A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She has had swollen legs, mild shortness of breath, and generalized fatigue for the past 2 weeks. Medications include iron supplements and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 93/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 108/60 mm Hg. There is 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities, but no erythema or tenderness. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows an S3 gallop. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 32-week gestation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient's symptoms?
Q22
A 20-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician in October for her first prenatal visit. She has delayed the visit because she wanted a “natural birth” but was recently convinced to get a checkup after feeling more tired than usual. She feels well. Menarche was at the age of 12 years and menses used to occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 3–7 days. The patient emigrated from Mexico 2 years ago. Her immunization records are unavailable. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 28-week gestation. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.4 g/dL
Leukocyte count 8,000/mm3
Blood group B negative
Serum
Glucose 88 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
TSH 3.8 μU/mL
Rapid plasma reagin negative
HIV antibody negative
Hepatitis B surface antigen negative
Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Urine culture is negative. Chlamydia and gonorrhea testing are negative. A Pap smear is normal. Administration of which of the following vaccines is most appropriate at this time?
Q23
A 29-year-old man presents to an STD clinic complaining of a painful lesion at the end of his penis. The patient says it started as a tiny red bump and grew over several days. He has no history of a serious illness and takes no medications. He has had several sexual partners in the past few months. At the clinic, his temperature is 38.2℃ (100.8℉), the blood pressure is 115/70 mm Hg, the pulse is 84/min, and the respirations are 14/min. Examination of the inguinal area shows enlarged and tender lymph nodes, some of which are fluctuant. There is an ulcerated and weeping sore with an erythematous base and ragged edges on the end of his penis. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. The result of the Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) is negative. Which of the following diagnoses best explains these findings?
Q24
A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 0, at 28 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She has not had regular prenatal care. Her most recent ultrasound at 20 weeks of gestation confirmed accurate fetal dates and appropriate fetal development. She takes levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. She used to work as a nurse before she emigrated from Brazil 13 years ago. She lost her immunization records during the move and cannot recall all of her vaccinations. She appears well. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a fundal height of 26 cm and no abnormalities. An ELISA test for HIV is negative. Serology testing shows hepatitis B surface antibody positive, hepatitis B core antibody and surface antigen negative, and hepatitis A antibody negative. Hepatitis C antibody is positive with detectable RNA. Given her incomplete vaccination history and current serologic results, which of the following vaccinations is most appropriate to recommend at this time?
Q25
An 18-year-old woman presents to the medical clinic 4 days after her boyfriend's condom broke during sexual intercourse. The patient states "I do not wish to get pregnant at this point in my life." She has no other medical conditions and takes no prescription medications. Her family history is negative. She is a social drinker, drinking approximately 3–4 days every month. She is currently in a monogamous relationship with her boyfriend and she believes her boyfriend is monogamous as well. The heart rate is 104/min, and the blood pressure is 124/80 mm Hg. On physical examination, she appears tired and nervous. Heart auscultation reveals no murmur, and the lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her ovaries and uterus are palpable. Speculum exam shows no signs of trauma and a closed cervical os. Based on her history and physical examination, which of the following management strategies would you recommend?
Q26
A 29-year-old G1P0 woman at 24 weeks gestation presents to her physician with complaints of burning with urination, and she reports that she has been urinating much more frequently than usual over the past several days. She otherwise is doing well and has experienced no complications with her pregnancy or vaginal discharge. Her temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 112/82 mmHg, pulse is 89/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Examination is significant for suprapubic discomfort upon palpation and a gravid uterus. There is no costovertebral angle tenderness. Urinalysis shows increased leukocyte esterase, elevated nitrites, 55 leukocytes/hpf, and bacteria. The physician prescribes a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
Q27
A 23-year-old woman presents with a 4-week menstrual delay. She also complains of irritability, increased somnolence, and occasional nausea. She had her first menarche at the age of 13, and her menstrual cycle became regular at the age of 15. She has been sexually active since the age of 20 but has had the same sexual partner since then. They stopped using birth control protection approximately 6 months ago. She does not smoke and consumes alcohol occasionally. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 71/min, respiratory rate is 14/min, and temperature is 36.6℃ (98.2℉). Physical examination is significant only for slight breast engorgement and nipple pigmentation. Gynecologic examination reveals cervical softening and cyanosis. Which of the following drugs would be recommended for this patient?
