Labor Complications — MCQs

A 30-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 40 weeks' gestation is admitted to the hospital in active labor. Pregnancy has been complicated by iron deficiency anemia, which was treated with iron supplements. Her first pregnancy and vaginal delivery were uncomplicated. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Her pulse is 90/min, respirations are 15/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. The abdomen is nontender and contractions are felt. Ultrasonography shows that the fetal long axis is at a right angle compared to the long axis of the maternal uterus. The fetal heart rate is 140/min and is reactive with no decelerations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 28-year-old woman who has never been pregnant presents to the physician for a follow-up examination. She has had 5 months of deep pain during sexual intercourse and pelvic pain that intensified prior to her menses. The pain has not subsided despite taking oral contraceptives. She denies any vaginal discharge or foul smell. She is in a monogamous relationship with her husband of 2 years. She has no history of any serious illnesses. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows tenderness on deep palpation of the hypogastrium. A speculum examination of the vagina and cervix shows no abnormalities or discharge. Serum studies show a beta hCG of 6 mIU/mL. A transabdominal ultrasound shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is most likely to establish a diagnosis?

Two days after spontaneous delivery, a 23-year-old woman has progressively worsening, throbbing pain in the back of her head. The pain radiates to the neck and shoulder area. The patient is nauseous and had one episode of clear emesis. She wants to be in a dark and quiet room. The patient's symptoms are exacerbated when she gets up to go to the bathroom and mildly improve with bed rest. The pregnancy was uncomplicated and she attended all prenatal health visits. She underwent epidural analgesia for delivery with adequate pain relief. Her postpartum course was free of obstetric complications. Her vital signs are within normal limits. She is alert and oriented. On examination, neck stiffness is present. Neurological examination shows no other abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 26-year-old primigravid woman at 10 weeks' gestation comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. Pregnancy was confirmed by an ultrasound 3 weeks earlier after the patient presented with severe nausea and vomiting. The nausea and vomiting have subsided without medication. She has no vaginal bleeding or discharge. Vital signs are within normal limits. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 10-week gestation. Transvaginal ultrasonography shows a gestational sac with a mean diameter of 23 mm and an embryo 6 mm in length with absent cardiac activity. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 27-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 1, at 22 weeks gestation visits her physician for a prenatal visit. She feels well. Her current pregnancy has been uncomplicated. She has attended many prenatal appointments and followed the physician's advice about screening for diseases, laboratory testing, diet, and exercise. The patient's previous pregnancies were complicated by preterm labor at 24 weeks gestation in one pregnancy and spontaneous abortion at 22 weeks in the other. She takes a multivitamin with folate every day. At the physician's office, her temperature is 37.2°C (99.0°F), and blood pressure is 109/61 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a uterus consistent in size with a 20-week gestation. Fetal heart sounds are normal. An ultrasound shows a short cervix, measured at 20 mm. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 24-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, at 10 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency department for vaginal bleeding, cramping lower abdominal pain, and dizziness. She also has had fevers, chills, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge for the past 2 days. She is sexually active with one male partner, and they use condoms inconsistently. Pregnancy and delivery of her first child were uncomplicated. She appears acutely ill. Her temperature is 38.9°C (102°F), pulse is 120/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 88/50 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows moderate tenderness to palpation over the lower quadrants. Pelvic examination shows a tender cervix that is dilated with clots and a solid bloody mass within the cervical canal. Her serum β-human chorionic gonadotropin concentration is 15,000 mIU/mL. Pelvic ultrasound shows an intrauterine gestational sac with absent fetal heart tones. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

An otherwise healthy 16-year-old girl comes to the physician because she has not had a menstrual period. Examination shows normal breast development. There is coarse pubic and axillary hair. Pelvic examination shows a blind vaginal pouch. Ultrasonography shows normal ovaries and an atretic uterus. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?

A 53-year-old woman presents with a feeling of pelvic pressure which worsens with prolonged standing, pain on sexual intercourse, and lower back pain. She reports no urinary or fecal incontinence. She is G3P3 with no history of any gynecological disease and is premenopausal. All pregnancies were without complication and resolved with full-term vaginal deliveries. The patient has sex with her husband who is her single sexual partner and uses oral contraceptives. Her vital signs are within normal limits and physical examination is unremarkable. A gynecological examination reveals bulging of the posterior vaginal wall in the lower portion of the vagina which increases in the upright position and Valsalva maneuver. The cervix is in its normal position. The uterus is not enlarged, ovaries are nonpalpable. Damage to which of the following structures might contribute to the patient’s condition?

A 26-year-old G2P1 undergoes labor induction at 40 weeks gestation. The estimated fetal weight was 3890 g. The pregnancy was complicated by gestational diabetes treated with insulin. The vital signs were as follows: blood pressure 125/80 mm Hg, heart rate 91/min, respiratory rate 21/min, and temperature 36.8℃ (98.2℉). The blood workup yields the following results: Fasting glucose 92 mg/dL HbA1c 7.8% Erythrocyte count 3.3 million/mm3 Hb 11.6 g/dL Ht 46% Thrombocyte count 240,000/mm3 Serum creatinine 0.71 mg/dL ALT 12 IU/L AST 9 IU/L Which of the following is CONTRAINDICATED during labor in this patient?

A 15-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother because of lower abdominal pain for the past 5 days. The pain is constant and she describes it as 7 out of 10 in intensity. Over the past 7 months, she has had multiple similar episodes of abdominal pain, each lasting for 4–5 days. She has not yet attained menarche. Examination shows suprapubic tenderness to palpation. Pubic hair and breast development are Tanner stage 4. Examination of the external genitalia shows no abnormalities. Pelvic examination shows bulging, bluish vaginal tissue. Rectal examination shows an anterior tender mass. Which of the following is the most effective intervention for this patient's condition?