She recently became sexually active with her boyfriend and requests a prescription for an oral contraception. She lives with her parents. She has smoked half a pack of cigarettes daily for the past 2 years. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
A. I would recommend performing a Pap smear, since you have become sexually active.
B. I would need your parent's permission before I can provide information about contraceptive therapy.
C. I would like to discuss the various contraceptive options that are available. (Correct Answer)
D. I cannot prescribe oral contraceptives if you are currently a smoker.
E. I would recommend a multiphasic combination of ethinyl estradiol and norgestimate.
Explanation: ***I would like to discuss the various contraceptive options that are available.***
- This response is appropriate because it respects the patient's autonomy and initiates an open discussion about her needs while ensuring she receives comprehensive information.
- A thorough discussion of **contraceptive options** allows the physician to assess the patient's individual risk factors, lifestyle, and preferences before prescribing, which is crucial given her age and smoking history.
*I would recommend performing a Pap smear, since you have become sexually active.*
- While a Pap smear is important for sexually active individuals, it is generally recommended from **age 21** regardless of sexual activity, or **3 years after sexual debut** for immunocompromised individuals or those with a history of cervical dysplasia, not immediately for a 15-year-old.
- Focusing solely on a Pap smear at this juncture **defers the patient's primary concern** of contraception and may unnecessarily cause anxiety.
*I would need your parent's permission before I can provide information about contraceptive therapy.*
- In many jurisdictions, including numerous US states, minors have the right to **confidential access to contraception** without parental consent.
- Requiring parental permission would be a barrier to care and may violate the patient's **confidentiality** and **autonomy** regarding reproductive health.
*I cannot prescribe oral contraceptives if you are currently a smoker.*
- While smoking is a **contraindication for combined oral contraceptives (COCs)** in women over 35, and a relative contraindication for younger smokers, it is not an absolute contraindication for all forms of hormonal contraception.
- This statement prematurely closes the discussion on **all contraceptive options**, including progestin-only pills or long-acting reversible contraceptives (LARCs), which would be safer choices for a young smoker.
*I would recommend a multiphasic combination of ethinyl estradiol and norgestimate.*
- Prescribing a specific combined oral contraceptive immediately without a full discussion of risks, benefits, and alternatives is **premature and potentially unsafe** given her smoking history.
- **Combined oral contraceptives** containing estrogen generally carry an increased risk of **thromboembolism** in smokers, especially those over 35, making a thorough assessment and alternative consideration essential for this 15-year-old.
Question 87: A 21-year-old woman comes to the physician because she had a positive pregnancy test at home. For the past 3 weeks, she has had nausea and increased urinary frequency. She also had three episodes of non-bloody vomiting. She attends college and is on the varsity soccer team. She runs 45 minutes daily and lifts weights for strength training for 1 hour three times per week. She also reports that she wants to renew her ski pass for the upcoming winter season. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?
A. Stop playing soccer, stop strength training, and do not buy a ski pass
B. Continue playing soccer, stop strength training, and do not buy a ski pass
C. Stop playing soccer, continue strength training, and buy a ski pass
D. Stop playing soccer, continue strength training, and do not buy a ski pass (Correct Answer)
E. Continue playing soccer, continue strength training, and do not buy a ski pass
Explanation: ***Stop playing soccer, continue strength training, and do not buy a ski pass***
- This recommendation balances a **healthy lifestyle** with the **safety concerns** associated with pregnancy, reducing exposure to high-impact activities while encouraging beneficial exercises.
- **Soccer** and **skiing** pose risks of falls and abdominal trauma, which are best avoided during pregnancy, while **strength training** can be safely modified.
*Stop playing soccer, stop strength training, and do not buy a ski pass*
- While stopping soccer and skiing is appropriate, completely stopping **strength training** may be overly restrictive, as moderate exercise is generally encouraged in pregnancy.
- Maintaining some level of physical activity, such as **modified strength training**, can help manage weight, improve mood, and prepare the body for labor.
*Continue playing soccer, stop strength training, and do not buy a ski pass*
- **Continuing soccer** is not recommended due to the **high risk of falls** and **abdominal trauma**, which could harm the fetus.