Q28
A 28-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 24 weeks gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She reports dull aching pain and paresthesia over her left hand during the last few weeks. The pain radiates to her shoulder and is worse at night. Her hand feels numb upon waking up in the morning. She has a sister who has multiple sclerosis. Her current medications include iron supplements and a multivitamin. Vital signs are within normal limits. When the wrist is passively held in full flexion, aggravation of paresthesia is perceived immediately. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's symptoms?
Q29
A 27-year-old African-American woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 11 weeks' gestation comes to her physician for a prenatal visit. She feels more fatigued than usual but has no other symptoms. She has no history of serious illness. She takes no medications. Her mother has systemic lupus erythematosus. Her temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F), pulse is 80/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 120/75 mm Hg. Examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
Hematocrit 27.5%
Leukocyte count 6,000/mm3
Platelet Count 180,000/mm3
MCV 74 μm3
MCH 24 pg/cell
Serum
Na+ 138 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
Cl- 100 mEq/L
HCO3- 25 mEq/L
Urea Nitrogen 15 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Total Bilirubin 0.4 mg/dL
Iron 67 U/L
Ferritin 98 ng/mL
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Q30
A 26-year-old woman presents to the women’s health clinic with a 9-week delay in menses. The patient has a history of grand mal seizures, and was recently diagnosed with acute sinusitis. She is prescribed lamotrigine and amoxicillin. The patient smokes one-half pack of cigarettes every day for 10 years, and drinks socially a few weekends every month. Her mother died of breast cancer when she was 61 years old. The vital signs are stable during the current office visit. Physical examination is grossly normal. The physician orders a urine beta-hCG that comes back positive. Abdominal ultrasound shows an embryo consistent in dates with the first day of last menstrual period. Given the history of the patient, which of the following would most likely decrease congenital malformations in the newborn?
Prenatal Care US Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 32 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She has had swollen legs, mild shortness of breath, and generalized fatigue for the past 2 weeks. Medications include iron supplements and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 93/min, respirations are 20/min, and blood pressure is 108/60 mm Hg. There is 2+ pitting edema of the lower extremities, but no erythema or tenderness. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows an S3 gallop. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 32-week gestation. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management for this patient's symptoms?
A. Ventilation-perfusion scan
B. Urinalysis
C. Echocardiography (Correct Answer)
D. Lower extremity doppler
E. Reassurance and monitoring
Explanation: ***Echocardiography***
- The patient presents with classic signs of **peripartum cardiomyopathy**, including **new-onset heart failure** symptoms (dyspnea, fatigue, edema) in the late stages of pregnancy (32 weeks) with an **S3 gallop**.
- **Echocardiography** is the definitive diagnostic tool to visualize cardiac function, assess ventricular size, and measure the **ejection fraction** to confirm cardiomyopathy.
*Ventilation-perfusion scan*
- This test is primarily used to diagnose **pulmonary embolism**, which typically presents with sudden onset dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and sometimes hypoxemia, none of which are prominent here.
- While shortness of breath is present, the **S3 gallop** and widespread edema are more indicative of cardiac dysfunction than pulmonary embolism.
*Urinalysis*
- A urinalysis is used to screen for kidney issues or **preeclampsia** (proteinuria), which can present with edema and hypertension.
- However, this patient's blood pressure is normal, and her symptoms point more directly to cardiac rather than renal pathology.
*Lower extremity doppler*
- This is used to diagnose **deep vein thrombosis (DVT)**, which would typically cause unilateral leg swelling, warmth, and tenderness.
- The patient has **bilateral pitting edema** with no erythema or tenderness, making DVT less likely as the primary cause of her symptoms.
*Reassurance and monitoring*
- Given the patient's significant and worsening symptoms (**dyspnea, S3 gallop, widespread edema**), simply reassuring her and monitoring would be inappropriate and could lead to delayed diagnosis and treatment of a serious cardiac condition.
- These symptoms are beyond the normal physiological changes of pregnancy and warrant urgent investigation.
Question 22: A 20-year-old primigravid woman comes to the physician in October for her first prenatal visit. She has delayed the visit because she wanted a “natural birth” but was recently convinced to get a checkup after feeling more tired than usual. She feels well. Menarche was at the age of 12 years and menses used to occur at regular 28-day intervals and last 3–7 days. The patient emigrated from Mexico 2 years ago. Her immunization records are unavailable. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 28-week gestation. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 12.4 g/dL
Leukocyte count 8,000/mm3
Blood group B negative
Serum
Glucose 88 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.1 mg/dL
TSH 3.8 μU/mL
Rapid plasma reagin negative
HIV antibody negative
Hepatitis B surface antigen negative
Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Urine culture is negative. Chlamydia and gonorrhea testing are negative. A Pap smear is normal. Administration of which of the following vaccines is most appropriate at this time?
