Postpartum hemorrhage — MCQs

Three days after delivery of a male newborn, a 36-year-old gravida 1, para 1 woman has fever and pain in her left leg. Pregnancy was complicated by premature rupture of membranes; the child was delivered at 35 weeks' gestation by lower segment transverse cesarean section because of a nonreassuring fetal heart rate. The patient has smoked half a pack of cigarettes daily for 5 years and continued to smoke during her pregnancy. Her temperature is 38.9°C (102°F), pulse is 110/min, and blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg. Examination shows an edematous, erythematous, and warm left leg. Passive dorsiflexion of the left foot elicits pain in the calf. The peripheral pulses are palpated bilaterally. The uterus is nontender and palpated at the umbilicus. Ultrasonography of the left leg shows an incompressible left popliteal vein. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?

A 27-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, delivers twins via an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. Both placentas are delivered shortly afterward. The patient received regular prenatal care and experienced no issues during her pregnancy. Over the next hour, she continues to experience vaginal bleeding, with an estimated blood loss of 1150 mL. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical exam shows an enlarged, soft uterus. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 31-year-old G6P6 woman with a history of fibroids gives birth to twins via vaginal delivery. Her pregnancy was uneventful, and she reported having good prenatal care. Both placentas are delivered immediately after the birth. The patient continues to bleed significantly over the next 20 minutes. Her temperature is 97.0°F (36.1°C), blood pressure is 124/84 mmHg, pulse is 95/min, respirations are 16/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Continued vaginal bleeding is noted. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in management?

A 30-year-old gravida 2 para 2 presents to a medical clinic to discuss contraception options. She had a normal vaginal delivery of a healthy baby boy with no complications 2 weeks ago. She is currently doing well and is breastfeeding exclusively. She would like to initiate a contraceptive method other than an intrauterine device, which she tried a few years ago, but the intrauterine device made her uncomfortable. The medical history includes migraine headaches without aura, abnormal liver function with mild fibrosis, and epilepsy as a teenager. She sees multiple specialists due to her complicated history, but is stable and takes no medications. There is a history of breast cancer on the maternal side. On physical examination, the temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), the blood pressure is 150/95 mm Hg, the pulse is 89/min, and the respiratory rate is 16/min. After discussing the various contraceptive methods available, the patient decides to try combination oral contraceptive pills. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to start the patient on combination oral contraceptive pills?

A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 38 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital 30 minutes after spontaneous rupture of membranes. Her pregnancy has been complicated by gestational diabetes treated with insulin. Her first child was delivered vaginally. Her immunizations are up-to-date. She delivers the child via cesarean section without complications after failure to progress for 16 hours. Fourteen hours after birth, she reports having body aches and feeling warm. She has to change her perineal pad every 2–3 hours. She has abdominal cramping, especially when breastfeeding. She has voided her bladder four times since the birth. She appears uncomfortable. Her temperature is 37.9°C (100.2°F), pulse is 85/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 115/60 mm Hg. The abdomen is soft, distended, and nontender. There is a healing transverse suprapubic incision without erythema or discharge. A firm, nontender uterine fundus is palpated at the level of the umbilicus. There is bright red blood on the perineal pad. The breasts are engorged and tender, without redness or palpable masses. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 24-year-old, gravida 1, para 1 woman develops lower abdominal pain and fevers 4 days after undergoing a cesarean delivery under general anesthesia for prolonged labor. Since delivery, she has had malodorous lochia and difficulty breastfeeding due to breast pain. She has not had any shortness of breath or chest pain. She received intravenous intrapartum penicillin for group B streptococcus prophylaxis, but does not take any other medications on a regular basis. She appears ill. Her temperature is 38.8°C (102°F), pulse is 120/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg. Examination shows a urinary catheter in place. Breasts are engorged and tender. Nipples are cracked with mild erythema. There is erythema surrounding a mildly tender, dry, low transverse, 12-cm incision in the lower abdomen. Pelvic examination shows dark-red, foul-smelling lochia and uterine tenderness. Her hemoglobin concentration is 9 g/dL, leukocyte count is 16,000/mm3, and platelet count is 300,000/mm3. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's fever?

A 22-year-old G1P1 has an uncomplicated vaginal delivery and delivers a newborn boy at 39 + 1 weeks. The APGAR scores are 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. Shortly after the delivery, the child is put on his mother's chest for skin-to-skin and the mother is encouraged to initiate breastfeeding. Which of the following cells produces the hormone responsible for establishing lactation during this process?

A 29-year-old G2P2 female gives birth to a healthy baby boy at 39 weeks of gestation via vaginal delivery. Immediately after the delivery of the placenta, she experiences profuse vaginal hemorrhage. Her prior birthing history is notable for an emergency cesarean section during her first pregnancy. She did not receive any prenatal care during either pregnancy. Her past medical history is notable for obesity and diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled on metformin. Her temperature is 99.0°F (37.2°C), blood pressure is 95/50 mmHg, pulse is 125/min, and respirations are 22/min. On physical examination, the patient is in moderate distress. Her extremities are pale, cool, and clammy. Capillary refill is delayed. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s bleeding?

Immediately following prolonged delivery of the placenta at 40 weeks gestation, a 32-year-old multiparous woman develops vaginal bleeding. Other than mild asthma, the patient’s pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has attended many prenatal appointments and followed the physician's advice about screening for diseases, laboratory testing, diet, and exercise. Previous pregnancies were uncomplicated. She has no history of a serious illness. She is currently on intravenous infusion of oxytocin. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), blood pressure is 108/60 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 17/min. Uterine palpation reveals a soft enlarged fundus that extends above the umbilicus. Based on the assessment of the birth canal and placenta, which of the following options is the most appropriate initial step in patient management?

A 38-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 2, is brought to the emergency department by her husband after an episode of unconsciousness. She delivered a healthy infant two weeks ago and the postpartum course was complicated by severe vaginal bleeding, for which she required 4 units of packed red blood cells. Since the blood transfusion, she has had decreased milk production and has felt fatigued. Her pulse is 118/min and blood pressure is 104/63 mm Hg. Her finger-stick glucose concentration is 34 mg/dL. Serum thyroid-stimulating hormone and thyroxine levels are low and the serum sodium level is 132 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?