- While stopping skiing is appropriate, discouraging all forms of strength training might remove **beneficial exercise** from her routine.
*Stop playing soccer, continue strength training, and buy a ski pass*
- **Buying a ski pass** and potentially skiing is **contraindicated** due to the high risk of falls and injury, which could endanger the pregnancy.
- Although stopping soccer and continuing strength training are appropriate, the inclusion of skiing makes this an **unsafe recommendation**.
*Continue playing soccer, continue strength training, and do not buy a ski pass*
- **Continuing soccer** is unsafe during pregnancy due to the significant risk of falls, collisions, and **abdominal injury**.
- While strength training can be safely continued with modifications, the inclusion of soccer makes this recommendation **inappropriate**.
Question 88: A 24-year-old woman visits her physician to seek preconception advice. She is recently married and plans to have a child soon. Menses occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 5 days. She has sexual intercourse only with her husband and, at this time, they consistently use condoms for birth control. The patient consumes a well-balanced diet with moderate intake of meat and dairy products. She has no history of serious illness and takes no medications currently. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. The patient’s history reveals no birth defects or severe genetic abnormalities in the family. Physical examination shows no abnormalities. Pelvic examination indicates a normal vagina, cervix, uterus, and adnexa. To decrease the likelihood of fetal neural-tube defects in her future pregnancy, which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for initiation of folic acid supplementation?
A. As soon as her pregnancy is confirmed
B. No folic acid supplement is required as nutritional sources are adequate
C. As soon as possible (Correct Answer)
D. When off contraception
E. In the second half of pregnancy
Explanation: ***As soon as possible***
- Folic acid supplementation is crucial for preventing **neural tube defects (NTDs)**, which occur very early in pregnancy, often before a woman even knows she is pregnant.
- To be effective, supplementation should begin at least **one month prior to conception** and continue through the first trimester.
*As soon as her pregnancy is confirmed*
- This timing is too late because **neurulation** (the formation of the neural tube) is completed by the **28th day post-conception**, often before a pregnancy is confirmed.
- Delaying supplementation until confirmation significantly reduces its preventative effect against neural tube defects.
*No folic acid supplement is required as nutritional sources are adequate*
- While a balanced diet contains some folic acid, it is generally **insufficient** to reach the protective levels needed to prevent NTDs.
- The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and other health organizations recommend universal folic acid supplementation for all women of childbearing age, regardless of diet.
*When off contraception*
- Although discontinuing contraception indicates an intent to conceive, starting folic acid *only* at this point might still be too late.
- It's recommended to start supplementation at least **1 month before attempting conception** to ensure adequate folate levels at the critical time of neural tube closure.
*In the second half of pregnancy*
- Supplementing in the second half of pregnancy is **too late** to prevent neural tube defects.
- By this stage, the neural tube has already fully developed or failed to close, and supplementation will not reverse any existing defects.
Question 89: An otherwise healthy 15-year-old girl is brought to the physician for evaluation of severe acne that involves her face, chest, and back. It has not improved with her current combination therapy of oral cephalexin and topical benzoyl peroxide. She is sexually active with one male partner, and they use condoms consistently. Facial scarring and numerous comedones are present, with sebaceous skin lesions on her face, chest, and back. Which of the following is indicated prior to initiating the appropriate treatment in this patient?
A. Evaluate color vision
B. Measure serum DHEA-S and testosterone levels
C. Switch cephalexin to doxycycline
D. Administer oral contraceptives
E. Perform quantitative beta-hCG assay (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Perform quantitative beta-hCG assay***
- The patient needs a **quantitative beta-hCG assay** to rule out pregnancy before initiating **isotretinoin**, which is highly teratogenic and the likely next step for severe, refractory acne not responding to initial treatments.
- Due to the high risk of severe birth defects (e.g., **craniofacial, cardiac, CNS abnormalities**), female patients of child-bearing potential must commit to two forms of contraception and have regular pregnancy tests before and during isotretinoin therapy as part of the **iPLEDGE program**.
*Evaluate color vision*
- **Color vision testing** is not typically indicated before initiating treatment for severe acne; it is sometimes performed if **ethambutol** (an antitubercular drug) is used, which can cause optic neuritis.