A. Varicella and influenza
B. Varicella and Tdap
C. Influenza only
D. Tdap and influenza (Correct Answer)
E. Hepatitis B and MMR
Explanation: ***Tdap and influenza***
- The **Tdap vaccine** is recommended for pregnant women during each pregnancy, preferably between **27 and 36 weeks gestation**, to provide passive immunity to the newborn against pertussis. The patient is at 28 weeks gestation.
- The **influenza vaccine** is recommended for all pregnant women, regardless of trimester, during flu season (October in this case) to protect both the mother and the newborn.
*Varicella and influenza*
- The **varicella vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy** because it is a live attenuated vaccine.
- While influenza vaccine is appropriate, administering varicella vaccine is not.
*Varicella and Tdap*
- As mentioned, the **varicella vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy** due to its live attenuated nature.
- Although Tdap is appropriate, varicella is not.
*Influenza only*
- While the **influenza vaccine is appropriate**, the **Tdap vaccine** is also indicated for this patient given her gestational age and the benefits for the newborn.
- Administering only influenza would miss an opportunity to provide crucial pertussis protection.
*Hepatitis B and MMR*
- The **Hepatitis B vaccine** is safe in pregnancy if indicated, but the patient tested **Hepatitis B surface antigen negative**, suggesting no current infection and no immediate need for vaccination based on the provided information.
- The **MMR vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy** because it is a live attenuated vaccine.
Question 23: A 29-year-old man presents to an STD clinic complaining of a painful lesion at the end of his penis. The patient says it started as a tiny red bump and grew over several days. He has no history of a serious illness and takes no medications. He has had several sexual partners in the past few months. At the clinic, his temperature is 38.2℃ (100.8℉), the blood pressure is 115/70 mm Hg, the pulse is 84/min, and the respirations are 14/min. Examination of the inguinal area shows enlarged and tender lymph nodes, some of which are fluctuant. There is an ulcerated and weeping sore with an erythematous base and ragged edges on the end of his penis. The remainder of the physical examination shows no abnormalities. The result of the Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) is negative. Which of the following diagnoses best explains these findings?
A. Chancre
B. Chancroid (Correct Answer)
C. Condyloma latum
D. Lymphogranuloma venereum
E. Condyloma acuminatum
Explanation: ***Chancroid***
- This diagnosis is characterized by a **painful genital ulcer** with **ragged edges** and an **erythematous base**, accompanied by **painful, enlarged, and fluctuant inguinal lymph nodes** (buboes).
- The causative agent is *Haemophilus ducreyi*, and the patient's symptoms, including fever and recent multiple sexual partners, are consistent with this infection.
*Chancre*
- A chancre, characteristic of **primary syphilis**, is typically a **painless ulcer** with a clean base and firm, raised borders, which contrasts with the painful and ragged ulcer described here.
- While syphilis can cause lymphadenopathy, it's usually bilateral and non-tender, unlike the painful and fluctuant nodes seen in chancroid; the **negative VDRL** also rules out active syphilis.
*Condyloma latum*
- **Condyloma latum** are moist, flat-topped, wart-like lesions associated with **secondary syphilis**, and they are typically **painless** and do not ulcerate or weep.
- This presentation does not match the described painful, ulcerated lesion, and the negative VDRL further discredits active syphilis.
*Lymphogranuloma venereum*
- **Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)**, caused by specific serovars of *Chlamydia trachomatis*, presents with a usually **painless, transient papule or ulcer** followed by severe, often unilateral, inguinal lymphadenopathy that can coalesce into buboes.
- While LGV can cause painful buboes, the initial lesion is often inconspicuous and painless, unlike the prominent painful ulcer described here.
*Condyloma acuminatum*
- **Condyloma acuminatum**, or **genital warts**, are caused by the **human papillomavirus (HPV)** and present as cauliflower-like, flesh-colored growths that are typically **painless** and **non-ulcerative**.
- This presentation does not involve an ulcerated, weeping lesion or associated painful lymphadenopathy, making it an unlikely diagnosis.
Question 24: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 0, at 28 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She has not had regular prenatal care. Her most recent ultrasound at 20 weeks of gestation confirmed accurate fetal dates and appropriate fetal development. She takes levothyroxine for hypothyroidism. She used to work as a nurse before she emigrated from Brazil 13 years ago. She lost her immunization records during the move and cannot recall all of her vaccinations. She appears well. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows a fundal height of 26 cm and no abnormalities. An ELISA test for HIV is negative. Serology testing shows hepatitis B surface antibody positive, hepatitis B core antibody and surface antigen negative, and hepatitis A antibody negative. Hepatitis C antibody is positive with detectable RNA. Given her incomplete vaccination history and current serologic results, which of the following vaccinations is most appropriate to recommend at this time?
A. Undergo liver biopsy
B. Schedule a cesarean delivery
C. Start combination therapy with interferon α and ribavirin
D. Counsel about transmission risks and plan postpartum treatment
E. Hepatitis A vaccination (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hepatitis A vaccination***
- The patient has no prior immunity to **Hepatitis A**, as indicated by the **negative Hepatitis A antibody** serology.
- Vaccination against **Hepatitis A** is crucial in this patient, especially given her increased risk of exposure due to being a former healthcare worker and a positive hepatitis C infection.
*Undergo liver biopsy*
- A **liver biopsy** is an invasive procedure and is generally not recommended during pregnancy, especially when other diagnostic or management strategies are available.
- While it can assess the degree of liver damage, it is usually reserved for specific indications and is not the most appropriate immediate step for vaccine recommendation.
*Schedule a cesarean delivery*
- **Hepatitis C viral transmission** to the fetus is primarily vertical during birth, but a **cesarean delivery** has not been shown to significantly reduce this risk compared to vaginal delivery.
- The decision regarding delivery method is typically made based on obstetric indications rather than solely for Hepatitis C prevention.
*Start combination therapy with interferon α and ribavirin*
- **Interferon α** and **ribavirin** are contraindicated during pregnancy due to their **teratogenic effects** and severe side effects.
- Antiviral treatment for Hepatitis C is generally deferred until **postpartum**.
*Counsel about transmission risks and plan postpartum treatment*
- While counseling about **transmission risks** and planning **postpartum treatment** for Hepatitis C is essential, it addresses the existing Hepatitis C infection rather than prescribing a vaccination, which is the direct question.
- It is an important part of comprehensive care for this patient but not the most appropriate *vaccination* recommendation.
Question 25: An 18-year-old woman presents to the medical clinic 4 days after her boyfriend's condom broke during sexual intercourse. The patient states "I do not wish to get pregnant at this point in my life." She has no other medical conditions and takes no prescription medications. Her family history is negative. She is a social drinker, drinking approximately 3–4 days every month. She is currently in a monogamous relationship with her boyfriend and she believes her boyfriend is monogamous as well. The heart rate is 104/min, and the blood pressure is 124/80 mm Hg. On physical examination, she appears tired and nervous. Heart auscultation reveals no murmur, and the lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Her ovaries and uterus are palpable. Speculum exam shows no signs of trauma and a closed cervical os. Based on her history and physical examination, which of the following management strategies would you recommend?
A. Ethinyl estradiol
B. Mifepristone
C. Copper-IUD (Correct Answer)
D. Ulipristal acetate
E. Levonorgestrel
Explanation: ***Copper-IUD***
- A **copper IUD** is the most effective form of emergency contraception, with a failure rate of less than 0.1%. It can be inserted up to 5 days after unprotected intercourse.
- It works by causing a **spermicidal inflammatory reaction** in the uterus, preventing fertilization and implantation.
*Ethinyl estradiol*
- **Ethinyl estradiol** is an estrogen component typically used in combined oral contraceptives, but not as effective as dedicated emergency contraception methods.
- Using estrogen alone for emergency contraception would require a very high dose, leading to significant side effects like **nausea and vomiting**, and its efficacy is lower compared to other options.
*Mifepristone*
- **Mifepristone** is an antiprogestin primarily used for medical abortion within the first 10 weeks of pregnancy, not as a standalone emergency contraceptive.
- It would not be the first-line choice for emergency contraception in a patient seeking to prevent pregnancy *after* intercourse, but rather to terminate an established pregnancy.