- This evaluation is irrelevant for the management of acne with agents like isotretinoin.
*Measure serum DHEA-S and testosterone levels*
- Measuring **serum DHEA-S and testosterone levels** is usually done to investigate underlying hyperandrogenism in cases of **hormonal acne** that is resistant to typical treatments, or if there are other signs of virilization (e.g., hirsutism, irregular menses).
- While hormonal factors contribute to acne, the immediate priority in this case of severe, refractory acne in a sexually active female, prior to initiating isotretinoin, is to exclude pregnancy.
*Switch cephalexin to doxycycline*
- Switching from **cephalexin** to **doxycycline** might be considered in cases of treatment failure with one antibiotic, as doxycycline is a very common and effective oral antibiotic for moderate to severe acne due to its anti-inflammatory properties.
- However, for "severe" acne with "facial scarring" that has already failed initial combination therapy, including an oral antibiotic, the next step is often **isotretinoin**, and doxycycline carries its own risks (e.g., photosensitivity, GI upset) and may not be sufficient for such severe cases.
*Administer oral contraceptives*
- **Oral contraceptives** can be effective for managing acne, especially hormonal acne, but they are typically used as a treatment option and not a prerequisite test before initiating the "appropriate treatment" (likely isotretinoin in this severe case).
- While they can be part of the therapeutic regimen, especially for their contraceptive benefits when isotretinoin is used, they are not a diagnostic step or a required prior intervention for this specific clinical scenario.
Question 90: A 33-year-old pregnant woman in the 28th week of gestation presents to the emergency department for evaluation of bilateral edema of her legs. It seems to worsen at the end of the day and has lasted for the past 3 weeks. History reveals that this is her 3rd pregnancy. Vital signs include: blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate 74/min, respiratory rate 18/min, and temperature 36.6°C (98.0°F). Body mass index is 36 kg/m2. Physical examination reveals bilateral leg edema with engorged surface veins. A photograph of the patient’s legs is shown. Which of the following is the best initial management of the patient?
A. Enoxaparin
B. Endovenous laser treatment
C. Warfarin
D. Compression stockings (Correct Answer)
E. Foam sclerotherapy
Explanation: ***Compression stockings***
- This patient presents with typical symptoms of **varicose veins and edema** associated with pregnancy, namely bilateral leg edema that worsens with activity. Compression stockings are the **first-line non-pharmacological treatment** for reducing symptoms and preventing progression.
- The increased **uterine pressure**, coupled with **hormonal changes** during pregnancy, leads to venous stasis, which is effectively managed by **graduated compression** provided by the stockings.
*Enoxaparin*
- **Enoxaparin** is an anticoagulant used for treating or preventing **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)** or pulmonary embolism. The patient's presentation of bilateral edema and engorged veins is more consistent with **venous insufficiency or varicose veins** rather than an acute thrombotic event.
- There are **no signs suggestive of DVT** such as unilateral swelling, pain, or redness, and current evidence points towards benign rather than thrombotic compression.
*Endovenous laser treatment*
- **Endovenous laser treatment (EVLT)** is a minimally invasive procedure used to close off incompetent veins, typically for **symptomatic varicose veins** that are not responsive to conservative management.
- While effective, EVLT is generally **not recommended during pregnancy** given the risk of potential complications and is reserved for post-partum treatment if symptoms persist.
*Warfarin*
- **Warfarin** is an oral anticoagulant primarily used for long-term anticoagulation in conditions like atrial fibrillation or prosthetic heart valves. It is **contraindicated in pregnancy** due to its known **teratogenic effects**, particularly during the first trimester, and risk of fetal hemorrhage in later stages.
- This patient's symptoms are not indicative of a condition requiring systemic anticoagulation, and certainly not with warfarin given her pregnancy status.
*Foam sclerotherapy*
- **Foam sclerotherapy** is a procedure where a foamed sclerosant is injected into varicose veins to cause their closure. It is generally used for **symptomatic varicose veins** or cosmetic concerns.
- Similar to EVLT, sclerotherapy is typically **avoided during pregnancy** due to potential risks to the fetus and increased risk of complications at time of pregnancy, with treatment deferred to the postpartum period.