*Ulipristal acetate*
- **Ulipristal acetate** is an effective oral emergency contraceptive that can be taken up to 5 days (120 hours) after unprotected intercourse.
- While effective, its efficacy is slightly lower than a copper IUD, especially as time from intercourse increases, and the patient has no contraindications for IUD insertion.
*Levonorgestrel*
- **Levonorgestrel** (Plan B One-Step) is an oral emergency contraceptive most effective when taken within 72 hours, though it can be somewhat effective up to 120 hours.
- Its efficacy decreases significantly after 72 hours, and it is less effective than a copper IUD, especially considering the patient is already 4 days post-intercourse.
Question 26: A 29-year-old G1P0 woman at 24 weeks gestation presents to her physician with complaints of burning with urination, and she reports that she has been urinating much more frequently than usual over the past several days. She otherwise is doing well and has experienced no complications with her pregnancy or vaginal discharge. Her temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 112/82 mmHg, pulse is 89/min, respirations are 19/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Examination is significant for suprapubic discomfort upon palpation and a gravid uterus. There is no costovertebral angle tenderness. Urinalysis shows increased leukocyte esterase, elevated nitrites, 55 leukocytes/hpf, and bacteria. The physician prescribes a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin. Which of the following is the next best step in management?
A. Test for gonorrhea and chlamydia
B. Send a urine culture (Correct Answer)
C. Perform a renal ultrasound
D. Add ciprofloxacin to antibiotic regimen
E. Add penicillin to antibiotic regimen
Explanation: ***Send a urine culture***
- A urine culture is crucial for confirming the diagnosis of a **urinary tract infection (UTI)**, identifying the specific pathogen, and determining its **antibiotic susceptibility** in pregnant patients.
- This step ensures that the prescribed antibiotic, nitrofurantoin, is effective against the causative organism, which is essential to prevent complications like pyelonephritis and preterm birth in pregnancy.
*Test for gonorrhea and chlamydia*
- While sexually transmitted infections (STIs) can cause dysuria, the patient's urinalysis findings (leukocyte esterase, nitrites, leukocytes, bacteria) are highly suggestive of a **bacterial UTI**, not primarily an STI.
- Furthermore, the absence of vaginal discharge makes **gonorrhea** and **chlamydia** less likely as the primary cause of her symptoms.
*Perform a renal ultrasound*
- A renal ultrasound is generally reserved for patients with **recurrent UTIs**, suspected **urinary tract obstruction**, or signs of **pyelonephritis** (e.g., fever, flank pain), which are not present here.
- This patient's symptoms are consistent with a routine cystitis, and there's no indication for imaging at this initial presentation.
*Add ciprofloxacin to antibiotic regimen*
- **Ciprofloxacin** is a **fluoroquinolone**, which is generally **contraindicated in pregnancy** due to potential adverse effects on fetal cartilage development.
- The standard first-line antibiotics for UTIs in pregnancy, like nitrofurantoin, are preferred and typically effective.
*Add penicillin to antibiotic regimen*
- While penicillin is generally safe in pregnancy, it is not a first-line agent for typical uncomplicated UTIs, which are often caused by **gram-negative bacteria** like *E. coli* that may not be susceptible to penicillin alone.
- The patient is already on nitrofurantoin, an appropriate choice, and adding penicillin without a culture result is not indicated.
Question 27: A 23-year-old woman presents with a 4-week menstrual delay. She also complains of irritability, increased somnolence, and occasional nausea. She had her first menarche at the age of 13, and her menstrual cycle became regular at the age of 15. She has been sexually active since the age of 20 but has had the same sexual partner since then. They stopped using birth control protection approximately 6 months ago. She does not smoke and consumes alcohol occasionally. Her blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, heart rate is 71/min, respiratory rate is 14/min, and temperature is 36.6℃ (98.2℉). Physical examination is significant only for slight breast engorgement and nipple pigmentation. Gynecologic examination reveals cervical softening and cyanosis. Which of the following drugs would be recommended for this patient?
A. Progesterone
B. Vitamin A
C. Folic acid (Correct Answer)
D. Combination of natural estrogen and progestin
E. Biphasic oral contraceptive
Explanation: **Folic acid**
- The patient's symptoms (menstrual delay, breast engorgement, nipple pigmentation, cervical softening, and cyanosis) strongly suggest **early pregnancy**.
- **Folic acid supplementation** is crucial in early pregnancy to prevent **neural tube defects** in the fetus.
*Progesterone*
- While progesterone supports pregnancy, it is not typically prescribed as a routine supplement to confirmed pregnant women without specific indications like a history of recurrent miscarriage or threatened abortion.
- Its primary role in normal early pregnancy is maintained by the corpus luteum, and exogenous supplementation isn't universally recommended.
*Vitamin A*
- **Excessive intake of Vitamin A** during pregnancy can be teratogenic, causing congenital malformations.
- Routine high-dose supplementation is generally avoided, and daily requirements are typically met through prenatal vitamins.
*Combination of natural estrogen and progestin*
- This combination constitutes **hormone replacement therapy** or some forms of contraception, which are contraindicated in pregnancy.
- Introducing exogenous sex hormones could interfere with the natural hormonal balance essential for a healthy pregnancy.
*Biphasic oral contraceptive*
- Oral contraceptives are **contraindicated during pregnancy** as they are used to prevent conception.
- Continuing or initiating them would be inappropriate and potentially harmful given the signs of pregnancy.
Question 28: A 28-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 24 weeks gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. She reports dull aching pain and paresthesia over her left hand during the last few weeks. The pain radiates to her shoulder and is worse at night. Her hand feels numb upon waking up in the morning. She has a sister who has multiple sclerosis. Her current medications include iron supplements and a multivitamin. Vital signs are within normal limits. When the wrist is passively held in full flexion, aggravation of paresthesia is perceived immediately. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's symptoms?
A. Demyelinating disease of peripheral nerves
B. Ulnar nerve compression
C. Demyelinating disease of CNS
D. Median nerve compression (Correct Answer)
E. Cervical radiculopathy
Explanation: ***Median nerve compression***
- The patient's symptoms of **dull aching pain**, **paresthesia** in the hand radiating to the shoulder, and **nocturnal worsening** relieved by activity are classic for **carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)**.
- The **Phalen's maneuver** (passive wrist flexion causing paresthesia) is a positive sign for CTS, indicating compression of the **median nerve** at the wrist, which is often exacerbated during pregnancy due to fluid retention and swelling.
*Demyelinating disease of peripheral nerves*
- While it can cause paresthesia, it typically presents with more diffuse and progressive sensory or motor deficits, and the specific pattern of hand symptoms and a positive Phalen's test are not characteristic.
- The symptoms are more localized and directly reproduced by a maneuver that specifically impinges the median nerve.
*Ulnar nerve compression*
- Compression of the ulnar nerve (e.g., at the **cubital tunnel**) would cause symptoms primarily in the **fourth and fifth digits**, which is not described here.
- A positive Phalen's maneuver specifically implicates the median nerve, not the ulnar nerve.
*Demyelinating disease of CNS*
- A demyelinating disease of the CNS, like **multiple sclerosis**, which runs in her family, would present with more widespread, fluctuating neurological deficits, often involving vision, balance, or motor weakness.
- The symptoms described are strictly localized to the hand and arm distribution, consistent with a peripheral nerve entrapment.
*Cervical radiculopathy*
- Cervical radiculopathy, caused by nerve root compression in the neck, would typically present with neck pain, and the pain and paresthesia would follow a **dermatomal pattern** corresponding to the affected nerve root.
- While it can radiate to the shoulder and arm, the positive Phalen's maneuver points specifically to a wrist-level median nerve compression, and the lack of neck pain makes it less likely.
Question 29: A 27-year-old African-American woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 11 weeks' gestation comes to her physician for a prenatal visit. She feels more fatigued than usual but has no other symptoms. She has no history of serious illness. She takes no medications. Her mother has systemic lupus erythematosus. Her temperature is 37.2°C (98.9°F), pulse is 80/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 120/75 mm Hg. Examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show:
Hemoglobin 9.2 g/dL
Hematocrit 27.5%
Leukocyte count 6,000/mm3
Platelet Count 180,000/mm3
MCV 74 μm3
MCH 24 pg/cell
Serum
Na+ 138 mEq/L
K+ 4.5 mEq/L
Cl- 100 mEq/L
HCO3- 25 mEq/L
Urea Nitrogen 15 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
Total Bilirubin 0.4 mg/dL
Iron 67 U/L
Ferritin 98 ng/mL
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Measure LDH and haptoglobin
B. Hemoglobin electrophoresis (Correct Answer)
C. Perform direct Coombs test
D. Measure anticardiolipin antibody titers
E. Amniocentesis
Explanation: **Hemoglobin electrophoresis**
- The patient's **microcytic anemia** (MCV 74) with normal ferritin suggests a diagnosis other than iron deficiency, such as a **hemoglobinopathy**, particularly given her African-American ethnicity and the possibility of **thalassemia** or **sickle cell trait**.
- **Prenatal screening for hemoglobinopathies** is crucial, and hemoglobin electrophoresis is the definitive test to identify different hemoglobin variants and diagnose conditions like **alpha and beta thalassemia traits** or **sickle cell trait**, which are important for genetic counseling and management during pregnancy.
*Measure LDH and haptoglobin*
- These tests are used to evaluate for **hemolytic anemia** (elevated LDH, low haptoglobin).
- While the patient has anemia, there are no other signs of hemolysis (e.g., elevated bilirubin, reticulocytosis, jaundice), and a primary focus should be on identifying the cause of the microcytic anemia before investigating hemolysis.
*Perform direct Coombs test*
- A direct Coombs test is used to detect **autoimmune hemolytic anemia**.
- There is no clinical or laboratory evidence to suggest an autoimmune hemolytic process (e.g., no spherocytes, no significant reticulocytosis, normal bilirubin).
*Measure anticardiolipin antibody titers*
- This test screens for **antiphospholipid syndrome**, which is associated with recurrent pregnancy loss and thrombosis.
- While her mother has SLE, which can be associated with antiphospholipid syndrome, the patient's primary presenting problem is unexplained microcytic anemia, not a history of pregnancy complications or thrombotic events.
*Amniocentesis*
- Amniocentesis is an invasive procedure used for **fetal genetic testing** and is typically performed later in pregnancy (15-20 weeks).
- There is no medical indication for amniocentesis at 11 weeks' gestation based on the current presentation; the immediate concern is diagnosing and managing the maternal anemia.
Question 30: A 26-year-old woman presents to the women’s health clinic with a 9-week delay in menses. The patient has a history of grand mal seizures, and was recently diagnosed with acute sinusitis. She is prescribed lamotrigine and amoxicillin. The patient smokes one-half pack of cigarettes every day for 10 years, and drinks socially a few weekends every month. Her mother died of breast cancer when she was 61 years old. The vital signs are stable during the current office visit. Physical examination is grossly normal. The physician orders a urine beta-hCG that comes back positive. Abdominal ultrasound shows an embryo consistent in dates with the first day of last menstrual period. Given the history of the patient, which of the following would most likely decrease congenital malformations in the newborn?
A. Decrease alcohol consumption
B. Switching to cephalexin
C. Folic acid supplementation (Correct Answer)
D. Smoking cessation
E. Switching to another antiepileptic medication
Explanation: ***Folic acid supplementation***
- **Folic acid** (vitamin B9) is crucial in early pregnancy for **neural tube development** and significantly reduces the risk of **neural tube defects** and other congenital malformations.
- Given the patient’s history of **lamotrigine** use, which can increase the risk of neural tube defects, folic acid supplementation is even more critical.
*Decrease alcohol consumption*
- While **alcohol cessation** is important to prevent **fetal alcohol syndrome** and other alcohol-related developmental issues, it primarily affects neurological development and facial dysmorphology rather than primarily preventing
- The effects of alcohol are typically more pronounced with **chronic heavy consumption**, and while any reduction is beneficial, it is not the most likely intervention to decrease general congenital malformations.
*Switching to cephalexin*
- **Amoxicillin** is considered **safe in pregnancy** and is a penicillin-class antibiotic, while **cephalexin** is a cephalosporin.
- Switching antibiotics from one safe drug to another without a clear medical indication (e.g., allergy, resistance) would **not decrease the risk of congenital malformations**.
*Smoking cessation*
- **Smoking cessation** is vital during pregnancy as it reduces the risk of **low birth weight**, **preterm birth**, and other complications like placental abruption.
- However, the primary link of smoking is not directly with **congenital malformations** like neural tube defects, but rather with growth restriction and adverse perinatal outcomes.
*Switching to another antiepileptic medication*
- This patient is on **lamotrigine**, which is considered one of the **safer antiepileptic drugs (AEDs)** in pregnancy, especially compared to others like **valproic acid**.
- Switching to an alternative AED might even carry a **higher risk for congenital malformations** and is generally not recommended unless lamotrigine is ineffective or contraindicated.